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NBCE sample questions and important info > Physiology sample questions > Flashcards

Physiology sample questions Flashcards

1
Q

norepinephrine is removed from the synaptic cleft by?

a. degradation via acetylcholinesterase and absorption into the presynaptic cell endings
b. reuptake into adrenergic nerve endings
c. degradation to epinephrine and absorption into postsynaptic cell endings
d. reuptake into postganglionic nerve endings

A

b. reuptake into adrenergic nerve endings

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2
Q

A mechanism of postsynaptic inhibition results from the openings of _____ channels.

a. chloride
b. sodium
c. calcium
d. magnesium

A

a. chloride

sodium channels opening causes an excitatory response; opening of K+ channels can also be the result of postsynaptic inhibition

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3
Q

The static response of muscle spindle fibers is dependent upon the direct excitation of

a. nuclear fibers
b. meissner’s corpuscles
c. merkel’s discs
d. golgi tendon organs

A

a. nuclear fibers

nuclear fibers or nuclear chain fibers are intrafusal fibers along with nuclear bag fibers which are responsible for detecting change in muscle length

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4
Q

inability to coordinate sequential movements of the vocal apparatus is characteristic of ______?

a. akinesia
b. dysarthria
c. dysdiadochokinesia
d. dysphagia

A

b. dysarthria- dysfunction in speech

akinesia- loss or impairment of voluntary movement
dysdiadochokiesia- impaired ability to form rapid alternating movements
dysphagia- difficulty swallowing

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5
Q

which of these receptor types adapts most rapidly?

a. muscle spindles
b. arterial baroreceptors
c. joint capsule receptors
d. pacinian corpuscles

A

d. pacinian corpuscles- (vibration and pressure)

dorsal columns

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6
Q

stimulation of sympathetic nervous system will cause ______.

a. bradycardia
b. bronchi dilation
c. increased peristalsis
d. pupil constriction

A

b. bronchi dilation

all other answers are representative of parasympathetic stimulation

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7
Q

which region of the brain functions in the storage of visual memory?

a. frontal
b. occipital
c. parietal
d. temporal

A

c. parietal- posterior parietal cortex; visual working memory and attention

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8
Q

visual accommodation for near vision is accomplished by ____.

a. relaxation of ciliary muscle
b. decreased refractive index of lens
c. increased parasympathetic impulses to ciliary muscle
d. increased sympathetic stimulation to ciliary muscle

A

b. decreased refractive index of lens

also CONSTRICTION of the ciliary muscle as well

relaxation of the muscle happens in response to visual accommodation for far vision

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9
Q

initial action potential of auditory conduction occurs in the

a. tectorial membrane
b. superior colliculus
c. organ of corti
d. trapezoid body

A

c. organ of corti- fluid waves into nerve signals; 1st step

trapezoid body- localization of sound; most nucleus fibers decussate here
tectorial membrane- cochlear amplification
superior colliculus- visual centers here, no auditory

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10
Q

dark adaptation of the retina requires _______.

a. activation of cones
b. X cell activation
c. rhodopsin synthesis
d. ciliary muscle relaxation

A

c. rhodopsin synthesis

rhodopsin- found in rods of retina; G-coupled protein receptor sensitive to light; works best in low light conditions

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11
Q

the primary function of cardiac muscle t-tubules is _____.

a. increase calcium concentration in sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. increase refractory period
c. counteract increased membrane permeability to potassium
d. inhibit actin and myosin movement

A

a. increase in calcium concentration in sarcoplasmic reticulum

same as in skeletal muscle but the mechanism is different.
t-tubules in cardiac muscle are bigger and wider and track laterally to z-discs and there are fewer t-tubules in cardiac muscle compared to skeletal muscle

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12
Q

which of these is a difference in the action potential of cardiac muscle when compared to the action potential of striated muscle?

a. striated muscle depends on slow calcium channels
b. cardiac muscle membrane potassium permeability decreases 5-fold
c. cardiac muscle depends only on fast sodium channels
d. striated muscle requires calcium-sodium channels

A

b. cardiac muscle membrane potassium permeability decreases 5-fold

I think this is the answer because in phase 0 of the cardiac action potential, the difference is a decrease in potassium permeability to open fast sodium channels

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13
Q

which of these is the major source of calcium ions in the excitation-contraction coupling of cardiac muscle?

a. purkinje fibers
b. sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. mitochondria
d. intercalated discs

A

b. sarcoplasmic reticulum

release of Ca ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum is key step of excitation-contraction coupling

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14
Q

which of these events detaches the myosin-actin cross bridge in skeletal muscle?

a. phosphorylation of the cross bridge
b. perpendicular positioning of the actin filament
c. binding of ATP to the myosin crossbridge
d. approximation of the contracting A bands

A

c. binding of ATP to the myosin crossbridge

ATP prepares myosin for binding with actin by moving it to a higher-energy state and a “cocked” position.

Once the myosin forms a cross-bridge with actin, the Pi disassociates and the myosin undergoes the power stroke, reaching a lower energy state when the sarcomere shortens.

ATP must bind to myosin to break the cross-bridge and enable the myosin to rebind to actin at the next muscle contraction.

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15
Q

at the neuromuscular junction botulin toxin will ____

a. inhibit the action of acetylcholinesterase
b. decrease release of acetylcholine
c. increase the end plate potential
d. inhibit the synthesis of acetylcholine

A

b. decrease release of acetylcholine

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16
Q

Calcium reacts with ____ to initiate smooth muscle contraction

a. troponin
b. tropomyosin
c. calmodulin
d. myosin

A

c. calmodulin

troponin binds to calcium to initiate contraction in SKELETAL muscle

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17
Q

the period of isovolumic relaxation occurs______.

a. immediately after systole
b. during atrial contraction
c. during aortic valve opening
d. during pulmonic valve opening

A

a. immediately after systole

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18
Q

which cardiac abnormality causes an increased P-R interval on an electrocardiogram?

a. ventricular hypertrophy
b. bundle branch block
c. sinus block
d. AV block

A

d. AV block

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19
Q

Which of these has the greatest impact on pulse pressure?

a. aortic regurgitation
b. stroke volume output
c. venous distensibility
d. patent ductus arteriosus

A

b. stroke volume output

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20
Q

the aortic bodies are sensitive to _____ changes.

a. blood pressure
b. arterial PO2
c. volume
d. temperature

A

b. arterial PO2

aortic bodies are a type of “peripheral chemoreceptor” which are sensory extensions of the peripheral nervous system into blood vessels where they detect changes in chemical concentrations.

21
Q

which of these substances causes vasodilation?

a. endothelin
b. angiotensin
c. vasopressin
d. nitric oxide

A

d. nitric oxide

vasopressin, endothelin and angiotensin all cause vasoconstriction and increase in BP

22
Q

A primary function of the lymphatic system is to ______.

a. control concentration of proteins in interstitial fluid
b. produce cells of the immune system
c. control concentration of lipids in circulatory system
d. induce vasomotion in capillaries

A

a. control concentration of proteins in interstitial fluid

not sure that this one is right because I could argue that 3 of these are primary functions so I am not sure

23
Q

the function of opsonin is to ______.

a. repel macrophages
b. facilitate phagocytosis
c. stimulate cell division
d. induce autolysis

A

b. facilitate phagocytosis

24
Q

IL-1 is released by which of these?

a. eosinophils
b. B lymphocytes
c. killer cells
d. macrophages

A

d. macrophages

25
Q

air moves into the lungs during inspiration when the _____ pressure ______.

a. pleural; increases
b. alveolar; increases
c. alveolar; decreases
d. pleural; approximates zero

A

c. alveolar pressure decreases

when air isn’t moving in or out the alveolar pressure (pressure inside the lungs) is equal to the atmospheric pressure. during inspiration the increased volume of the alveoli due to lung expansion causes a decrease in alveolar pressure. At the end of inspiration, the pressure returns to zero or atm pressure

26
Q

total lung capacity is calculated by which of these?

a. inspiratory reserve volume + residual volume
b. tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume
c. vital capacity + residual volume
d. tidal volume + residual volume

A

c. vital capacity + residual volume

27
Q

An increased blood concentration of ____ stimulates the respiratory center of the medulla oblongata.

a. bicarbonate ion
b. CO2
c. albumin
d. O2

A

b. CO2

28
Q

Pulmonary dead space is best defined as _______.

a. the air space in respiratory passages where no gas exchange occurs
b. the volume of air which cannot be released during normal expiration
c. the space of lung tissue which cannot be filled during normal inspiration
d. the volume of air exchanged during each respiration

A

a. the air space in respiratory passages where no gas exchange occurs

29
Q

which of these primarily drives gaseous diffusion?

a. ionic interaction
b. covalent interaction
c. kinetic energy
d. particulate size

A

c. kinetic energy

30
Q

Angiotensin II has what effect on the kidneys?

a. dilation of renal vessels
b. induces water and sodium reabsorption
c. increases urine output
d. increases glomerular filtration

A

b. induces water and sodium reabsorption

31
Q

the absence of urine output during hemorrhagic or carcinogenic shock is principally due to ______.

a. substantial elevation in central venous pressure
b. decreased glomerular filtration rate
c. sudden rise in plasma colloidal osmotic pressure
d. exercise filtration of glucose through the glomerulus

A

a. substantial elevation in central venous pressure

central venous pressure= right atrial pressure= preload of right ventricle

increase in CVP can be due to several factors: 
decreased Cardiac output (CO)
increased blood volume 
venous constriction 
arterial dilation 
forced expiration 
etc.
32
Q

which of these prevents plasma protein from entering into the glomerular filtrate?

a. podocytes
b. vasa recta
c. macula densa
d. basement membrane

A

d. basement membrane

The basement membrane is made up of 3 layers and is fused to the endothelial membrane. Its main job is to prevent plasma proteins from being filtered out of the blood stream.

33
Q

the ascending loop of henle is virtually impermeable to _____.

a. water
b. Mg++
c. Ca++
d. Na+

A

a. water

ascending loop= absorbs ions; impermeable to H2O
descending loop= absorb water; impermeable to ions

34
Q

which of these is a potential cause of metabolic acidosis?

a. diuretic use
b. constipation
c. hyperventilation
d. diabetes mellitus

A

a. diuretic use

hyperventilation is the compensatory mechanism
ketosis and renal dysfunction are other common causes

35
Q

Primary esophageal peristalsis is best described as ____.

a. initiated by the release of somatostatin
b. a continuation of the pharyngeal wave
c. initiated by the myenteric plexus
d. a continuation of the chewing reflex

A

b. a continuation of the pharyngeal wave

36
Q

Lactase, maltase and sucrase are enzymes which can be found in the _______.

a. oral cavity
b. pancreas
c. stomach
d. small intestine

A

d. small intestine

lactase, maltase, sucrase are all brush border enzymes in the SI

somatostatin, GIP, CCK, secretin and motilin are specific to the duodenum of the SI

37
Q

Most proteins are absorbed through the luminal membranes of the intestinal epithelial cells in the form of?

a. peptones
b. polypeptides
c. lipoproteins
d. dipeptides

A

d. dipeptides

proteins can not be absorbed as chains of AAs longer than 2-3 peptides.

38
Q

what is the primary mechanism for absorption of amino acids and small peptides from the small intestine?

a. simple diffusion
b. facilitated diffusion
c. sodium co-transport
d. primary active transport

A

c. sodium co-transport

sodium co-transport is also known as secondary active transport

39
Q

histamine stimulates the gastric secretion of ____ from the _______.

a. CCK; pancreatic alpha cells
b. CCK; pancreatic beta cells
c. HCL; chief cells
d. HCL; parietal cells

A

d. HCL; parietal cells

ECL (enterochromaffin-like) cells secrete histamine which stimulates HCL

40
Q

Low blood concentrations of which hormones cause degeneration of the corpus luteum?

a. estrogen and luteinizing hormones
b. estrogen and progesterone
c. progesterone and follicle stimulating hormone
d. follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones

A

d. follicle stimulating and luteinizing hormones

this process is called involution of the corpus luteum; occurs around the 26th day of a normal female cycle and usually 2 days before menstruation begins

41
Q

which of these hormones maintains the uterus in a condition favorable to implantation of fertilized ovum?

a. FSH
b. inhibin
c. LH
d. progesterone

A

d. progesterone

42
Q

Angiotensin II stimulates the secretion of which of these hormones?

a. aldosterone
b. cortisol
c. epinephrine
d. glucagon

A

a. aldosterone

43
Q

The posterior pituitary gland secretes which of these hormones?

a. vasopressin
b. growth hormone
c. corticotropin
d. luteinizing hormone

A

a. vasopressin aka ADH

44
Q

The hormone _____ aids in lactation and is secreted from the _____ pituitary gland.

a. oxytocin; posterior
b. oxytocin; anterior
c. prolactin; posterior
d. prolactin; anterior

A

d. prolactin; anterior

45
Q

Under normal physiologic conditions, what plays the most important role in regulating ADH secretion?

a. osmotic concentration
b. hepatic blood flow
c. blood glucose levels
d. renal blood flow

A

a. osmotic concentration

46
Q

The majority of body heat loss at normal room temp occurs by what mechanism?

a. evaporation
b. conduction
c. radiation
d. sweating

A

c. radiation

a nude person sitting inside at normal room temp will have about 60% of their total heat loss by radiation

conduction by solid objects about 3%
conduction by air about 15%

evaporation cannot be controlled for purposes of temp regulation

sweating is a different mechanism

47
Q

VO2 max is best described as _____.

a. the rate of oxygen use under maximum aerobic metabolism
b. oxygen consumption x total pulmonary ventilation
c. stroke volume x oxygen consumption
d. rate of oxygen use under maximal anaerobic metabolism

A

a. the rate of oxygen under maximum aerobic metabolism

48
Q

During anaerobic exercise, the greatest amount of energy comes from ________.

a. ATP stored in muscle
b. degradation of ketones
c. conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
d. conversion of glucose to CO2 + H2O

A

c. conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid

ATP stored in muscle is used up in about 3-5 seconds, phosphocreatine combined with ATP is used in about 8-10 seconds

converting glucose into pyruvic acid is called the glycogen-lactic acid system

NBCE sample questions and important info (27 decks)

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