Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOCHEMISTRY > PART 1: mixed topics > Flashcards

PART 1: mixed topics Flashcards

1
Q

a single-based DNA gene coding changes that is LEAST LIKELY to significantly affect the function of resulting protein?

A

Silent mutations in the 3RD CODON BASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a property of the enhancer element?

A

They could work when located long distances from the promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

______ is considered as a transcriptional regulation control?

A

Chromatin remodelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TRUE of biological membrane structure

A

Cholesterol is an amphipathic molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Defines the specificity of hormone activity in a cell

A

The presence of the hormone receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TRUE of hormones

A

lipophilic hormones need transport proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a vitamin that is essential for one-carbon metabolism

A

Folic Acid (vit B9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which statement is true about competitive inhibition?

A

Usually the inhibitor structurally resembles the normal substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The active form of Vitamin B12 coenzyme:

A

5-deoxyadenosylcobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TRUE statement regarding carbohydrate digestion

A

It initially takes place in the mouth through the action of AMYLASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In man, glucose from dietary cellulose could not be available for energy because:

A

man inherently lacks the enzyme to hydrolyze cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 3 month old infant develops diarrhea and abdominal discomfort following a milk formula. however, feeding history revealed that he was able to tolerate breast feedings and the same milk formula at birth. The most likely condition is

A

secondary lactose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hexokinase differs from glucokinase by

A

hexokinase being inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the end product of glycolysis in exercising muscle and RBC?

A

lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most important positive regulator of the committed step in glycolysis in the availability of

A

Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TRUE of the malate aspartate shuttle

A

it transports NADH from the cytosol into the mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the initial step in the TCA cycle is catalyzed by:

A

citrate synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The hexose monophosphate shunt is metabolically significant to nuclei acid metabolism because it:

A

furnishes pentose phosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The rate limiting step in the pentose phosphate pathway catalyzed by:

A

glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The enzymatic reaction is common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis

A

phosphotriose isomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The inherent absence of this enzyme prevents muscle glycogenolysis to maintain glucose homeostasis:

A

glucose-6 phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Glycogen synthesis is activated while glycogenolysis is inhibited when:

A

glycogen synthase I predominates over glycogen synthase D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MANNOSE and FRUCTOSE enter the mainstream of carbohydrate metabolism via:

A

Embden Meyerhoff Pathway/Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fatty acids enter the mitochondrial matrix for oxidation in what form?

A

complexed w/ carnitine as acyl-carnitine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The number of reduced electron carriers generated when one mole of palmitate is subjected to oxidation:

A

7 FADH(2) and 7 NADH + H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Majority of reducing equivalents necessary for fatty acid biosynthesis are generated during conversion of

A

pyruvate to malate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ilang moles of NADPH+ H+ ang pwede iderive from the pathway utilized in transport of acetyl co-A out of the mitochondria?

A

8 MOLES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the site of action of the NSAIDS (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) is

A

prostaglandin cyclooxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

hepatocytes contribute to the overall body content of ketone bodies primarily because of the absence of:

A

3-ketoacyl-coA transferase/acetoacetate succinyl coA transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The principal plasma carrier of dietary triacylglycerol is

A

chylomicron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

activation of lipoprotein lipase requires which apoprotein?

A

apo C-II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

VLDLs are synthesized in the liver for transport of _____ to the peripheral tissues

A

triacylglycerols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The committed step of cholesterol biosynthesis is catalyzed by _____ enzyme

A

HMG coA reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

High dietary intake of cholesterol leads to:

A

decreased LDL receptor synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Several of the enzymes of cholesterol biosynthesis require the _______ cofactor

A

NADPH

36
Q

This molecule helps stabilize the action of pancreatic lipase on dietary lipids

A

co-lipase

37
Q

aside from urea, the main circulatory system carrier of nitrogen atoms destined for excretion by the KIDNEY is

A

Glutamine (Qtie amine)

38
Q

A deficiency in the ability to secrete enterokinase leads to

A

abnormally low levels of active intestinal proteases

(enteropeptidase is secreted by cells in the duodenum 🠮 converts trypsinogen (zymogen) into its active form Trypsin 🠮 activation of pancreatic digestive enzymes)

39
Q

Transamidation (chemical reaction in which an amide reacts with an amine to generate a new amide) reaction includes the formation of _______

A

formation of liver asparagine from aspartate

40
Q

Important cofactor for the transaminases:

A

pyridoxal phosphate (B6)

41
Q

The production of alanine by peripheral tissue, especially by the muscle, is primarily dependent on:

A

Intracellular levels of pyruvate

42
Q

Nitrogen of the muscle alanine can be derived from tissue ammonia through this enzyme action:

A

glutamate dehydrogenase

43
Q

Sulfur for cysteine synthesis is derived from:

A

methionine

44
Q

Severe PKU and shortened life span is a result of:

A

Deficiency of dihydrobiopterin reductase

45
Q

Serine is synthesized by:

A

transamination of an alpha-ketoacid derived from TCA

46
Q

Lysine is an essential amino acid because:

A

the epsilon-amino group of lysine cannot be formed by an aminotransferases

47
Q

amino acids that are strictly KETOGENIC:

A

lysine and leucine

48
Q

CORRECT precursor-product relationship from the

A

dopamine is a precursor to norepinephrine

49
Q

The watson-crick model for the B-form of DNA is typified by:

A

bases located in the interior of the right-handed helix

50
Q

Guanine-cytosine base pairs in a DNA molecule are more stable to denaturation than adenine-thymine pairs because:

A

G-C base pairs contain more hydrogen bonds than A-T pairs

51
Q

DNA is distinguished from RNA by:

A

The presence of thymine instead of uracil

52
Q

anti-cancer drugs like 5-fluouracil and 6-mercaptopurine act against malignant cells by:

A

Being incorporated into DNA before replication

53
Q

_________ is a nucleotide

A

Adenylic acid

54
Q

an essential vitamin in the synthesis of purine nucleotides

A

Folic acid (B9)

55
Q

Which clinical condition does not involve a defect in purine metabolism?

A

Orotic Aciduria

56
Q

Salvage reactions that generate purine and pyrimidine nucleosides and nucleotides are characterized as:

A

requiring less energy than the de novo synthesis

57
Q

The enzyme that catalyzes the committed step of purine nucleotide de novo pathway:

A

glutamine amidophosphoribosyl transferase

58
Q

In the management of gout, allopurinol is given to inhibit xanthine oxidase, the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of:

A

uric acid

59
Q

The correct flow of genetic information according to the central dogma of molecular biology is:

A

replication 🠮 transcription 🠮 translation

60
Q

transfer RNA (tRNA) as an adaptor molecule serves to:

A

recognize the triplet codon in mRNA via its anti-codon arm

61
Q

Degeneracy of the genetic code means

A

multiple codons may encode the same amino acid

62
Q

The final product of gene expression is

A

protein

63
Q

normal growth and development of cells are controlled by genes known as:

A

proto-oncogenes

64
Q

The type of mutation that involves the substitution of a purine base with another purine base is:

A

transition

65
Q

This mineral helps guard against DNA damage as a cofactor of glutathione:

A

selenium

66
Q

A tool in molecular biology in which a DNA sequence of interest is exponentially amplified in vitro by repeated cycles of enzymatic DNA synthesis is:

A

polymerase chain reaction

67
Q

In the construction of recombinant DNA, which enzyme is used to cut DNA at precise base sequences?

A

restriction endonucleases

68
Q

In recombinant DNA technology, antibiotic resistance genes in plasmids are used to:

A

select and screen for recombinant DNA clones

69
Q

The pain felt by a patient with an enlarging malignant tumor is partly contributed by

A

release of cytokines such as IL-1 and IL-6 by the tumor cells

70
Q

Malignancy may be naturally prevented if the mutated cancer gene was repaired

A

before DNA replication

71
Q

With persistence of a mutation in cells during organogenesis, the resulting event is

A

occurrence of physical malformations

72
Q

to specifically identify the mutation in the affected DNA segment in a patient with cancer, which bioethics transfer method should be used?

A

southern

73
Q

Taq polymerase is used in PCR (polymerase chain reaction) because it

A

is resistant to heat denaturation

74
Q

A 60 year old woman has developed, red roughened skin in sun-exposed areas over the past 2 years. She also has a chronic, watery diarrhea. On physical examination she exhibits memory loss with confusion. These findings are most consistent with what vitamin deficiencies?

A

Niacin

75
Q

A clinical study is performed involving dietary iron metabolism in adults. It is observed that intestinal absorption of iron can be enhanced in patients with iron deficiency anemia by supplementing their diet with another nutrient. Which vitamin has this effect?

A

Vitamin C

76
Q

The metabolic function of the pentose phosphate pathway is to:

A

generate NADPH and pentoses for the biosynthesis of fatty acids and nucleic acids

77
Q

The FNRI Philippine RENI committee 2002 recommends the following protein intake:

A

1.14 g/kg DBW/day

78
Q

number of moles of ATP generated from the complete oxidation of pyruvate as it undergoes the pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction and the krebs cycle is:

A

15

79
Q

Which of these is deficient in Coris disease?

A

debranching enzyme

80
Q

Just before breakfast, what is the source of glucose in the body?

A

glycogen

81
Q

For every mole of glucose that goes through the glycolytic pathway, what is the net number of pyruvate generated?

A

2

82
Q

primary function of the pentose phosphate pathway

A

NADPH and ribose residues production

83
Q

Which enzyme generates NADPH + H+ needed to reduce GSSG:

A

glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

84
Q

G6PD deficiency is characterized by

A

may manifest as hemorrhagic anemia

85
Q

TCA cycle as the final common pathway in fuel metabolism provides greatest amount of energy by being directly linked to:

A

ETC

BIOCHEMISTRY (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions