P Exam 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about the future trajectory of the U.S. population?a. By 2045, over 75 percent the population in the United States will be made up of minorities
b. By 2030, over half of the population in the United States will be made up of minorities
c. By 2045, over half the population in the United States will be made up of minorities
d. By 2030, over 30 percent of the population in the United States will be made up of minorities

A

By 2045, over half the population in the United States will be made up of minorities. This, of course, signals a need to rethink the use of the term “minorities.”
The correct answer is: By 2045, over half the population in the United States will be made up of minorities

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2
Q

Your planning supervisor has asked you to look into making sure that your department’s website is accessible. What might you suggest?a. Grant keyboard accessibility
b. Maximize the site’s use of static pages
c. Provide a free mouse to visually impaired people because a mouse helps with navigation
d. Make sure that when a screen-reader reads an image or graphic, it clearly says “graphic” or “image”

A

Websites need to be accessible to visually impaired people. For people with low vision, keyboard commands—which can be set up if you grant keyboard accessibility—make it possible to navigate a site without having to strenuously focus and follow a mouse cursor across the screen. A mouse is not useful for navigating because it requires hand-eye coordination. When a screen-reader reads an image or graphic, it will say “graphic” or “image” unless you provide a description (“alt”) text. If an image doesn’t have alt text, the screen-reader will skip it.The correct answer is: Grant keyboard accessibility

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3
Q

Which of these are best practices in support of the Accountable Implementation process?a. Establish interagency and organizational cooperation.
b. All of these are included in best practices.
c. Adjust the plan as necessary based on the evaluation.
d. Connect plan implementation to the capital planning process.

A

PAS Report 578: Sustaining Places, Best Practices for Comprehensive Plans includes these strategies as best practices.The correct answer is: All of these are included in best practices.

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4
Q

The American Community Survey (ACS) helps local officials, community leaders, and businesses understand the changes taking place in their communities. It is the premier source for detailed population and housing information. What is a true statement about the reliability of ACS data?a. ACS data are population counts for selected jurisdictions, done every 5 years
b. ACS data are estimates; the Coefficient of Variation must not exceed 15 percent
c. ACS data are estimates; the Coefficient of Variation must not exceed 5 percent
d. ACS data is more reliable than the decennial census

A

The U.S. Census uses the Coefficient of Variation (CV) to test for reliability of Census estimates (such as ACS estimates). The CV should be no greater than 15 percent to allow for reliable data interpretation.The correct answer is: ACS data are estimates; the Coefficient of Variation must not exceed 15 percent

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5
Q

You are a planner working for a housing agency and you have been tasked with coming up with housing options for people with lower incomes who have extensive or intergenerational households. What kind of housing would you focus on?a. Housing that is built in partnership with a community land trust, to ensure long-term affordability
b. Housing that is both adaptable and affordable
c. Housing that can be obtained via inclusionary zoning
d. Housing that is both affordable and accessible

A

A key strategy to minimize inequity is offering adequate and appropriate housing options for all. People of color and immigrants—who may have lower incomes and more extensive or intergenerational households—require housing that is both adaptable and affordable. Adaptability is a feature of housing that allows occupants and owners opportunities for incremental expansion, multigenerational living, and higher-density occupancy.The correct answer is: Housing that is both adaptable and affordable

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6
Q

What statement is the best characterization of the relationship between advocacy planning and equity planning?Select one:a. They are inter-connected, although “equity planning” is a term used to focus on the under-served.
b. They are distinctly different, because advocacy planning focuses on the under-served.
c. Advocacy planning works inside government; equity planning works outside of it.
d. Advocacy planning is more value-driven than equity planning.

A

The two are very much connected, although “equity planning,” the preferred term of Cleveland planner Norman Krumholz, advanced the principle of working inside the government to address the needs of the under-served.The correct answer is: They are inter-connected, although “equity planning” is a term used to focus on the under-served.

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7
Q

What does Sherry Arnstein’s 1969 “Ladder of Citizen Participation” have to do with inclusive planning processes?a. The ladder rungs of “consultation” and “delegated power” are aligned with inclusive planning approaches
b. Several rungs of the ladder might be considered inclusive, such as “partnership” and “consultation”
c. The top three rungs of the ladder constitute citizen power, and are considered inclusive planning processes
d. Arnstein’s ladder was conceived before planners were aware of the need for inclusive planning processes

A

The top three rungs of the ladder—citizen control, delegated power, and partnership—together constitute citizen power, and are considered inclusive planning processes.The correct answer is: The top three rungs of the ladder constitute citizen power, and are considered inclusive planning processes

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8
Q

You are a planning manager engaged in a debate about the planning staff’s efforts to build more affordable housing. An aggressive reporter is interviewing you on camera, and asks you an uncomfortable question challenging the need for affordable housing and pointing out that the planning administration lacks authority and funding. Which opening response is an example of the use of a bridging technique to answer the question? a. “That is a problem, but not one our office is prepared to address at this time….”
b. “People have said that, but the key thing to remember is…..”
c. “That’s a good question….”
d. “We do not currently have the resources to respond to that appropriately….”

A

Bridging is a technique that planners can use to reframe controversial issues, responding to opponents while also recasting how the issue is viewed. The trick is to use transitional phrases to stay on message when asked a question that could take you off topic.The correct answer is: “People have said that, but the key thing to remember is…..”

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9
Q

Your spouse runs a coffee shop, and wants to expand the business, which requires Planning Commission approval. You are the planning director of the town where the coffee shop is located. Which of the following are appropriate actions to take?Select one:a. Ensure that a study is conducted of all possible negative impacts from the business expansion
b. Oversee the review process so you can make sure all procedures are followed correctly
c. Remove yourself from the review process completely
d. Ask your spouse to give a site tour as required by the local review process

A

Since the development review involves a family member, you should remove yourself completely from the review process. You should not be in a position to influence the members of your staff or any consultants who might also be involved.The correct answer is: Remove yourself from the review process completely

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10
Q

Which description of participatory budgeting is most accurate?a. When a task force of community members works directly with a local jurisdiction’s financial office to set priorities
b. When community members vote on capital budget priorities in their service area
c. When budgeting takes place in an open community forum
d. When local officials confer with their constituents prior to making final budget recommendations

A

In participatory budgeting, community members vote on capital budget priorities in their district, ward, or neighborhood service area. Planners need to take precautions to ensure that privileged groups do not take control of the process.The correct answer is: When community members vote on capital budget priorities in their service area

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11
Q

A capital improvement budget includes facilities planned for construction in which of the following time spans?Select one:a. Five years
b. Ten years
c. 20-30 years
d. One year

A

The budget applies to the first year of the capital plan. Budget is the key word in this question.The correct answer is: One year

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12
Q

You are developing a state implementation plan for air quality. As part of the compliance with the Clean Air Act, which of the following is required before the plan is complete?Select one:a. Establishment of limits on new industrial development
b. Identification of water pollutants
c. Review and approval of the plan by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (U.S. EPA)
d. Inclusion of local ordinance changes

A

The U.S. EPA approves state implementation plans and any revisions to those plans. The purpose of the state implementation plans is to demonstrate that the state has an air quality management program and to identify emission control requirements that the state will use to attain the national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS).The correct answer is: Review and approval of the plan by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (U.S. EPA)

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13
Q

The Clean Water Act does not do which of the following:Select one:a. Ensures air pollutants do not contaminate water
b. Regulates development of wetlands
c. Regulates toxic runoff and chemical contamination
d. Regulates water pollution

A

Air pollutants are regulated under the Clean Air Act.The correct answer is: Ensures air pollutants do not contaminate water

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14
Q

Which is a true statement regarding the relationship between climate change and equity, according to the APA?Select one:a. Environmental justice should be of greater concern to local communities than climate change, which is a cross-jurisdictional issue
b. The APA supports both social equity and climate mitigation strategies as two important but separate endeavors
c. Climate change is not part of the AICP Code of Ethics; equity, however, is
d. It is important to weave equity considerations into climate adaptation and mitigation decision making and action

A

APA’s policy guide on climate change can be found here: https://planning-org-uploaded-media.s3.amazonaws.com/publication/download_pdf/Climate-Change-Policy-Guide.pdfThe correct answer is: It is important to weave equity considerations into climate adaptation and mitigation decision making and action

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15
Q

What should planners do to ensure that future land use and development, program design, and capital investment decisions produce equitable outcomes? a. Identify and monitor performance indicators that provide insight into the quality of engagement efforts and the distribution of community benefits
b. Engage outside consultants who can make an objective determination of equity outcomes
c. Ensure that outcome measures are included in the budgeting process
d. Appoint a citizen-run community task force to monitor equity outcomes

A

It is the responsibility of planners to monitor the impact of land use and development, program design, and capital investment decisions on equitable outcomes. This requires identifying and monitoring performance indicators that provide insight into the quality of engagement efforts and the distribution of community benefits. The correct answer is: Identify and monitor performance indicators that provide insight into the quality of engagement efforts and the distribution of community benefits

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16
Q

Members of the planning commission are hearing complaints about an increase in crime in one of your city’s most diverse neighborhoods. One commissioner is convinced that the best way to deal with this increase would be to send plain-clothes police officers into the neighborhood. As a community planner, what would you advise?a. That strategy is effective for building local ties, since uniformed officers are threatening.
b. To be effective, that strategy needs to be paired with video surveillance.
c. That strategy has proven to be essential for community-based policing.
d. Community policing is about building local ties; plain-clothes officers might conflict with that goal.

A

Community policing is increasingly seen as an effective strategy in crime prevention. The goal is for police officers to build ties and partnerships and work closely with members of the community. Using plain-clothes officers is likely to be counterproductive to building such relationships.The correct answer is: Community policing is about building local ties; plain-clothes officers might conflict with that goal.

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17
Q

What type of zoning would allow single-family homes to be located in any zoning district in the community?Select one:a. Modified cumulative
b. Euclidian
c. Cumulative
d. Zero lot line

A

Cumulative Zoning is a method of zoning in which any use permitted in a higher-use, less intensive district is permissible in a lower use, more intensive district. In this method, a house could be built in an industrial district but a manufacturing factory could not be built in a residential district.The correct answer is: Cumulative

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18
Q

Which of the following are the best motivations for planning agencies to have excellent customer service?Select one:a. Good customer service has the potential to save on costs by lessening the need to constantly clean up problems and mistakes, and will ensure that political leaders, such as city council members, will remain in power,
b. Good customer service has the potential to save on costs by lessening the need to constantly clean up problems and mistakes; also, it has the potential to save time
c. Good customer service has the potential to save time; in addition, planning agencies should operate with the motto “the customer is always right.”
d. The customer is always right; in addition, good customer service will ensure that political leaders maintain their positions.

A

As explained in PAS Report 582, “Local Planning Agency Management,” good customer service does not mean that “the customer is always right” or that planners should be motivated by political objectives. Good customer service is not only the right thing for planners to do in the spirit of professionalism, but it also lessens mistakes and therefore potentially saves time and money.The correct answer is: Good customer service has the potential to save on costs by lessening the need to constantly clean up problems and mistakes; also, it has the potential to save time

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19
Q

You have been working on a plan for increasing the sustainability of the city, and a wide range of ideas that have been discussed. You have decided to develop a sequence of carefully designed questionnaires to seek opinions and reasons for those opinions from participants. Which technique have you decided to use?a. PERT
b. Nominal Group Technique
c. Delphi Method
d. Cohort Survival Technique

A

The Delphi Method, Delphi Technique, or Delphi Process is used to attain opinions with the object of obtaining a consensus from a group of experts. Delphi replaces direct confrontation and debate with a carefully planned, orderly program of sequential discussions.Cohort Survival Technique is a population estimation technique.PERT is a project management technique for determining how much time a project needs before it is completed. Each activity is assigned a best, worst, and most probable completion time estimate.Nominal Group Technique is a particular form of brainstorming that aids team participation. Stages in the technique include problem clarification, silent idea generation, round robin idea collection, grouping, and ranking.The correct answer is: Delphi Method

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20
Q

Over the last 20 years, your downtown area has lost 5,000 housing units and 2,000 jobs. A new downtown plan calls for adding new nodes of activity, including retail and housing opportunities. You are a Senior Planner with the city and are charged with the implementation of this plan. To kick off the implementation process, which would you do first?Select one:a. Host a day-long design charrette to allow citizens to brainstorm design ideas for the node
b. Form a committee of downtown property owners to formulate design proposals
c. Select a final design and hold a public hearing for input
d. Hold an open house allowing citizens to view several design alternatives

A

The goal of the plan is to bring citizens downtown. Involving citizens in the design process will generate excitement about downtown and gain ideas from the target audience.The correct answer is: Host a day-long design charrette to allow citizens to brainstorm design ideas for the node

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21
Q

Over the last ten years there has been a significant growth in the number of large signs and billboards in your city. The City Council has asked you to prepare a sign ordinance that would prohibit billboards along the bay and to develop design standards for businesses along the bayfront. You are preparing draft ordinances and a staff report to present to the City Council. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in the report?Select one:a. Design standards for reviewing plans based on “compatibility” or “congruity” may be called “contextual” standards and can be applied by referring to the character of the physical environment of the neighborhood.
b. To ensure that the systems for allowing design review by a design review board or historic preservation commission do not amount to an unconstitutional delegation of legislative authority, the emerging trend is for courts to require legislative boards to adopt more precise, concrete standards to guide and limit the approving board’s discretion.
c. Recent court cases have expanded the application of the right of free speech to outdoor advertising with the result that it is permissible to ban entirely such signs within a city’s jurisdiction.
d. If outdoor advertising signs within a town’s regulatory jurisdiction are located along Interstate or Federal-aid Primary highways and are made nonconforming by the town’s ordinance, those signs may not be amortized and caused to be removed unless either the owners are paid “just compensation”.

A

The strongest basis for design standards is in the protection of historically significant areas.The correct answer is: To ensure that the systems for allowing design review by a design review board or historic preservation commission do not amount to an unconstitutional delegation of legislative authority, the emerging trend is for courts to require legislative boards to adopt more precise, concrete standards to guide and limit the approving board’s discretion.

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22
Q

The U.S. Department of Transportation requires consideration of environmental justice issues during the preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement. What might this entail?I. Identification of minority or low-income populationsII. Ensuring an inclusive public participation processIII. Numeric analysis of public health dataIV. Alternatives and mitigationSelect one:a. II and IV
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. I, II, III and IV

A

Under the U.S. Department of Transportation’s process, consideration of environmental justice issues must be considered during preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS). General principles required as part of the EIS analysis are: Identification of Minority or Low-Income Populations, Public Participation, Numeric Analysis (that agencies should consider relevant demographic, public health and industry data), and Alternatives and Mitigation.The correct answer is: I, II, III and IV

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23
Q

The consulting agency you work for is preparing an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) on a proposed bridge over a river that will affect a major wetlands. Section 3 of the EIS presents three alternatives for siting the bridge across the river. What additional element should your agency include in Section 3?Select one:A. A “no action” alternative
B. An option for a ferry boat to cross the river
C. An option for a tunnel to be constructed under the river
D. No additional elements are needed in Section 3 of an EIS

A

An EIS has 4 sections: description of the proposed action and its purpose and need; description of the affected environment; presentation of a range of alternatives to the proposed action, including a “no action” alternative; and an analysis of the environmental impact of each of the proposed actions and range of alternatives.The correct answer is: A “no action” alternative

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes environmental justice?Select one:a. Fair distribution of burdens and benefits of a project
b. Ensuring that everyone has a fair chance of living the healthiest life possible.
c. Understanding effects of a project on local endangered species
d. Limiting exposure to toxic soils

A

Environmental justice centers around the fair treatment of all people regardless of race, ethnicity, origin, or income as it relates to environmental laws, regulations, and policies. All of the answers are related to environmental justice, however, ensuring everyone has a fair chance of living a healthy life is the best answer, as understanding effects doesn’t’ result in environmental justice for example https://kids.niehs.nih.gov/topics/environment-health/environmental-justiceThe correct answer is: Ensuring that everyone has a fair chance of living the healthiest life possible.

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25
Q

In what way does the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct apply to the issue of sexual harassment? I. It states that a planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act.II. It states that a planner must not commit an act that reflects adversely on the planner’s professional fitness.III. It states that a planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of present action. IV. The Code of Ethics does not address the issue of sexual harassment.Select one:a. I and II
b. IV only
c. I, II and III
d. III only

A

Statements I and II are included in “Our Rules of Conduct” in the Code of Ethics and apply to the issue of sexual harassment. Having special concern for the long-range consequences of present actions refers to the consequences of planning decisions, not to individual behavior.The correct answer is: I and II

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26
Q

According to the AICP Code of Ethics, which of the following should a planner NOT pursue?Select one:a. Systematically and critically analyze critical issues in the practice of planning
b. Contribute time and effort to groups lacking in adequate planning resources and to voluntary professional activities
c. Respect the rights of others, and discriminate against persons only if the situation warrants.
d. Continue professional education

A

The ability to “discriminate against persons” is not be allowed under the AICP Code of Ethics.The correct answer is: Respect the rights of others, and discriminate against persons only if the situation warrants.

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27
Q

As a planner for HUD, you support a range of housing support projects. A colleague asks if you will help a non-profit on a pro bono basis with an application for a grant from a foundation that would fund a housing renovation project. You have the expertise to help, but are short on time and don’t know if you could complete the work in time for the submission deadline. What should you do?Select one:a. Decline to assist with the grant.
b. Tell the non-profit that you can serve in an advisory capacity and would be happy to participate in a call about the project
c. Offer to prepare the grant application, but indicate that because of time constraints you might not be able to complete it by the deadline.
d. Offer to prepare the grant application. If you can’t get it done a week in advance, then let the non-profit know.

A

The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall not accept work for a fee, or pro bono, that we know cannot be performed with the promptness required by the prospective client, or that is required by the circumstances of the assignment.” Given your time constraints C and D are the least desirable choices. The best option is B assist the agency in an advisory role, but do not commit to writing the grant proposal.The correct answer is: Tell the non-profit that you can serve in an advisory capacity and would be happy to participate in a call about the project

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28
Q

According to the American Planning Association, what is a planner’s primary obligation?Select one:a. To protect your employer
b. To serve the developer’s interest
c. To protect the environment
d. To serve the public interest

A

A planner’s primary obligation is to serve the public interest.The correct answer is: To serve the public interest

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29
Q

Your sister lives in a small town where she has been invited to serve on the planning commission. There is no planner on staff and the town has limited financial resources. She invites you to come to visit and meet with the town and planning commission. Which of the following would be the best action?Select one:a. Offer your professional planning services on a contract basis to review development projects as they are submitted
b. Offer to review the current development regulations and offer your perspective on improvements that could be made
c. Provide planning commissioners with training on procedures and the state enabling legislation
d. Decline to meet with the planning commission, offer to visit you sister, but since this town is outside of your jurisdiction you don’t believe you should offer counsel

A

Providing planning commissioners with training would enable the success of the commission and enhance their decision making ability.Since we (the planner) have a relative on the planning commission, offering your services is not an acceptable choices because of the risk of having a conflict of interest.Declining to meet is not an acceptable choice because of Section 3j of the AICP Code of Ethics: “We shall contribute time and effort to groups lacking in adequate planning resources and to voluntary professional activities.”The correct answer is: Provide planning commissioners with training on procedures and the state enabling legislation

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30
Q

You are a local planner working for a city government. Your job involves development review. You are also the president of your condo board and your building is applying for a variance to add some additional square footage to the building. What do you need to do?Select one:a. Obtain legal representation to know your rights as an employee and your rights as condo president
b. Inform your supervisor and ask that another planner handle the review
c. Resign from being board president, but offer to help the condo with the permit
d. Nothing, since a variance request would not be handled by development review staff

A

The correct course of action is to fully disclose the situation to your supervisor and request that another planner be assigned, which will mitigate the appearance of a conflict of interest.The correct answer is: Inform your supervisor and ask that another planner handle the review

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31
Q

The Chamber of Commerce is organizing a walk-a-thon fundraiser for a charity and the city planning director is invited to participate. What does the planning director need to do?Select one:a. Designate a staff member to participate
b. Decline to participate
c. Get permission from the mayor before accepting
d. Accept the invitation if desired

A

This does not represent a conflict of interest since we can assume that other local business leaders will be at the public event. It would be different if this was a private invitation from one specific business, which would represent a conflict of interest.The correct answer is: Accept the invitation if desired

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32
Q

A planning director receives a gift basket with a value of less than $100 as a thank-you from a developer whose site plan was recently approved. What does the planning director need to do?Select one:a. Immediately return the gift basket
b. Nothing. The planning director can accept the gift if its value is less than $100.
c. Donate the gift basket to a local charity and ask the developer not to send anything in the future
d. Accept the gift basket but share it with staff

A

The planning director does not need to be rude or damage good will, but should provide an explanation about where the gift was sent (i.e., to a local charity) and why gifts can not be accepted. There is nothing in the code about gift value.The correct answer is: Donate the gift basket to a local charity and ask the developer not to send anything in the future

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33
Q

Your roommate, unrelated to you by birth or marriage, is a local developer. You are a planner and your employer has asked you to take on a task that will financially benefit your roommate. Under what circumstances should you agree to perform the task?Select one:a. If you are no longer living with the roommate.
b. There are no “circumstances” to contend with since the roommate is not a family member.
c. If the employer consents in writing to the arrangement.
d. If the roommate is no longer in your household.

A

Rule 3 states that: We shall not perform work on a project for a client or employer if…. there is a possibility for direct personal or financial gain to us, our family members, or persons living in our household, unless our client or employer, after full written disclosure from us, consents in writing to the arrangement.The correct answer is: If the employer consents in writing to the arrangement.

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34
Q

You are a planner working for a medium-sized city and you’ve recently been promoted to head of site plan review. You have an active Facebook, Instagram, and Twitter presence, with many friends and followers that include developers, architects, and attorneys with strong interests in getting their submissions through site plan review in an expedited way. What is your best course of action, given this situation?Select one:a. Be aware that a strong social media presence could create conflicts
b. Nothing is required—the AICP code of conduct does not extend to social connection via social media
c. Be sure to only post items that have no connection with the planning work you do
d. Delete your social media accounts to avoid potential conflicts

A

AICP rules state that planners must avoid the appearance of conflict of interest. Social media is an open public forum and planners in positions of responsibility are not barred from it, but they do need to watch out for potential conflicts.The correct answer is: Be aware that a strong social media presence could create conflicts

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35
Q

You are a planning manager for a transportation agency looking for ways to get feedback from the public on a proposed change to the city’s bus routes. Which of the following would not be effective for getting public feedback?a. Mailed surveys
b. Phone interviews
c. Feedback via digital communications
d. A large public event

A

Large public events are often not effective for getting community input. Feedback from digital communications is often taken less seriously, but APA has stated that planners should overcome this bias. Phone interviews and mailed surveys with postage-paid return envelopes are still useful feedback options.The correct answer is: A large public event

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36
Q

You are a mid-level planner helping with a report to the Planning Commission on a proposed affordable housing development that is located close to a protected wetland. Your supervisor is intent on getting the affordable housing approved, and considers it a matter of social justice. You overhear a conversation where it seems that your supervisor wants to exclude certain pieces of information that could be used against the housing project. What is an appropriate action for you to take?Select one:a. Tell your supervisor that she is wrong to exclude information.
b. In your report, indicate that some information was not subject to Commission review.
c. Find out more about your supervisor’s views and why the information is being excluded.
d. Report your supervisor to the Ethics Officer for an ethics violation.

A

In the section “Our Overall Responsibility to the Public,” the AICP Code of Ethics states that “We shall provide timely, adequate, clear, and accurate information on planning issues to all affected persons and to governmental decision makers.” Although there is some indication that your supervisor might be violating the code, you should get complete information before taking any action since you were not directly part of the conversation.The correct answer is: Find out more about your supervisor’s views and why the information is being excluded.

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37
Q

You are a senior planner working to update a comprehensive plan in a community where there is a high level of distrust of the planning process. What would be an effective strategy to try to overcome this?a. Maximize the amount of planning staff devoted to the public participation process
b. Enlist the aid of experienced community organizers
c. Talk to community residents to identify who is distrustful and speak with them directly to try to address their concerns
d. Hold regular public meetings in which all members of the community are invited

A

When there are high levels of distrust, local governments might need to enlist the aid of experienced community organizers to overcome high levels of distrust. The correct answer is: Enlist the aid of experienced community organizers

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38
Q

Your planning supervisor asks you to post some material about upcoming planning meetings on your planning department’s Facebook page. Someone from the community then posts a negative comment about planning in your town and expresses a concern that it lacks true representation. You feel that the comment might damage the public engagement process you have planned. What should you do?a. Ask the city attorney to delete the comment
b. Delete the negative comment
c. Do not delete the negative comment
d. Take down the posting on the Facebook page

A

There is a lack of case law about how to use social media for municipalities and public entities, but one rule of thumb is that planners should not automatically delete a negative comment. They can however, screen comments that are obscene, personal or mean-spirited.The correct answer is: Do not delete the negative comment

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39
Q

Under the Fair Housing Act, under what circumstances can a property owner turn away a family with children?Select one:a. Under no circumstances can a family be turned away
b. If the parents do not have legal guardianship
c. If the child has a criminal record
d. If the rental property qualifies as senior housing

A

The Fair Housing Act includes seven protected classes: race, color, religion, national origin, sex, disability, and familial status. The last term refers to the presence of at least one child under 18 years old, and also protects prospects and tenants who are pregnant or in the process of adopting a child. A property owner may legally turn away families with children, however, if their rental property qualifies as senior housing.The correct answer is: If the rental property qualifies as senior housing

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40
Q

A developer wants to build a two-story building on a 100 ft. x 100 ft. square lot. Each floor of the building has 2,500 sq. ft. There are no development restrictions on the lot. What is the floor area ratio?Select one:a. 0.5
b. 1.5
c. 1
d. Cannot be determined from the information provided.

A

The total buildable land area is 10,000 sq. ft. (100 ft. x 100 ft). The gross floor area of the building is 5,000 sq. ft. The floor area ratio is gross floor area/buildable area, or 5,000/10,000 or 0.5.The correct answer is: 0.5

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41
Q

You are working in a rural county that is concerned with protecting its land from urban development. The residents want to ensure that the future of their farms is protected. Which approach would be least effective for preserving agricultural land?Select one:a. Planned Unit Development
b. Agricultural Zoning District
c. Purchase of Development Rights
d. Cluster Zoning

A

Planned unit developments are best suited for urban or suburban development and are not suited to protect farmland.The correct answer is: Planned Unit Development

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42
Q

You have a small side business selling goods at the local farmer’s market. This requires you to obtain a permit from the Health Department, which is a municipal agency located down the hall from where you work as a zoning administrator. Under what circumstances is this a conflict of interest?Select one:a. If you know someone in the Health Department
b. None of these are a conflict of interest
c. If you have a financial interest in selling farmer’s market goods, or if you have a business partner who also works for the city
d. If you processed a zoning application for the farmer’s market

A

Owning a small business that sells goods at a farmer’s market only presents a potential conflict of interest if there is a direct relation to your office. None of the choices involve such a direct involvement.The correct answer is: None of these are a conflict of interest

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43
Q

Your city is home to many federal properties as a result of being a major hub as a federal service center. In recent years, the federal government has centralized facilities, some staying in your community and growing and others downsizing. The City Council is concerned about the impact of downsizing and has asked you to work with the General Services Administration to prepare a forecast to help the city better plan for future impacts of changes in federal property use. In your report you provide historical background on the General Services Administration by citing the:Select one:a. Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949
b. Federal Land Policy and Management Act
c. Base Closure and Realignment Act
d. Federal Surplus Property Act

A

The Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949 established the General Services Administration. The Federal Surplus Property Act of 1944 allows for the government disposal of property. In this case, you are asked to provide the history of the GSA, for which the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act is the best responseThe correct answer is: Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949

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44
Q

Which is the most common technique used to resolve conflict?Select one:a. Delphi
b. Tax increment
c. Feedback and compromise
d. Consensus building

A

In general, most successful negotiators start off assuming collaborative (integrative) or win-win negotiation. Most good negotiators will try for a win-win or aim at a situation where both sides feel they won. Negotiations tend to go much better if both sides perceive they are in a win-win situation or both sides approach the negotiation wanting to “create value” or satisfy both their own needs and the other’s needs. By gaining feedback from both sides and coming up with a compromise, both parties can walk away with a win-win situation.The correct answer is: Feedback and compromise

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45
Q

The city is considering annexing land to
establish an industrial park and investing in infrastructure to attract new
employers. You have been asked to determine what it would cost to extend
infrastructure and provide public services to the proposed industrial park. You
use which of the following methods to evaluate the annexation?Select one:a. Land Use Planning evaluation
b. Fiscal-impact analysis
c. Implementation scheduling using PERT
d. Demographic analysis

A

A fiscal impact analysis helps ensure that local officials understand the short- and long-term fiscal effects of land use policies and developments by projecting net cash flow to the public sector.The correct answer is: Fiscal-impact analysis

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46
Q

You are preparing a local food systems plan and working with an advisory group. For the upcoming meeting you will be reviewing tools that can be used to support local food systems. Which of the following would most likely not be discussed?Select one:a. Zoning amendments
b. Food Policy Council
c. Subdivision Regulations
d. Public Markets

A

Zoning ordinances can be amended to support urban agriculture, food policy councils can guide and advocate for supportive food systems, and public markets can provide for space for a farmers market. Subdivision regulations would be the least likely to support the food system.The correct answer is: Subdivision Regulations

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47
Q

Freedom of information rules:Select one:a. Vary from state to state and city to city.
b. Mean that public agency planners must hand over all information at any given time.
c. Can be avoided if staff determine that the information requested will compromise planning recommendations.
d. Usually do not apply to the staff reports of planners who are not in supervisory positions.

A

Since 1967, the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) has provided the public the right to request access to records from any federal agency. In addition, all states have their own “open records” laws that provide access to state and local records. It is never the case that “all information must be handed over at any given time,” and staff reports or material that goes against a planning recommendation would not be exempt. There are exemptions to FOIA, however. The federal FOIA, for example, has nine exemptions that protect interests such as personal privacy, national security, and law enforcement.The correct answer is: Vary from state to state and city to city.

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48
Q

You are a planner looking for a generalized understanding of population trends in your community. You decide to undertake qualitative research and interview business and other community leaders who seem to have a good understanding of what has been happening in terms of demographic change. Your boss tells you this is ill-advised because:a. Qualitative research is not appropriate for understanding generalized trends
b. Business and community leaders will be reluctant to discuss the topic
c. Qualitative research is a deductive approach
d. Demographic change is more involved than understanding population change

A

Qualitative research can not provide a generalized understanding (such as a population trend), but it can provide a deeper understanding of a given topic.The correct answer is: Qualitative research is not appropriate for understanding generalized trends

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49
Q

What qualities are more associated with being a good leader as opposed to being a good manager?a. Neutrality
b. Political acumen and advocacy
c. Being cautious about taking risks
d. Apolitical objectivity

A

It is possible to make a distinction between being a good leader and being a good manager, although the skillsets do overlap. The skills that leaders need that managers might not find helpful include political acumen, willingness to take appropriate risks, and advocacy.The correct answer is: Political acumen and advocacy

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50
Q

What qualities are more associated with being a good manager as opposed to being a good leader?a. Tendency to focus on getting a clean resolution even if that means foregoing the right resolution
b. Willingness to stand up to an existing power structure if needed
c. Willingness to take risks
d. Delegation of details

A

The skills that managers need that leaders might not find helpful include attention to detail, deference to an existing power structure, and willingness to get to a clean resolution at the expense of the right resolution.The correct answer is: Tendency to focus on getting a clean resolution even if that means foregoing the right resolution

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51
Q

You are making a presentation to the County Commissioners of the draft hazard mitigation plan. As part of the presentation you cover which of the following? I. Natural hazards, such as hurricanes
II. Man-made hazards, such as chemical spills
III. Development strategies to mitigate risk
IV. Hazards assessment for the countySelect one:a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III only
d. I, II, III, and IV

A

All of these would be critical to discuss in presenting the plan to the County Commissioners.The correct answer is: I, II, III, and IV

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52
Q

In sector theory, where is high-quality housing located?Select one:a. Sector theory does not consider housing
b. In suburban locations, outside of the city
c. Away from industry
d. Toward the center but close to employment

A

In sector theory, areas in a city develop in sectors along the lines of communication, from the central business district (CBD) outward. High-quality areas locate along roads; industrial sectors develop along canals and railways, away from high-quality housing; and working-class housing locates near industry.The correct answer is: Away from industry

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53
Q

How many people are homeless in the U.S.?Select one:a. For 2018, the estimates ranged from 200,000 to 1,000,000
b. It is impossible to know, as definitions of homelessness vary widely and states do not make accurate counts
c. In 2018, the number was estimated at 352,000
d. In 2018, the number was estimated at 554,000

A

According to the National Alliance to End Homelessness (NAEH), on a given night in 2018, 553,742 people experienced homelessness in the U.S. Between October 1, 2016 and September 30, 2017, an estimated 950,497 people used an emergency shelter or transitional housing program.The correct answer is: In 2018, the number was estimated at 554,000

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54
Q

Which of the following is not often cited as a major factor in creating homelessness?Select one:a. Physical disabilities
b. Domestic violence
c. Lack of affordable health care
d. Underemployment

A

Homelessness results from a complex set of circumstances in which people are forced to choose between food, shelter, and other basic needs, such as medicine and preventive health care. It would not be correct to say that physical disabilities create homelessness.The correct answer is: Physical disabilities

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55
Q

Which of the following are true about sector theory?I. It was developed by Homer HoytII. It prioritizes the role of transportationIII. It creates concentric rings around the Central Business District (CBD)IV. Within each sector, land values vary widelySelect one:a. I, II, III and IV
b. I, II and IV
c. I and II
d. III only

A

Sector theory is a model of urban development proposed by Homer Hoyt in which sectors radiate out like pie shaped wedges from the central business district. Sector theory stresses the role of transportation in urban development. Each sector represents a specific land use, and thus represents a distinct area of land values. Land use sectors either complement or oppose each other.The correct answer is: I and II

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56
Q

The U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Consolidated Plan does which of the following:Select one:a. It links the provision of subsidized housing to community development and it encourages local governments to develop strategies to assist low- and moderate-income residents to obtain housing.
b. It shifts the responsibility of housing programs from local to the federal government
c. It encourages local governments to develop strategies to assist low- and moderate-income residents to obtain housing.
d. It links the provision of subsidized housing to community and it increases residential mobility within metropolitan areas development

A

The Consolidated Plan is designed to help communities assess their affordable housing and community development needs and the market to make data informed, place-based decisions.The correct answer is: It links the provision of subsidized housing to community development and it encourages local governments to develop strategies to assist low- and moderate-income residents to obtain housing.

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57
Q

You are a planner working for a local government. Your supervisor has asked you to suggest ways to improve citizen participation among residents in an impoverished neighborhood. Which of the answers below would be the best response?a. Suggest that the planning office should provide transit passes, free food, and childcare
b. Suggest that the use of social media would be the best way to reach people
c. Suggest to your supervisor that you don’t think it’s appropriate to target impoverished neighborhoods specifically
d. Suggest the importance of providing a safe, neutral place for planning meetings, such as the planning office

A

While social media and a “safe, neutral place” are potentially good ideas, the best suggestion would be to provide transit passes, free food, and childcare, which can remove some of the most common barriers to participation. The correct answer is: Suggest that the planning office should provide transit passes, free food, and childcare

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58
Q

Which of the following could NOT be described as a “core value” of urban planning?Select one:a. Public interest
b. Healthy communities
c. Inclusionary zoning
d. Transparency

A

Core values are embedded in the AICP code of ethics. Core values of planning include equity and social justice, public interest, sustainability, healthy and prosperous communities, diversity, democratic engagement, and transparency. Inclusionary zoning is a policy rather than a core value.The correct answer is: Inclusionary zoning

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59
Q

Which is a true statement about inequity?a. Inequity should be not equated with disproportionality
b. Inequity is best measured using quantitative data such as census statistics
c. The best way to understand inequity is through qualitative research methods
d. Inequity is marked by the attributes of disproportionality and institutionalized inequity

A

Inequity, which is measurable, is marked by two key attributes that often work together: disproportionality (disproportionate impacts lead to further social and economic impairment) and institutionalized inequity (inequity is often embedded in methodologies that justify systemic policies).The correct answer is: Inequity is marked by the attributes of disproportionality and institutionalized inequity

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60
Q

There are many ways that planners influence public opinion—opinion about the planning profession and the value of what planners do. Which of the following would be considered a low risk, routine activity with the ability to influence public opinion?a. Posting on social media
b. Giving a talk at a local organization
c. Customer service
d. Working with the local media

A

There are many ways of influencing public opinion that vary by type of activity and by risk level. Customer service is considered a low risk, routine activity that influences public opinion. The other options have higher associated risks.The correct answer is: Customer service

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61
Q

A developer is pushing for rezoning of a property to allow for a mixed use development that would include 500 housing units, 50,000 square feet of retail, and 20,000 square feet of office. While the development concept is sound, the city’s infrastructure is at maximum capacity. In the staff report, which of the following would best present the case:Select one:a. At the present time, the city lacks any parkland within one mile of the development and the road nearest to the development has a level of service D, making this an inappropriate site for this development.
b. At the present time, water pressure is inadequate to support this number of housing units.
c. At the present time, the city does not have a stormwater management system that could handle the increase in stormwater runoff.
d. At the present time, the city’s sewer system does not extend to this area and the road infrastructure is inadequate to handle the anticipated traffic from this development.

A

Deficiencies in sewer and roads significantly constraint land development, making the site unsuitable for substantial development at the present time. While lack of parks, stormwater and water pressure are all relevant, the most significant constraints on land development are sewer service and roads.The correct answer is: At the present time, the city’s sewer system does not extend to this area and the road infrastructure is inadequate to handle the anticipated traffic from this development.

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62
Q

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about input-output analysis?a. It is a form of macroeconomic analysis
b. It analyzes ripple effects throughout an economy
c. It is commonly used for estimating the impacts of positive or negative economic shocks
d. It is not used to estimate local employment change

A

Input-output analysis is a form of macroeconomic analysis based on the interdependencies between different economic sectors or industries. It has a number of uses, including estimating employment change.The correct answer is: It is not used to estimate local employment change

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63
Q

Kevin Lynch made the argument that there are three types of planning theories. Which type did he believe was “spindly and starved for light”?Select one:a. Decision-making theory
b. Incrementalist theory
c. Urban design theory
d. Normative theory

A

Kevin Lynch made the argument that there are three types of planning theories: theories that are used to predict things, theories about decision making, and normative theory, i.e., how a city ought to be. He further argued that normative theory is under-developed.The correct answer is: Normative theory

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64
Q

What are the key elements of planning for diverse communities?a. Economic opportunity, transportation and access, and housing affordability
b. Economic opportunity and health and safety
c. Transportation and access and housing affordability
d. Economic opportunity, health anf safety, transportation and access, housing affordability, and placemaking

A

The five key elements of planning for diverse communities are: economic opportunity, transportation and access, housing affordability, health and safety, and placemaking The correct answer is: Economic opportunity, health anf safety, transportation and access, housing affordability, and placemaking

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65
Q

Which law requires the full or partial disclosure of public information and documents?Select one:a. Public Disclosure Act
b. Free the Documents Act
c. Freedom of Information Act
d. Disclosure Act

A

The Freedom of Information Act is a federal law that requires full or partial disclosure of public information and documents controlled by the federal government. States have their own FOIA requirements for the release of state and local public information.The correct answer is: Freedom of Information Act

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66
Q

Peter Drucker created which of the following management techniques?Select one:a. Management by Objectives
b. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
c. Board of Zoning Adjustment
d. Zero-Based Budgeting

A

Peter Drucker created the MBO technique.The correct answer is: Management by Objectives

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67
Q

As the planning director, you are part of the team that reviews and updates agreements with unionized employees. Which of the following would be critical for you to understand?Select one:a. Annual Performance Reviews
b. Collective Bargaining Agreement
c. Classification and Compensation Plans
d. Annual Performance Assessment

A

While a planning director should be familiar with all of these documents, the most important in updating agreements with unionized employees is the collective bargaining agreement, which covers all of the unionized employees.The correct answer is: Collective Bargaining Agreement

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68
Q

Zero-based budgeting views the previous year’s budget as closed and all expenditures must be justified as if it were a new program. Which of the following is NOT a major step in zero-based budgeting?Select one:a. Evaluating performance against goals
b. Isolating decision packages.
c. Analyzing decision packages.
d. Ranking decision packages in order of priority.

A

Evaluating performance against goals is not a major step in zero-based budgeting.The correct answer is: Evaluating performance against goals

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69
Q

Which of the following could reasonably be described as the largest single act of national planning in our history?Select one:a. The 1811 Commissioners Plan of Manhattan
b. The Land Ordinance of 1785
c. The Washington Mall
d. The Louisiana Purchase

A

The Land Ordinance of 1785 was a rectangular survey where coordinates were created for virtually all of the country west of the Appalachians. The survey has been called “the largest single act of national planning in our history.” It set up a standardized system whereby settlers could purchase title to farmland in the undeveloped west.The correct answer is: The Land Ordinance of 1785

70
Q

For marginalized community members, which of the following is least likely to be a potential barrier to participating in a planning activity?a. Limited interest in planning
b. Poor broadband access
c. Low language or technological proficiency
d. Lack of awareness

A

For marginalized community members, the list of potential barriers to participating in any given planning activity is extensive—including a lack of awareness or free time; poor transportation or broadband access; childcare or work schedule conflicts; and low language or technological proficiency. It would be wrong to assume that marginalized community members lack interest in planning. To maximize inclusion, planners and local officials must take steps to make participation possible, convenient, and rewarding. The correct answer is: Limited interest in planning

71
Q

A location quotient is used for which of the following types of analyses:Select one:a. Identifying export-based sectors
b. Projecting economic growth
c. Identifying leading sectors
d. Finding the optimal location of a facility

A

A location quotient compares the relative share of employment in a sector in a region to that of the sector in the country. A location quotient larger than 1 is used to identify export-based sectors in economic base analysis.The correct answer is: Identifying export-based sectors

72
Q

How many homes would be allowed on one acre if the zoning requires a minimum lot size of 7,500 square feet?Select one:a. 6
b. 7
c. 5
d. 4

A

There are 43,560 square feet in one acre. Dividing that number by 7,500 gives 5.8. There is not enough land area for 6 units, so 5 units is the correct choice.The correct answer is: 5

73
Q

What is an example of a “LULU”?Select one:a. Planned Unit Development
b. Land use legal case
c. Hazardous waste dump
d. Affordable housing

A

A locally undesirable land use, also known as a LULU, applies to a generically described land use like a hazardous waste dump. Superfund sites are specifically designated toxic sites designated and managed by the EPA. A greyfied is a term used to describe underutilized land in need of redevelopment, such as a parking lot or a dead mall. The federal government is not the only level of government that addresses hazardous waste dumps.The correct answer is: Hazardous waste dump

74
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a mail survey?Select one:a. High response rate
b. Convenient for participants
c. Minimal training
d. Low cost

A

High response rate is not an advantage of mailed surveys.The correct answer is: High response rate

75
Q

Which of the following types of roadways can carry the highest traffic volumes?Select one:a. Minor arterial
b. Collector
c. Local
d. Major arterial

A

Major arterial roadways can carry the highest traffic volumes.The correct answer is: Major arterial

76
Q

Many states are working to legalize marijuana. What tool is most likely not being used by planners to help make the new industry work for their communities?Select one:a. Buffering
b. Market controls
c. Permitting
d. Zoning overlay

A

The most common tools planners have in regulating cannabis activities are buffering (creating a buffer zone around sensitive uses like schools), zoning overlay districts (indicating where cannabis activities can occur), and permitting requirements.The correct answer is: Market controls

77
Q

A median is a proper summary of the central tendency of the following types of data: I. nominal; II. ordinal; III. interval; IV. ratio:Select one:a. III and IV
b. I and II
c. II, III, and IV
d. All four

A

The median is appropriate for ranks, interval, and ratio data, but not for categories (nominal data).The correct answer is: II, III, and IV

78
Q

Which of the following are true statements about the issue of the aesthetics of sign regulations?Select one:a. Sign regulations must be content neutral; aesthetic controls are about content
b. Metromedia vs. San Diego was an important case about the aesthetics of sign regulation, and the courts have held that aesthetics alone may serve as a sufficient justification for sign regulation
c. The Supreme Court recently issued a ruling that aesthetics are not a valid reason for local governments to regulate signage
d. None of these statements are true

A

In the leading case on billboard regulations, Metromedia, Inc. v. City of San Diego, 453 U.S. 490 (1981), the Supreme Court held that there are substantial state interests in traffic safety and aesthetics and that sign regulations are a legitimate means of serving those objectives.The correct answer is: Metromedia vs. San Diego was an important case about the aesthetics of sign regulation, and the courts have held that aesthetics alone may serve as a sufficient justification for sign regulation

79
Q

If an AICP member is charged with ethics misconduct, who makes the final determination of the complaint, according to the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?Select one:a. Ensure that a study is conducted of all possible negative impacts from the business expansion
b. Ask your spouse to give a site tour as required by the local review process
c. The AICP Ethics Committee
d. Oversee the review process so you can make sure all procedures are followed correctly

A

According to the Code Procedures, the Ethics Committee makes the final determination. The Ethics Officer can give formal and informal advice, but does not have the final say.The correct answer is: The AICP Ethics Committee

80
Q

Your supervisor has asked you to think of ways to improve digital communication during an upcoming planning event. You suggest providing mobile hotspots to supplement internet services. Why would this be useful?a. So that wifi is closer to the population
b. So that people without smartphones can rely on broadband more readily
c. To make wifi available so that people don’t have to rely on cell phone service
d. To make sure that the internet connection is as strong as possible

A

It is important to provide mobile hotspots to supplement internet services so that people can get wifi and don’t have to rely on broadband, which is cell phone service.The correct answer is: To make wifi available so that people don’t have to rely on cell phone service

81
Q

A land-grant university (also called land-grant college or land-grant institution) is an institution of higher education designated by a state to receive benefits. What Act authorized this?Select one:a. National Education Act of 1867
b. Hatch Act of 1887
c. Smith-Lever Act of 1914
d. Morrill Act of 1862

A

In 1862, Congress passed the Morrill Act, which authorized that proceeds from the sale of land were to be used to found colleges offering instruction in agriculture, engineering, and other practical arts. This is the basis of land-grant colleges.The correct answer is: Morrill Act of 1862

82
Q

You are a planner trying to calculate how many total jobs will be lost in your county as a result of job loss in the fishing and tourism industries. Which of the following analyses would be most appropriate?Select one:a. Economic Base Analysis
b. Multiplier Analysis
c. Shift-Share Analysis
d. Hedonic Pricing Model

A

Typically, multiplier analysis is used to project the number of jobs created, but it can also be used to project job loss. If an industry has a multiplier of 1.5, then 100 lost jobs would result in another 50 lost in the rest of the economy.The correct answer is: Multiplier Analysis

83
Q

You are interviewing to become a planner on a reservation. The Director of Development asks you how familiar you are with the Indian Reorganization Act. Which of the following would be the best response:Select one:a. The IRA was passed by Congress and provided funds to strengthen the capacity of tribal governance.
b. The IRA provided for written constitutions to strengthen tribal structures.
c. The Wheeler-Howard Act restored land management to Native Americans to create an economic foundation for residents.
d. The IRA authorized the tribal council to negotiate with other levels of government.

A

The
Indian Reorganization Act is also called the Wheeler–Howard Act (1934).
The U.S. Congress enacted the measure to decrease federal control, and
increase self-government and responsibility, of indigenous people.The correct answer is: The Wheeler-Howard Act restored land management to Native Americans to create an economic foundation for residents.

84
Q

These areas are legislatively authorized because they demonstrate a nationally unique natural, cultural, historic or scenic resource and link natural and cultural resources. These are known as:Select one:a. National Heritage Areas
b. National Historic Sites
c. National Monuments
d. Natural Resources

A

National Heritage Areas can be established through an act of Congress, with assistance from the National Park Service. They are managed at a local or regional level.The correct answer is: National Heritage Areas

85
Q

A prominent council member in your town wants to propose a new sign regulation that would limit the ability of an environmental group to put up signage opposing an offshore drilling operation. As the planning director, what would you advise?Select one:a. You advise that this is not something to pursue, as sign regulations need to be content neutral
b. You advise the council member to meet with constituent groups to garner public support for the regulation.
c. Since the comprehensive plan includes the goal of environmental responsibility, you advise that such a regulation would likely be supported.
d. As an environmentalist, you are also committed to limiting offshore drilling, and you begin the process by meeting with the city attorney.

A

Sign regulations need to be “content neutral.” Towns can regulate signs. But there are limits on their ability to regulate the content of signs. The U.S. Supreme Court has said that advertisements have some protection as free speech under the 1st Amendment.The correct answer is: You advise that this is not something to pursue, as sign regulations need to be content neutral

86
Q

You have been charged with preparing the open space section of the Comprehensive Plan. In your presentation you discuss the challenges associated with long-term preservation of open space for park purposes. Which of the following methods for preserving open space is the best way to preserve parkland for future development?Select one:a. Designate land as open space on the comprehensive plan map.
b. Purchase properties identified as future parkland
c. Try to negotiate with the property owners to donate the land to the city.
d. Take land through eminent domain.

A

While all of the answers are possible methods, purchasing property would be the best way to preserve parkland. Designation on a plan map does not guarantee preservation. Taking parkland through eminent domain is possible, but it is a difficult process and not as straightforward as a purchase.The correct answer is: Purchase properties identified as future parkland

87
Q

A national developer has come to your office with an interest in developing a power town. The developer is proposing an 800,000-square-foot shopping center that will be 75 percent retail and 25 percent restaurant. Your zoning ordinance requires a parking ratio of 1 space per 75 square feet or restaurant and 1 space per 250 square feet of retail. How many parking spaces would be required for this project?Select one:a. Less than 1,000 spaces
b. 1,000 to 2,499 spaces
c. 2,500 to 4,999 spaces
d. 5,000 or more spaces

A

5,000 or more spaces are required. This development would require 5067 parking spaces. To calculate the answer multiply 800,000 times 0.25 to get 200,000 square feet of restaurant space. Then divide 200,000 by 75 to get 2,667 parking spaces to service the restaurant. Then multiply 800,000 by 0.75 to get 600,000 square feet of retail, then divide by 250 to get 2,400 parking spaces to service the retail. Added together this is 5,067 parking spaces.The correct answer is: 5,000 or more spaces

88
Q

A 250 unit apartment complex is proposed and the zoning code requires 1.5 parking spaces for every unit. The average size of a parking space is 400 square feet. How much area would be needed for parking?Select one:a. 10-15 acres
b. 5-10 acres
c. Less than 5 acres
d. More than 15 acres

A

The correct answer is less than 5 acres. First multiply 250 * 1.5 = 375 parking spaces required. Then multiply 375 * 400 = 150,000 square feet required. 150,000 / 43,560 = 3.4 acres.The correct answer is: Less than 5 acres

89
Q

What is the most appropriate reason that planners should be engaged in participatory planning processes?a. Because residents have a civic responsibility to be informed, and involved with, the planning of their communities
b. Because it is a requirement of the AICP Code of Ethics
c. Because residents engaged in participatory planning processes feel more informed about, engaged with, and connected to their communities
d. Because participatory planning processes make the enactment of planning laws and regulations go smoother

A

The best reason is that residents engaged in participatory planning processes feel more informed about, engaged with, and connected to their communities. The AICP Code of Ethics affirms that planners serve the public interest, but a code requirement is not the best reason planners should be engaged.The correct answer is: Because residents engaged in participatory planning processes feel more informed about, engaged with, and connected to their communities

90
Q

What are the three things planning managers have to manage?a. Plans, programs, and money
b. People, programs, and money
c. External relations, internal relations, and political leaders
d. The planning commission, planning staff, and the staff of elected officials

A

Planning managers manage people, programs, and money. Managing people is about managing staff, as well as people external to the planning office. Managing money is about making sure the bills get paid. Managing programs is about making sure the job gets done. The correct answer is: People, programs, and money

91
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of a Planned Unit Development (PUD)?Select one:a. Allows greater flexibility in site design
b. Allows zoning through negotiation
c. Allows differing densities throughout the development
d. These are all advantages of PUDs

A

Planned Unit Development (PUD) is a term used to describe a housing development not subject to standard zoning requirements for the area. A planned unit development includes negotiated requirements, flexibility in development, and varying densities.The correct answer is: These are all advantages of PUDs

92
Q

What is the most accurate statement concerning the relationship between leadership and management?a. Planning leaders most likely also have to manage
b. Leaders are mostly only concerned with managing people; programmatic and financial tasks are handled by managers
c. Leaders usually have to manage people and programs, but not money
d. Leadership and management are two different things, and there is usually no overlap

A

Planning leaders are most likely also going to have to do some management—of people, money and programs.The correct answer is: Planning leaders most likely also have to manage

93
Q

The city of Collegetown has a proposal for a multiple-phase subdivision. The plat has been approved by the planning commission. As a condition of plat approval, the planning commission could not likely require which of the following?Select one:a. Performance Bond
b. Transfer of Development Rights (TDR)
c. Exaction
d. Dedication of Right-of-Way (ROW)

A

Exaction, dedication of Right-of Way (ROW) and performance bonds might all be required. A Transfer of Development Rights (TDR) would not be a requirement of plat approval.The correct answer is: Transfer of Development Rights (TDR)

94
Q

Your community has significant topographic changes, including rolling hills, a large lake, and marshlands. You are creating a detailed GIS system allowing for the representation of the attributes of the community. Which of the following is not accurate:Select one:a. In a raster model, the land cover is represented as a series of single square cells.
b. Each vector feature has associated information in an attribute table.
c. Polygons are made up of points and lines that may or may not be connected.
d. In a vector model, the features are represented as points, lines, and polygons.

A

Polygons must be closed. This could be in a square, rectangle, or any other shape. The correct answer is: Polygons are made up of points and lines that may or may not be connected.

95
Q

Alan Ehrenhalt has written about a process known as “The Great Inversion.” To what is he referring?Select one:a. Poor, diverse suburbs surrounding wealthy central cities
b. Light industry moving back to central cities as a result of technological advances
c. The poor moving into central cities, the wealthy moving out to the suburbs
d. Exurban development outpacing central city growth

A

Although this has been slowing down in recent years, many central cities continue to gain population and outpace suburban growth as a result of net in-migration Alan Ehrenhalt (2012) describes these changes as “The Great Inversion”—poorer, diverse suburbs surrounding wealthier central cities: opposite the conventional American narrative.The correct answer is: Poor, diverse suburbs surrounding wealthy central cities

96
Q

You are preparing the demographic section of the comprehensive plan.You want to begin by calculating the current total population to forecast the future population. The last Census was five years ago and you know the city has grown since this time. You have talked to a number of officials in the city to determine what type of data may be available to help you calculate the current population. Which of the following would be the best approach?Select one:a. Identify the total number of new single family building permits that have been issued since the last Census and multiply this by the average household size.
b. Identify the number of new students in the school district, and based on average household size, extrapolate to calculate the total population.
c. Identify the total number of building permits issued for housing and multiply this by the average household size.
d. Identify the total number of new utility connections and multiply by the average household size.

A

The best approach is to identify the total number of housing permits, for both single- and multi-family housing, and multiply by the average household size. This would be an example of the symptomatic method.The correct answer is: Identify the total number of building permits issued for housing and multiply this by the average household size.

97
Q

A homeowner has come to the development permit office requesting to replace her garage and build it on a new site in the rear yard. You provide a plat map which shows the existence of a private easement on the property, including setback requirements. Frustrated to hear that her plan for her garage development may not be feasible, you explain that:Select one:a. All of the above
b. Easements stay with the property when property changes hands.
c. Setbacks are determined by the legal status of the parties involved.
d. She can file an appeal with the Assessor’s Office, which maintains the legal documents for easement restrictions.

A

Private easements occur when a property owner sells an easement to an individual. This may be for a number of reasons, including giving a neighbor driveway access, or sharing a sewer line or well with a neighbor. Before granting a private easement, or purchasing a property that has this type of easement, it is vital that the property owner or potential buyer review the documents carefully, as a private easement often limits what the property owner can do on or around the defined area. The Assessor’s Office does not deal with appeals having to do with easements.The correct answer is: Easements stay with the property when property changes hands.

98
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about inferential statistics?a. Inferential statistics are not often used in planning applications
b. Inferential statistics use probability theory
c. The averages used are based on medians rather than means
d. Inferential statistics are about proving the null hypothesis

A

Inferential statistics use probability theory to determine characteristics of a population based on observations made on a sample from that population. We infer things about the population based on what is observed in the sample. Inferential statistics are about rejecting the null hypothesis, never proving it.The correct answer is: Inferential statistics use probability theory

99
Q

You have your own consulting company and you are hired by a developer to obtain the necessary approvals for the first phase of a multi-phase housing project. You want to show your client that you can obtain these approvals expeditiously, as you believe you may be retained for the other phases of the project, which would be good for your business. Is this a violation of the AICP Code of Ethics?Select one:a. Yes, this is a violation of the “professional conduct” aspects of the AICP Code of Ethics
b. Yes, but only as it relates to the future phases of the housing development in question
c. No, because this scenario does not apply to the behavior of planners working in the public interest
d. No, there appears to be no conflict of interest in this case

A

Private sector planners definitely do need to abide by the AICP Code of Ethics. But there is no conflict of interest if a private sector planner working as a consultant aims for future work with a private client.The correct answer is: No, there appears to be no conflict of interest in this case

100
Q

What happens to a property easement when the ownership of land changes?a. The new owner must reapply to have the easement continued
b. The easement remains in effect
c. The easement is nullified
d. The easement remains in effect but only if the easement was granted to a utility company

A

An easement may be granted to allow the owner of a neighboring property to access property they do not own (to install a driveway, for example). In most cases, even when the land in question changes hands, the easement remains in effect and subsequent owners are required to allow the easement owner to continue using the land as specified.The correct answer is: The easement remains in effect

101
Q

A property owner plants some very tall trees in their yard that block sunlight to a neighboring yard. Under what circumstances could the neighbor with the blocked sunlight compel the neighbor with the tall trees to have their trees removed?Select one:a. None of the above
b. If the neighbor with blocked sunlight is able to obtain a solar access easement.
c. If the tree-planting neighbor did not properly notify the neighboring property about their plan to plant tall trees.
d. If the neighbor secures enough votes from the planning commission.

A

Private easements occur when a property owner sells an easement to an individual. A property owner who has granted a solar access easement to their neighbor may not be allowed to plant trees or construct buildings, either of which would block sunlight, next to the easement.The correct answer is: If the neighbor with blocked sunlight is able to obtain a solar access easement.

102
Q

You are working as a planner in an economic development office, tasked with writing a report that summarizes the economic diversity in your region. What would be the best approach? a. Contact your regional Federal Reserve to acquire the appropriate data
b. Conduct a shift-share analysis
c. Classify establishments based on NAICS
d. Estimate employment change using input-output analysis

A

The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) is the standard used by statistical agencies to classify business establishments. It was developed by the Office of Management and Budget and in 1997. The NAICS numbering system employs a six-digit code at the most detailed industry level, allowing planners to select industry segments to analyze economic diversity.The correct answer is: Classify establishments based on NAICS

103
Q

You are the planning director for a small but rapidly growing exurban community. You have recently been approached by several restaurant owners who are all interested in building new restaurants along the freeway interchange. As part of the development review process, you require information on the number and type of jobs to be generated. Based on the proposals, which of the following actions would not be appropriate?Select one:a. Meet with the planning commission to discuss the criteria for evaluating the proposals.
b. Ask a staff member to verify the employment figures.
c. Put together a review committee of stakeholders to make recommendations to the planning commission.
d. Make a decision by yourself after reviewing the proposals.

A

It is rarely in the public interest for the planning director to make development decisions unilaterally.The correct answer is: Make a decision by yourself after reviewing the proposals.

104
Q

Which of the following are true concerning Right to Farm laws?I. They exist in all 50 statesII. Their intent is to make farming more viableIII. They exist for the purpose of protecting property valuesIV. Their aim is to preserve farmland from encroachment by suburban developmentSelect one:a. II and IV
b. III and IV
c. I and II only
d. I, II, III, and IV

A

All 50 states have some form of Right to Farm law, which attempts to preserve agricultural practices and make farming more viable. Right to farm laws deny nuisance lawsuits against farmers, even if their agricultural practices harm or bother adjacent property owners. Such nuisances may include noise, odors, and visual clutter. The laws aim to minimize the threat to normal farming practices, in contrast to typical farmland preservation policies which aim to preserve farmland itself.The correct answer is: I and II only

105
Q

Rising temperatures have significant consequences for hydrological systems. Which of the following are of concern?I. More rain will fall during winterII. Increased flooding potential in higher-elevation regionsIII. Deeper droughtsIV. More intense precipitation eventsSelect one:a. III
b. I and IV
c. II and IV
d. All of these

A

Warming has a profound effect on hydrological systems and all of the statements are correct. In addition, scientists are documenting longer summers, which will require more moisture for lawns as well as crops, and an earlier spring, which poses problems for water infrastructure.The correct answer is: All of these

106
Q

A megachurch has made a request to build a 300,000-square-foot facility that includes a bookstore, school, and recreational facility, in addition to congregation and prayer facilities. The property is currently zoned for agriculture, but the comprehensive plan calls for low density residential development in the area. You are reviewing the application and plan to recommend denial of the application. Before completing the staff report you reference compliance with which of the following:Select one:a. Planned Unit Development
b. Eminent Domain
c. Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act
d. Rational Nexus

A

The Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act requires that religious freedom not be interrupted by treating churches with stronger requirements than other like uses.The correct answer is: Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act

107
Q

Robert Moses famously battled Jane Jacobs over the construction of a highway through Washington Square Park. What other much-critiqued action is attributed to Robert Moses?Select one:a. He organized a write-in campaign to replace Mayor La Guardia
b. He refused to build affordable housing
c. As Chairman of the Long Island State Park Commission, he authorized development on park lands
d. He constructed bridges too low to accommodate buses.

A

Robert Moses (1888-1981) transformed the city of New York by pushing for the construction of highways, tunnels, and bridges. He was infamous for building bridges extra-low to prevent poor people in buses from using certain highways.The correct answer is: He constructed bridges too low to accommodate buses.

108
Q

The school district is coordinating with the city as part of its master planning process. In the past, there had been almost no coordination between the city and school districts, resulting in overcrowding of schools. Which of the following could be important for the school district to know in order to calculate the impacts of new development?Select one:a. Soils and impermeable land coverage
b. Location of proposed new development, including both housing and commercial services
c. Number, type, and location of housing units proposed
d. All of these could be important for the School District to know.

A

Soils and impermeable land would not be critical factors for a school district to be aware of when considering the impact of new development. Commercial services would also be of less value.The correct answer is: Number, type, and location of housing units proposed

109
Q

As an environmental planner you are concerned about non-point source water pollution. You have assembled a team to work on non-point source pollution avoidance. You are specifically concerned about slowing the rate of surface water runoff. As the team considers the many different tools available, you start by reviewing the key federal statutes that apply, including____________, which you deem to be the most relevant:Select one:a. Clean Water Action Plan
b. Section 208
c. Section 404
d. Coastal Zone Management Act

A

Section 404 of the Clean Water Act requires a permit be obtained from the Army Corp for the discharge of material. The 404 permit process protects wetlands—which are essential to control of non-point pollution because they slow the rate of surface water runoff and remove sediment and pollutants before reaching lakes and streams.The correct answer is: Section 404

110
Q

Which of the following are considered “serious crimes” according to the AICP Code of Ethics?Select one:a. False swearing and misrepresentation.
b. Physical harm to another.
c. All of these are considered serious crimes.
d. Failure to file income tax returns.

A

AICP members are subject to discipline if convicted of a “serious crime” as defined in the Code of Ethics. A “serious crime” is one that, “in the judgment of the Ethics Committee or the Ethics Officer, involves false swearing, misrepresentation, fraud, failure to file income tax returns or to pay tax, deceit, bribery, extortion, misappropriation, theft, or physical harm to another.”The correct answer is: All of these are considered serious crimes.

111
Q

You are asked by the economic development commission to identify the most promising sectors for your metropolitan area. Which of the following analyses is most appropriate:Select one:a. Cohort component methods
b. Location quotient
c. Trend analysis
d. Shift-share analysis

A

Shift-share analysis consists of the decomposition of employment growth in each sector into a national component (share), and industry component (mix) and a regional component (shift). The regional shift is used to identify leading and lagging sectors.The correct answer is: Shift-share analysis

112
Q

Which of the following is not a goal of a site plan review?Select one:a. To improve the aesthetics of projects
b. To increase the value of property
c. The provision for adequate parking and loading facilities
d. The preservation of on-site natural features

A

The general purposes of site plan review are to protect the health, safety, convenience and welfare of the inhabitants of the community by providing a comprehensive review of land use and development plans on a site by site basis. That does not include protecting or increasing the value of the property.The correct answer is: To increase the value of property

113
Q

You are a senior planner for a large city. You are responsible for reviewing a site plan for a new retailer to ensure compliance with the city’s design guidelines. Which of the following should you NOT do?Select one:a. Tell the developer you don’t expect any problems with the plan.
b. Inform the developer of the review process.
c. Provide a timely response to the application.
d. Complete a thorough review of the site plan.

A

Increasing the value of property is not a goal. The general purposes of site plan review are to protect the health, safety, convenience, and welfare of the inhabitants of the community by providing a comprehensive review of land use and development plans on a site by site basis.The correct answer is: Tell the developer you don’t expect any problems with the plan.

114
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a traditional small town?I. It has low to very low density housingII. It has open or agriculture at the edge of the townIII. It has limited traffic control devicesIV. It has civic uses near the center of the townSelect one:a. I only
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

Housing in a traditional small town tends to be low to moderate density. Very low density housing is outside of the traditional town.The correct answer is: I only

115
Q

Smart Growth encourages development that serves the economic, social, and environmental needs of communities. Which of the following principles does Smart Growth NOT include?Select one:a. Pedestrian oriented communities and distinctive architecture
b. Open space and agricultural preservation
c. A mix of uses, compact building design, and a variety of housing types
d. Large lot homes interspersed through agricultural land

A

Smart Growth does not include the principle of large lot homes interspersed through agricultural land.The correct answer is: Large lot homes interspersed through agricultural land

116
Q

In inclusive planning processes, what action is least likely to build civic trust and social capital and increase the likelihood of an equitable distribution of community benefits?a. Acknowledgement of past mistakes
b. Communication via social media
c. The sharing of authority
d. The embrace of alternative participation methods

A

A growing number of communities are embracing inclusive planning processes that build civic trust and social capital and increase the likelihood of an equitable distribution of community benefits. To achieve these aims, planners and local officials must be willing to listen to new voices, acknowledge past mistakes, embrace alternative participation methods, and share authority.
The correct answer is: Communication via social media

117
Q

Why should planners support the use of social media in planning communication? a. Social media allows planners to communicate without a gatekeeper
b. Planners can reach more people, especially if they use multiple social media platforms
c. Everyone who has internet access can engage, and that can be equalizing
d. All of these choices are correct.

A

Social media is now a must for planning communication. All of the responses are appropriate reasons for supporting and using it.The correct answer is: All of these choices are correct.

118
Q

Residents in the Pattersonville neighborhood have raised concerns about neighborhood safety. They have lobbied the city to introduce street lights into the neighborhood. Residents are agreeable to paying for the street lights. You recommend to the city council that they implement which of the following?Select one:a. Pro Forma Analysis
b. Tax Increment Finance District
c. Business Improvement District
d. Special Assessment District

A

A special assessment district would be the most appropriate choice in this case. The street lights will have a fixed cost for installation that can be assessed to property owners over a period of time. This assessment could, for example, be based on the linear feet of street frontage and paid over a period of seven years. Property owners would pay this special assessment as part of their property tax bill. A Tax increment finance district would be inappropriate because this investment is not expected to stimulate new development and increased property values. A business improvement district would not be appropriate because there are not expected to be ongoing expenses associated with this investment.The correct answer is: Special Assessment District

119
Q

Your council is looking for a way to set up a separate unit of government that can raise taxes and take over management of a unique recreational area that draws a lot of tourists. What would you advise them?Select one:a. They should contact the Department of the Interior
b. It is not possible to set up an independent unit of local government
c. They should hire a private management company
d. They should look into setting up a Special District

A

Special Districts are an independent unit of local government often created by referendum and organized to perform government functions in a specific geographic area. They usually have the power to incur debt and levy taxes.The correct answer is: They should look into setting up a Special District

120
Q

There is a strong demand for senior housing in your town, and there are currently not enough facilities that can accommodate the needs of elderly populations. A new retirement community is proposed for one of the only large parcels available. Unfortunately, the parcel is adjacent to a food processing plant that emits strong odors. What court case is relevant to the issue?Select one:a. Spur Industries v. Webb Development Company (1972)
b. Construction Industry v. Petaluma (1975)
c. Nectow v. City of Cambridge (1928)
d. Reed v. Town of Gilbert AZ (2014)

A

The Spur v. Webb (1972) case involved a new retirement community’s efforts to prohibit the operation of a pre-existing feedlot; this was a ‘coming to the nuisance’ case and the feedlot was allowed to continue to operate.The correct answer is: Spur Industries v. Webb Development Company (1972)

121
Q

Which of the following is NOT a constitutional principle?Select one:a. Procedural due process
b. Just compensation
c. Delegation of power
d. Protection from statutory encroachment

A

In planning, constitutional principles come into play in a wide variety of planning activities, such as discretionary permitting, aesthetic regulation, parcel rezoning, or prohibiting nonconforming uses. Delegation of power, procedural and substantive due process, and just compensation are all applicable constitutional principles (protection from statutory encroachment is not).The correct answer is: Protection from statutory encroachment

122
Q

The population projection technique that allocates a projected population expansion to smaller geographic areas is known as:Select one:a. Symptomatic
b. Step Down Ratio
c. Cohort Survival
d. Linear

A

Step down ratio. The Step Down Ratio method takes the known population of a larger geographic area and extrapolates the population of a smaller geographic area based on the difference in population for a known year.The correct answer is: Step Down Ratio

123
Q

You are reviewing the staff report for a retail strip center. The developer has requested a variance to remove the requirement for on-site stormwater retention. They would like to use the stormwater retention system developed for the adjacent property. The adjacent property has an oversized retention pond because the site built out at less than originally planned for. Which of the following would be an appropriate decision?Select one:a. Support the variance, because the new development will increase sales tax revenue for the city and provide a valuable shopping opportunity for nearby residents.
b. Deny the variance, because the city is responsible for considering the long-range consequences of current decisions.
c. Because the provided stormwater calculations confirm there is capacity to support the stormwater from the retail center, support the variance request.
d. Request additional data that confirms that the retention pond can support the stormwater from the retail center plus future maximum development on the site.

A

Because the adjacent site can still be further developed, an important consideration is the future development of the site. The best course of action would be to request additional data to confirm if the retention pond can support future maximum development in addition to the retail center.The correct answer is: Request additional data that confirms that the retention pond can support the stormwater from the retail center plus future maximum development on the site.

124
Q

The stormwater runoff in the downtown area has been a historical concern. You have a dense urban commercial district. You would expect, compared to other areas of the city, that the coefficients of runoff would be:Select one:a. Higher
b. Lower
c. The Same
d. Unrelated

A

Compared to other areas of the city that the coefficients of runoff would be higher, because the area is dense it is likely to have high levels of previous cover, resulting in higher levels of stormwater runoff. The correct answer is: Higher

125
Q

Which of the following objects is least likely to become stuck in light rail tracks, potentially causing death? Select one:a. Motorcycles
b. Bicycles
c. Wheelchairs
d. Strollers

A

The wheel sizes of bicycles, strollers, and wheelchairs can result in getting embedded and stuck in tracks.The correct answer is: Motorcycles

126
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of qualitative research?a. An approach for understanding the meaning individuals and groups ascribe to a human or social problem
b. Emerging questions
c. Analysis building from particular data to general themes
d. Structured written report

A

Qualitative research involves collecting and analyzing non-numerical data (e.g., text, video, or audio) to understand concepts, opinions, or experiences. It can be used to gather in-depth insights into a problem or generate new ideas for research. It typically involves a flexible written report, not a structured one.The correct answer is: Structured written report

127
Q

Cities can use subdivision regulations to regulate growth by controlling access (roads) and setting rules for drainage and sewerage. What legal precedence supports this approach?Select one:a. None of these
b. Golden v. Planning Board of Ramapo (1972), and Construction Industry Association v. City of Petaluma
c. Euclid v. Ambler
d. Spur Industries v. Webb Development Company

A

Ramapo and Petaluma are both cases where the courts recognized the legal authority of a community’s ability to manage its growth by establishing infrastructure standards and imposing them on future development.The correct answer is: Golden v. Planning Board of Ramapo (1972), and Construction Industry Association v. City of Petaluma

128
Q

Which is the most accurate statement regarding the contrast between how leaders and managers approach performance review and subordinate feedback?a. A leader takes charge of all employee feedback and tries to be as objective as possible
b. A manager gives feedback directly to employees; a leader delegates employee review to others
c. A manager gives constructive feedback; a leader gives objective feedback
d. A manager gives objective feedback; a leader gives constructive feedback.

A

Planners will receive regular feedback throughout their careers. Typically, a manager will emphasize providing feedback that is objective; a leader will focus on providing feedback that is constructive. The correct answer is: A manager gives objective feedback; a leader gives constructive feedback.

129
Q

Which of the following federal policies and programs have NOT been critiqued as contributing to suburban sprawl?Select one:a. Dillon’s Rule
b. National Housing Act of 1934
c. Home Owners Loan Corporation, 1933
d. Federal Housing Administration, 1934

A

As cities were in crisis in the 1930s, the federal government supported programs that focused on suburban expansion via home ownership. Dillon’s Rule, which is about local government authority deriving from state government, is not usually part of the critique of suburban sprawl.The correct answer is: Dillon’s Rule

130
Q

A junior planner is looking for ways to boost participation in the drafting of a new comprehensive plan for her community. She suggests to her planning manager that it would be a good idea to sponsor a comprehensive planning event at a local food festival sponsored by a Latinx organization. How should the planning manager react to such a proposal?a. The manager should explain that comprehensive planning work should take place in more professional settings
b. The manager should politely decline the suggestion, citing a lack of staff capacity
c. The manager should ask the planner to suggest events that are more inclusive
d. The manager should support the suggestion

A

The manager should support the suggestion. Often, there are opportunities to pair planning activities with street fairs, festivals, or meetings hosted by other governmental agencies or community-based organizations. The correct answer is: The manager should support the suggestion

131
Q

The city’s Comprehensive Plan calls for the creation of additional parkland and the preservation of open space. To determine the best implementation method, you are going to conduct interviews with residents. The city has a population of 5,000 and you plan to interview 50 people. Is this an appropriate sample size?Select one:a. Yes, 1 percent is adequate.
b. No, a sample of 10 percent or more is needed.
c. No, the complete population is needed.
d. Written surveys would be more appropriate with this sample size.

A

1 percent is adequate. Interviews are very time consuming, so a sample size of 1 percent is likely to be adequate. The key is to ensure the sample is random.The correct answer is: Yes, 1 percent is adequate.

132
Q

In 2010, Plansville had a population of 10,000. Between 2010 and 2013, 250 building permits were issued for single family homes. The average size of a household is 2.5 people. Which approach would give the best estimate of the current population with the information provided?Select one:a. Step down
b. Cohort survival
c. Shift-share
d. Symptomatic

A

The symptomatic approach would give the best estimate. Symptomatic estimation using housing units is a widely used technique for making small area population estimates. The method calculates the population of an area based on the number of occupied housing units (households) times the average number of persons per household. If the data are available, the number of persons living in group quarters (e.g., prisons, college dormitories, military barracks, and nursing homes) is also added. The number of households can be estimated using measures of construction activity, such as building permits.The correct answer is: Symptomatic

133
Q

Which information would the symptomatic method for population estimation NOT use in calculating the population of a city?Select one:a. Building permits
b. County population
c. Water taps
d. Telephone hookups

A

The symptomatic method for population estimation would not use county population in calculating the population of a city.The correct answer is: County population

134
Q

The APA is interested in finding out whether the scores of candidates who take the AICP test right after school under the AICP Candidate Pilot Program are different from the scores of the candidates who had the required years of planning experience. Which of the following statistical tests is appropriate:Select one:a. chi-square test
b. z-score
c. correlation analysis
d. t-test

A

A t-test is a test on the difference in means between two subgroups. The null hypothesis would be that the mean scores for the two groups are the same, the alternative hypothesis is that they are different. The other methods do not test a difference between means.The correct answer is: t-test

135
Q

The planning department wants you to develop a telephone survey to gauge public opinions about a new afterschool program. Which of the following reasons might be used in your arguments either for or against using a telephone survey?Select one:a. The response rate for telephone surveys has improved with the rise of cell phones
b. Telephone surveys are expensive and not cost-effective
c. Telephone surveys are inappropriate for gauging public opinion about educational matters
d. Telephone survey response rates have been declining

A

Telephone surveys are relatively cost effective. However, survey response rates have been declining. According to the Pew Research Center, the response rate of a typical telephone survey was 36% in 1997 and was just 9% in 2012. Although response rates have decreased in landline surveys, the inclusion of cell phones—necessitated by the rapid rise of households with cell phones but no landline—has further contributed to the overall decline in response rates for telephone surveys. The general decline in response rates is evident across nearly all types of surveys.The correct answer is: Telephone survey response rates have been declining

136
Q

Which statement best describes the relationship between 5th Amendment and 14th Amendment cases as pertaining to urban planning?Select one:a. A 5th amendment case is often also a 14th amendment case
b. Only on rare occasions will someone claim that both amendments are being violated
c. They are both concerned with the issue of “takings”
d. A 14th amendment case is often also a 5th amendment case

A

When there is a 5th amendment case it’s often also a 14th amendment case, but not vice versa. 5th amendment cases are focused on takings; when someone argues it’s a “taking” they will also argue it’s a violation of “due process” (which is the 14th amendment).The correct answer is: A 5th amendment case is often also a 14th amendment case

137
Q

What is tax increment financing?Select one:a. It is a method of financing to take out certificates of obligation.
b. It is a method of financing to provide front end funds to assist in large scale redevelopment.
c. It is a method of financing used by private developers.
d. It is a method of financing used to pay for capital facilities such as a sewer treatment plant.

A

It is a method of financing to provide front end funds to assist in large scale redevelopment.The correct answer is: It is a method of financing to provide front end funds to assist in large scale redevelopment.

138
Q

As the manager of the long-range planning division of a community in Maryland, you have been asked to organize the citizen participation process for a comprehensive plan update. Which of the following would be most effective to kick off the process?Select one:a. Focus Groups
b. Public Hearing
c. Open House
d. Town Hall Meeting

A

A town hall meeting can be used to identify key issues. A public hearing is appropriate at the end rather than the beginning of a process. An open house and focus groups can be most helpful after the project has been initiated.The correct answer is: Town Hall Meeting

139
Q

The northwest 1/4 of the southeast 1/4 of the northeast 1/4 of Section 12 uses the __________ system of land description.Select one:a. Plat
b. Metes and bounds
c. Subdivision
d. Township range

A

The Public Land Survey System is the surveying method used historically. It covered a large portion of the United States to survey and spatially identify land parcels before designation of eventual ownership, particularly for rural, wild, or undeveloped land.The correct answer is: Township range

140
Q

After reviewing the results of annual citizen survey, you report to the city manager that the number one concern of the public is about garbage collection. Residents report that their home was frequently missed during weekly pickups. Which of the following do you recommend to the city manager to address the issue?Select one:a. Hold a meeting with drivers to understand what happens that leads to missing a residence.
b. Add a tracking device on the garbage trucks to make sure no streets were accidentally missed.
c. Create an educational campaign encouraging residents to call 311 to report when their home was missed during trash pickup.
d. Review the route mapping to make sure drivers have the most efficient routes and that all residences are assigned to a driver.

A

Through the Internet of Things, it is now possible to have devices communicate. A tracking device on each trash vehicle would allow for mapping of the route that each truck completed and would show the time and date of completion. This would allow management to review daily and make sure there are no missed streets and immediately dispatch a truck if there is a missed street. All of the other answers are reasonable activities to undertake and could be used in concert with vehicle tracking.The correct answer is: Add a tracking device on the garbage trucks to make sure no streets were accidentally missed.

141
Q

What is the best way to compile a complete picture of a community?a. Tap community representatives and invite them to participate in focus groups
b. Monitor community services and events listings to gain a deep understanding of the community’s issues and opportunities
c. Combine traditional community analysis techniques with conversations with members of different populations and identity groups
d. Rely on social media platforms and hyperlocal news outlets and avoid traditional community analysis techniques

A

The best way to compile a complete picture of the community is by combining traditional community analysis techniques with conversations with members of different populations and identity groups in the settings in which they feel most comfortable. Planners should also monitor social media platforms, hyperlocal news outlets, and community services and events listings to familiarize themselves with issues and opportunities that seldom surface in official public meetings.The correct answer is: Combine traditional community analysis techniques with conversations with members of different populations and identity groups

142
Q

Which of the following is true of Transfer of Development Rights? I. Creates an economic incentive to preserve land II. Creates a market for trading development rights III. Reduces sprawlSelect one:a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I, II, and III

A

Transfer of Development Rights (TDR) represents an innovative way to direct growth away from lands that should be preserved to locations well suited to higher density development. Areas appropriate for additional development include pre-existing village centers or other districts that have adequate infrastructure to service new growth.The correct answer is: I, II, and III

143
Q

What type of zoning allows property owners in designated areas to sell development rights to other property owners?Select one:a. Planned Unit Development
b. Performance zoning
c. Transfer of Development Rights
d. Transit Oriented Development

A

Transfer of Development Rights zoning allows property owners in designated areas to sell development rights to other property owners.The correct answer is: Transfer of Development Rights

144
Q

Transfer of development rights (TDR) is a useful technique for protecting which of the following?Select one:a. All of these are valid answers.
b. Well fields and aquifer recharge zones
c. Agricultural land
d. Riparian buffers

A

TDR programs can be used to protect any natural resource area.The correct answer is: All of these are valid answers.

145
Q

Which of the following is NOT a tool for transportation demand management?Select one:a. Adding lanes to a freeway
b. Ride sharing
c. Telecommuting
d. High Occupancy Vehicle Lanes

A

Transportation demand management or TDM focuses on understanding how people make their transportation decisions and helping people use existing infrastructure for transit, ridesharing, walking, and biking. TDM is a program of information, encouragement and incentives provided by local or regional organizations to help people learn about and use transportation options that optimize all modes in the system—and to counterbalance the incentives to drive.The correct answer is: Adding lanes to a freeway

146
Q

Which of the following is not a Transportation Demand Management strategy?Select one:a. Bicycle racks on buses
b. Expanding the number of lanes on a highway
c. Guaranteed ride home program
d. Car pools

A

Expanding the number of lanes on a highway. All of the other items are TDM strategies.The correct answer is: Expanding the number of lanes on a highway

147
Q

Traffic in the southeast area of the city has skyrocketed as a result of recent new development. The level of service is now D. The County Engineer reports that it will take $10 million to upgrade the major arterial to handle additional development. You are meeting with the finance director to discuss opportunities to raise funds to support future infrastructure to support this area of the city. You have proposed a transportation impact fee which has the following feature:Select one:a. The fee would be based on the number of linear feet of road frontage
b. The fee would be based on the projected number of trips based on the land use
c. The fee would be based on the projected cost of the project divided by the number of people planned to populate the area
d. The fee would be based on the percent of the roadway surrounded by a development

A

The impact fee should be based on a rational nexus, demonstrating how the fee is proportionately related to the impact of the development. This would best occur based on the number of trips by type of land use.The correct answer is: The fee would be based on the projected number of trips based on the land use

148
Q

While developing a subarea plan, you are considering how to create an appropriate mix of land uses that would result in appropriate movement across the subarea. As part of this study, you need to understand how many vehicles will travel from one particular place to another place. This is known as:Select one:a. Trip Modes
b. Route Assignment
c. Trip Generation
d. Trip distribution

A

Trip distribution refers to the number of trips originating and ending at place to place.The correct answer is: Trip distribution

149
Q

The Triple Bottom Line (TBL) is:Select one:a. Revenue, Expenditures, and Profit
b. Community, Region, and Family
c. Environment, Equity, and Economy
d. Legislative, Judicial, and Executive Branches

A

The TBL is an accounting framework that incorporates three dimensions of performance: social, environmental, and economic (or financial). The concept was introduced in the mid 1990s as a way of encompassing a new framework to measure performance in corporate America, beyond the traditional measures of profits, return on investment, and shareholder value—to include environmental and social dimensions. Finding a common unit of measurement is one challenge of the TBL.The correct answer is: Environment, Equity, and Economy

150
Q

On the November ballot is a bond initiative that would pay to implement the parks master plan. There has been a vocal group of opponents at recent council meetings. The mayor is concerned the ballot initiative may not pass. Which of the following would best be used by the planning department to gauge the level of support or opposition to the bond?Select one:a. Online survey
b. Setup a Facebook fan page for the bond election
c. Review the Twitter timeline for discussion about the bond initiative
d. Meet with the opponents that have been attending council meetings

A

While all of these answers could result in further information about the bond election. The best answer is to review the twitter timeline to get a mix of voices already talking about the bond initiative. A facebook fan page would only attract those in support.The correct answer is: Review the Twitter timeline for discussion about the bond initiative

151
Q

What are some ways that planners can support seasonal and underemployment gaps experienced by immigrants and people of color?a. All of these choices are correct.
b. By ensuring that licensing and permitting processes are understandable
c. By ensuring that local regulations allow self-employment options
d. By promoting public education about how microentrepreneurship and small and home-based businesses can add vitality to neighborhoods and fill income gaps

A

Microentrepreneurship, small and home-based businesses, and day labor can fill widespread and ongoing seasonal and underemployment gaps often experienced by immigrants and people of color. Planners can support these economic opportunities by ensuring that local regulations allow these self-employment options and that licensing and permitting processes are understandable and easy to navigate, even by those who speak a language other than English. Planners can also engage in public education on how these activities add vitality to neighborhoods and fill income gaps.The correct answer is: All of these choices are correct.

152
Q

The planning commission in your town is confused about the difference between urbanized areas (UAs) and urban clusters (UCs) and how they compare to the Office of Management and Budget’s metropolitan and micropolitan statistical areas. Which statement(s) could be used to clarify the relationship?Select one:a. Urbanized areas and urban clusters are not related to OMB’s metropolitan and micropolitan statistical areas.
b. Urbanized areas and urban clusters form the urban cores of metropolitan and micropolitan statistical areas, respectively.
c. Each micropolitan statistical area contains at least one urbanized area.
d. Each metropolitan statistical area contains at least one urban cluster.

A

Urbanized areas and urban clusters form the urban cores of metropolitan and micropolitan statistical areas, respectively. Each metropolitan statistical area will contain at least one urbanized area of 50,000 or more people; each micropolitan statistical area will contain at least one urban cluster of at least 10,000 and less than 50,000 people. Metropolitan and micropolitan statistical areas represent the county-based functional regions associated with urban centers (hence, the generic term “core based statistical areas”).The correct answer is: Urbanized areas and urban clusters form the urban cores of metropolitan and micropolitan statistical areas, respectively.

153
Q

You are a senior planner for a Midwestern county. You recently completed an inventory of vegetative resources within the county. As part of the inventory, you discovered that the county has three endangered plant species. Which of the following techniques is best suited for protecting these endangered species from development?Select one:a. Overlay zoning
b. Urban Growth Boundary
c. Down zoning
d. Agricultural Preservation zoning

A

The correct answer is urban growth boundary. A UGB is the most effective method for preventing development in specified geographic areas.The correct answer is: Urban Growth Boundary

154
Q

This is an area in which development is allowed over a specified period of time. Beyond this area, development is prohibited or strongly discouraged. This is known as a[n] ____________________.Select one:a. Smart growth
b. Urban growth boundary
c. Urban service area
d. Regional planning initiative

A

An urban growth boundary is a regional boundary set to limit urban sprawl by mandating that the area inside the boundary be used for development and the area outside be used for agriculture and other low density uses.The correct answer is: Urban growth boundary

155
Q

As a planner with the U.S. Economic Development Administration, you are charged with providing programs concerned with all of the following except:Select one:a. Business operations
b. Business expansion
c. Business formation
d. Business retention

A

Economic development programs typically do not concern themselves with how individual businesses operate.The correct answer is: Business operations

156
Q

What agency is the primary builder of federal dams in the western U.S., such as the Hoover Dam?Select one:a. Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement
b. The Department of Water System Management
c. The U.S. Bureau of Reclamation
d. The Army Corps of Engineers

A

The United States Bureau of Reclamation (USBR) is a federal agency under the U.S. Department of the Interior. It oversees water resource management related to irrigation, water supply, and hydroelectric power generation in the western United States.The correct answer is: The U.S. Bureau of Reclamation

157
Q

In the case of Village of Euclid v. Ambler realty Co., the U.S. Supreme Court:Select one:a. Held that the granting of a conditional use permit was a quasi-legislative function.
b. Upheld the use of eminent domain for economic development.
c. Invalidated a subdivision ordinance because it required the payment of an impact fee for local schools, which was not allowed under Ohio law.
d. Upheld a local zoning ordinance as a constitutionally valid exercise of governmental power

A

Euclid v. Ambler upheld zoning as a valid use of government power.The correct answer is: Upheld a local zoning ordinance as a constitutionally valid exercise of governmental power

158
Q

Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the public engagement process?a. It is important to standardize the public engagement process if the events are held in person
b. Feedback from digital communications is often taken less seriously, but planners should overcome this bias
c. One of the advantages of holding virtual events is that they do not need to be standardized
d. In virtual meetings, live translation should be provided

A

It is important to standardize public engagement practices—whether in person or virtual—so that stakeholders always know what to expect and feel more comfortable about participating. The other statements are true.The correct answer is: One of the advantages of holding virtual events is that they do not need to be standardized

159
Q

You are preparing a memo to the city manager about what will be involved in a forthcoming community visioning process. Which of the following would you include:I. Public ParticipationII. Fiscal Impact AnalysisIII. Alternative FuturesIV. Environmental impact methodologiesSelect one:a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I and III only
d. I, II, III and IV

A

Community visioning is a participatory planning process that seeks to describe an agreed-upon desired future for a community. To do this, citizens and stakeholders are actively engaged in discussions and exercises about alternative futures. Visioning exercises help communities begin to consciously create a future by advancing a shared sense of purpose.The correct answer is: I and III only

160
Q

Which of the following are NOT true of visioning?Select one:a. It involves key stakeholders.
b. It is a simple process that can be completed quickly.
c. It involves citizens early in the planning process.
d. It is a long-range planning process.

A

Visioning is not a simple process that can be completed quickly.The correct answer is: It is a simple process that can be completed quickly.

161
Q

Which of the following could be included in a visioning process?Select one:a. Professional planners
b. Neighborhood organizations
c. Local property owners
d. All of the above

A

Visioning can include a wide range of stakeholders. All of these listed would be appropriate to include in a visioning process.The correct answer is: All of the above

162
Q

Planning leaders should:a. Try to steer away from volunteer work, as it might compromise their leadership capability
b. Seek out opportunities to promote and volunteer in professional planning organizations
c. Volunteer in professional organizations of all kinds as a way of building bridges among professions
d. Not be involved in planning-related services in the community unless they are part of a formal contractual relationship

A

Planning leaders should seek out opportunities to promote and volunteer both in professional planning organizations as well as in planning related services in the community.The correct answer is: Seek out opportunities to promote and volunteer in professional planning organizations

163
Q

The rural areas of your county have seen an increase in the use of septic tanks and package treatment plans. You have been asked to brief the county commission on this trend. Which of the following will you emphasize as the most important concern in using private wastewater treatment facilities?Select one:a. Subdivision review procedures
b. Operation and maintenance issues
c. Technological issues
d. Financial cost to the county

A

Septic and package treatment can be effective methods of treating waste, but only if maintained properly.The correct answer is: Operation and maintenance issues

164
Q

Which is not a true statement concerning the history of water regulation in the U.S.?Select one:a. The Clean Water Act of 1972 governs water pollution.
b. The Coastal Zone Management Act was adopted in the state of California, not at the federal level.
c. The Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 was amended in 1972 and became known as the Clean Water Act.
d. The Water Quality Act of 1965 was adopted to ensure the quality of surface and groundwater.

A

The Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 was the first major U.S. law to address water pollution. Growing public awareness and concern for controlling water pollution led to sweeping amendments in 1972. As amended in 1972, the law became commonly known as the Clean Water Act. The Water Quality Act of 1965 (along with amendments that became law in 1977) was enacted to protect and ensure the quality of surface and ground waters. The Clean Water Act, adopted in 1972, is the primary federal law in the United States governing water pollution. The Coastal Zone Management Act was passed by the U.S. Congress in 1972 to provide for the management of the nation’s coastal resources, including the Great Lakes.The correct answer is: The Coastal Zone Management Act was adopted in the state of California, not at the federal level.

165
Q

You are drafting a wellhead protection ordinance to
minimize aquifer contamination. Which of the following would NOT be protected
by a wellhead protection ordinance?Select one:a. Tertiary Area
b. Primary and Secondary Recharge Areas
c. Quaternary Recharge Area
d. A wellhead protection ordinance does not apply to recharge areas

A

A wellhead protection area is a surface and subsurface land area regulated to prevent contamination of a well or well-field supplying a public water system. Wellhead protection is established under the Safe Drinking Water Act and each state develops its own implementation approach. A wellhead protection ordinance would protect the Primary Recharge Area, Secondary Recharge Area, and Tertiary Recharge Area .The correct answer is: Quaternary Recharge Area

166
Q

Your rural agricultural county is primarily known for corn and soybean farms. Today you received an application for the rezoning of a property for the development of a wind farm. A wind farm is:Select one:a. A series of fields that are planted to take best advantage of wind direction
b. A series of greenhouses
c. A series of wind turbines
d. A commune for green energy practitioners

A

A wind farm is an area that includes a number of windmills or wind turbines used to produce electricity.The correct answer is: A series of wind turbines

167
Q

You have taken on a leadership role in your community, and the mayor asks you to work with other planners to write a policy report on a significant issue. As a leader, what would be the best approach to accomplishing this task?a. Work with local planners to accomplish the task
b. Appoint a subordinate to coordinate the necessary steps.
c. Show planners that you have complete faith in them by stepping away from the task.
d. Explain to local planners how the task should be done.

A

A leader gets a task done by working with others. A manager explains to others how a task should be done.The correct answer is: Work with local planners to accomplish the task

168
Q

You have been asked by a consulting firm to provide an opinion on a project that you were previously in charge of when you worked for a local government. What do you need to do?Select one:a. None of these answers apply since there is insufficient information given.
b. Tell the consulting firm that you can not render an opinion
c. Nothing, since you are no longer in charge of the project
d. Discuss the issue with the city attorney’s office

A

There is not enough information to make a determination. The relevant section of the Ethics Code (Rule B.3) is as follows:“We shall not accept an assignment from a client or employer to publicly advocate a position on a planning issue that is indistinguishably adverse to a position we publicly advocated for a previous client or employer within the past three years unless (1) we determine in good faith after consultation with other qualified professionals that our change of position will not cause present detriment to our previous client or employer, and (2) we make full written disclosure of the conflict to our current client or employer and receive written permission to proceed with the assignment. “The correct answer is: None of these answers apply since there is insufficient information given.

169
Q

This form of development includes a building sited on one or more lot lines with no yard, the intent of which is to allow a more flexible site design and to increase the amount of usable open space. This is known as which of the following?Select one:a. Zero Based Budget
b. Planned Unit Development
c. Conservation subdivision
d. Zero lot line

A

A structure located on a lot that comes up to or very near to the edge of the property line. Rowhouses, garden homes, patio homes, and townhomes are all types of properties that may be zero-lot-line homes. The correct answer is: Zero lot line

170
Q

You have been called by a reporter who is doing a story about zombie subdivisions. In the interview you provide which of the following statements to best describe the situation in your county?Select one:a. In the period before the 2007 recession, the county saw a significant increase in platting activity. Developers did not realize the demand for new housing at the rate they encountered.
b. A public health epidemic broke out in one area of the county. Officials have made every effort to quarantine the area to ensure that the disease outbreak does not spread.
c. The economic downturn resulted in platted subdivisions planned with initial efforts to install roads and other infrastructure.
d. Between 2006 and 2008, a total of 21,000 lots were platted. As of 2015, half were undeveloped. Developers anticipated significant demand in advance of the economic downturn. The county is working to develop an ordinance to allow replating of subdivisions.

A

Before the 2007 recession, developers built up the infrastructure for hundreds of subdivisions that were left unfinished after the housing bubble burst. These are known as “zombie subdivisions.” In this example, the media will likely want to understand the extent of the issue, and providing factual information such as the number of lots platted and undeveloped as well as describing the county response is most appropriate.The correct answer is: Between 2006 and 2008, a total of 21,000 lots were platted. As of 2015, half were undeveloped. Developers anticipated significant demand in advance of the economic downturn. The county is working to develop an ordinance to allow replating of subdivisions.