P Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

You are the Director of Planning for a large city that is updating its comprehensive plan. The City Council has appointed a Citizens’ Advisory Committee, which includes major stakeholders. The members of the committee are opposed to the creation of more affordable housing. You are upset with the committee’s lack of interest in this topic. You are responsible for preparing a staff report to the City Council on the comprehensive plan.Which of the following would you include in your report?Select one:a. Recommend that the Council adopt the plan as recommended by the Committee, as they represent the interests of the community.
b. Recommend that the Council adopt the plan.
c. Recommend that the Council reject the plan and start from scratch.
d. Advise the Council to direct the staff and committee to develop several affordable housing alternatives for consideration by the Council over the next three months.

A

Planners are not robots. Simply passing along recommendations to the City Council is not an expected course of action. Planners use their professional judgment in matters such as affordable housing, and it is appropriate for the planning director to advise the City Council that affordable housing is a matter that needs to be considered.The correct answer is: Advise the Council to direct the staff and committee to develop several affordable housing alternatives for consideration by the Council over the next three months.

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2
Q

You are a senior planner responsible for developing
the Comprehensive Plan for your county. You want to involve citizens from the
beginning of the planning process. You plan to develop a steering committee
that will help guide the planning process. Who should be on the steering
committee?Select one:a. Property owners
b. Business professionals
c. Residents of low income housing
d. All of the above

A

A comprehensive plan should engage a wide array of stakeholders. All of these listed are appropriate stakeholders to include in the planning process.The correct answer is: All of the above

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3
Q

Which of these are principles of authentic engagement?a. Authentic engagement is connected to decision-making.
b. Authentic engagement is connected to change.
c. These are all principles of authentic engagement.
d. Authentic engagement is equitable and inclusive.

A

According to the “Evaluating Community Engagement” guide from Everyday Democracy, all of these principles are indicators of authentic engagement.The correct answer is: These are all principles of authentic engagement.

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4
Q

A number of states have developed programs that encourage the redevelopment of __________, which are properties that are environmentally contaminated.Select one:a. Brownsville
b. Brownfields
c. Greenfields
d. Brown Towns

A

The federal Superfund holds property owners responsible for cleanup. Many states have developed grant and loan funds to assist property owners with cleanup.The correct answer is: Brownfields

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5
Q

The city council in your town is concerned with food deserts and asks the planning staff for an assessment. You are tasked with estimating how many people live within 15 minutes walking distance of a grocery store in your city. Which of the following GIS methods would be appropriate?Select one:a. Heat map
b. Buffer analysis
c. Overlay analysis
d. All of the above

A

To estimate the number of people within a given point on a map (a grocery store) you would create a 15 minute walking distance buffer around each point and calculate the population within that buffer. This is referred to as buffer analysis.The correct answer is: Buffer analysis

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6
Q

Which of the following can be said to be true of women?Select one:a. Women make up the majority of the state and local government workforce.
b. Women own 40% of all businesses
c. Women hold over 10 percent of Fortune 500 CEO roles
d. All of these statements are true.

A

All of these are true of women, derived from the US Census and other employment data sources.The correct answer is: All of these statements are true.

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7
Q

You are a planner working for a county and your County Board of Supervisors wants you to update the boundaries of urbanized areas within the county in 2025, between the decennial censuses. Which of the following statements should not be included in your response to the County Board?Select one:a. Urbanized area boundaries can only be updated every 10 years
b. Population estimates at the block scale are not possible between decennial censuses
c. The Census Bureau will update the boundaries based on written request from the Board
d. Census blocks are the building blocks for measuring population density

A

The Census Bureau reviews and updates urbanized area and urban cluster boundaries every ten years, following the decennial census. Census blocks provide the “building blocks” for measuring population density and delineating each urban area. Because population estimates and American Community Survey data are not available at the census block-level, the Census Bureau does not possess a nationally consistent set of population data at the level of geographic detail needed to delineate urban areas between censuses.The correct answer is: The Census Bureau will update the boundaries based on written request from the Board

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8
Q

Which of the following is an example of a U.S. Census Bureau household survey?Select one:a. Current Population Survey
b. American Household Survey
c. National Crime Victimization Survey
d. All of the above

A

All of these are part of the top five household surveys. Also included is the American Community Survey and the National Health Interview Survey (https://www.census.gov/programs-surveys/surveyhelp/list-of-surveys/household-surveys.html). The correct answer is: All of the above

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9
Q

________ is the author of “The Science of Muddling Through”, which established the incremental planning theory.Select one:a. Charles Lindblom
b. Amitai Etzioni
c. Herbert Simon
d. Paul Davidoff

A

Lindblom is associated with incremental planning.Etzioni is associated with Mixed Scanning.Simon is associated with Satisficying.Davidoff is associated with Advocacy Planning.The correct answer is: Charles Lindblom

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10
Q

Clarence Perry is known for…Select one:a. The redesign of the World Trade Centers site
b. The neighborhood unit concept
c. Columbia, Maryland
d. The garden city

A

Clarence Perry is known for the neighborhood unit concept.The correct answer is: The neighborhood unit concept

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11
Q

You are a planner II in a suburb that is part of a council of governments. The COG has announced a development moratorium as part of its regional plan. This appears to be in conflict with your city’s current efforts to annex a 150 acre parcel to be used to create an industrial park. As the planner responsible for this project, what should you do first?Select one:a. Call the local newspaper and explain the situation to the editor.
b. Review the draft plan to determine if the moratorium will affect the annexation.
c. Call the COG to discuss the implications of the moratorium on your city’s annexation plans.
d. Ask citizens in the annexation area to protest outside the COG’s offices.

A

The first step is to understand the facts surrounding the issue. By reviewing the plan the planner will understand where the proposed moratorium is expected.The correct answer is: Review the draft plan to determine if the moratorium will affect the annexation.

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12
Q

What is the function of a Council of Government (CoG) or regional council?Select one:a. A planning organization
b. “Visionary” to its member local governments
c. Technical service provider
d. All of these

A

All of the above. A COG or regional council is a multi-service entity with state- and locally-defined boundaries that delivers a variety of federal, state, and local programs while carrying out its function as a planning organization, technical assistance provider, and “visionary” to its member local governments.The correct answer is: All of these

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13
Q

The County Board of Commissioners has appointed a 9 member steering committee to advise the Commissioners on a proposed manufactured housing ordinance. Your job as the senior planner is to serve as the staff liaison to the committee. In order to facilitate the committee meetings you should do which of the following?Select one:a. Attend the first meeting and ask the committee chair to contact you if they want you to attend any other meetings.
b. Take the role of the committee chairperson.
c. Prepare the agendas for each meeting.
d. Ask the committee to select a chairperson from among the committee members.

A

A citizen steering committee should be run by a citizen. The role of the staff member is to support the work of the committee.The correct answer is: Ask the committee to select a chairperson from among the committee members.

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14
Q

Which of the following is the best way to resolve a conflict in the community?a. Delphi method
b. A referendum
c. Consensus building
d. Mediation

A

While on an individual basis mediation can be most effective when you are working with a large group such as a community consensus building is more effective. Consensus building (also called collaborative problem solving or collaboration) is essentially mediation of a conflict which involves many parties. Usually, the conflict also involves multiple, complex issues. While consensus building is probably most often used in environmental disputes, it is applicable to many other kinds of public policy disputes as well at the community, state, and international levels.The correct answer is: Consensus building

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15
Q

Which of the following is not an important factor in building consensus in an organized citizen’s committee? Choose one answer.Select one:a. Appointment of constructive and diverse members
b. Authorizing a senior staff member to chair the committee
c. Clarifying anticipated outcomes
d. Identification of all relevant stakeholders

A

A senior staff member should not chair the committee. The role of the citizen’s committee is to be led by citizens. Staff could certainly support the operations of the committee, by organizing, attending meetings, taking minutes etc.The correct answer is: Authorizing a senior staff member to chair the committee

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16
Q

You are working on project to build a levee for flood plain protection, which crosses multiple jurisdictions, involves many stakeholders, and has many interrelated activities. Which of the following would be most appropriate to use?Select one:a. Linear Programming
b. Goals Achievement Matrix
c. Critical Path Method
d. GANTT Chart

A

Critical Path Method is a project planning tool that works well when there are multiple activities and in which some of the activities cannot start until others are complete.The correct answer is: Critical Path Method

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17
Q

What statement is not true about Daniel Burnham?Select one:a. Burnham’s Plan of Chicago was completed in 1909.
b. Daniel Burnham was Chief of construction for the World’s Columbian Exposition of 1909
c. Burnham headed the McMillan Committee, which resurrected L’Enfant’s plan for Washington D.C. in the early 20th century.
d. Burnham completed City Beautiful plans for Cleveland and San Francisco.

A

The World’s Columbian Exposition, though headed by Burnham, was in 1893. The McMillan Committee, 1901, was headed by Burnham and charged with resurrecting L’Enfant’s plan for Washington D.C. Burnham was involved in a number of City Beautiful plans for major American cities, including Cleveland, San Francisco and Chicago. The Chicago Plan was completed in 1909.The correct answer is: Daniel Burnham was Chief of construction for the World’s Columbian Exposition of 1909

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18
Q

Which form of citizen participation involves a brief period of intense activity to come to a design solution for a specific area?Select one:a. Visioning
b. Design Charrette
c. Delphi Method
d. Visual Preference Survey

A

A design charrette pairs community members and design professionals work together over a short period of time as brainstorming.The correct answer is: Design Charrette

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19
Q

Which of the following is important when holding a design charrette?Select one:a. A specific planning problem
b. A group of interested citizens
c. Professional experts to facilitate the charrette
d. All of the above

A

The correct answer is all of the above. These are the three essential ingredients of a successful charrette – a specific planning problem to address, interested citizens, and a facilitator (professionals who can be from both inside and/or outside the community).The correct answer is: All of the above

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20
Q

Which of the following road types has a design speed of 25-35 miles per hour?Select one:a. Arterial
b. Collector
c. Local
d. Highway

A

Local roads have a design speed of 25-35 miles per hour.The correct answer is: Local

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21
Q

As a planner in a Rust Belt city, housing vacancy is a problem. You are hosting a vacant housing conference. At the opening session, you highlight the cities with the highest numbers of vacant lots. Which of the following has approximately 27% of its land in vacant lots?Select one:a. Youngstown
b. Buffalo
c. Detroit
d. Cleveland

A

Detroit has approximately 70,000 vacant lots, making up approximately 27% of the land area.The correct answer is: Detroit

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22
Q

As a planner with a development company you are considering the development of a 1/4-acre property for mixed-use in an in-town neighborhood. The city permits a maximum floor area ratio of 2 with a height limit of 50 feet. Which of the following would you most likely choose?Select one:a. Four stories
b. Six stories
c. Two stories
d. One story

A

To
answer this question, divide 43,560 (# of square feet in an acre) by 4 =
10,890. Then multiply this by 2 (the floor area ratio) = 21,780. This
is the total amount of square footage that could be developed. Divide
21,780 by the number of floors desired. Because there is a 50 feet
height limit, it is unlikely you could build more than 4 stories. You
would not be able to maximize built space with one story, and with two
stories, you would have to cover the entire site with building, leaving
no room for other needs such as parking. This means 4 stories is the
best answer.The correct answer is: Four stories

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23
Q

The newspaper attributed the death of a teenager in the community to a digital billboard that had distracted the driver’s attention. This has led to the Mayor making a call to your office asking you to review the current off-premises sign ordinance and to determine what can be done to make it safer. In reviewing the ordinance, you should not consider:Select one:a. The timing of the message change
b. The messages that can be displayed
c. Luminance
d. Distance the signs are from the roadway

A

Messages on signs cannot be regulated as this would be a violation of freedom of speech.The correct answer is: The messages that can be displayed

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24
Q

In regards to public engagement, to make digital engagement equitable, we should:a. In virtual meetings, provide live translation.
b. Standardize public engagement practices so stakeholders know what to expect and feel more comftorable when participating.
c. Provide mobile hotspots to supplement internet services.
d. These are all strategies that can make engagement for equitable.

A

Public participation is increasingly digital. These are all strategies that should be considered for public engagement.The correct answer is: These are all strategies that can make engagement for equitable.

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25
Q

You have been appointed as the Director of the State Department of Planning. Your office reports to the Governor’s Office. Which of the following best describes the employment relationship?Select one:a. You are a unionized employee who is governed by a union contract with the state.
b. You are an at will political appointee who serves at the discretion of the Governor and can be terminated at any time.
c. You are a civil service employee like other employees in the department of planning.
d. You are an administrative professional employee like other management level employees throughout the state.

A

Typically directors of state agencies are political appointees and serve at the leisure of the Governor.The correct answer is: You are an at will political appointee who serves at the discretion of the Governor and can be terminated at any time.

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26
Q

What is downzoning?Select one:a. Reducing the number of zoning districts
b. Reducing the intensity of zoning on a site
c. Instituting an overlay zone
d. None of the above

A

Downzoning reduces the intensity of zoning on a site.The correct answer is: Reducing the intensity of zoning on a site

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27
Q

Recent news stories about drinking water contamination in a neighboring region led to public concern about the safety of your city’s public water supply. You prepare a public presentation for the city council explaining how the city is protecting the drinking water supply. You emphasize that the best way the city is protecting the drinking water supply is by:Select one:a. Estuary restoration
b. Anti-dumping regulations
c. Requiring separation from development and the water supply
d. Educate citizens on avoiding putting chemicals down the drain

A

Separation from a water supply is an effective way to protect water quality. The separation can be 200 or more feet –– depending on soil conditions and water flow.The correct answer is: Requiring separation from development and the water supply

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28
Q

As part of the development review team, you are the lead planner reviewing a proposal to redevelop a 50-acre parcel into a single-family subdivision. As part of your review you are concerned that the site may have been used for toxic waste in the past. In your staff report you write that you are concerned that the site may be a:Select one:a. Blueway
b. Drosscape
c. Locally Undesirable Land Use
d. Greenfield

A

In your staff report, you express your concern that the site may be a Drosscape. Drosscape is an urban design framework that examines urbanized regions as the product of past economic and industrial processes. The concept focuses on the redesign and adaptive reuse of “waste landscapes” within regions.The correct answer is: Drosscape

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29
Q

A property owner plants some very tall trees in their yard that block sunlight to a neighboring yard. Under what circumstances could the neighbor with the blocked sunlight compel the neighbor with the tall trees to have their trees removed?Select one:a. If the neighbor with blocked sunlight is able to obtain a solar access easement
b. If the neighbor secures enough votes from the planning commission
c. If the neighbor is able to gain the support of the planning commission
d. If the tree-planting neighbor did not properly notify the neighboring property about their plan to plant tall trees

A

Private easements occur when a property owner sells an easement to an individual. A property owner who has granted a solar access easement to their neighbor may not be allowed to plant trees or construct buildings, either of which would block sunlight, next to the easement.The correct answer is: If the neighbor with blocked sunlight is able to obtain a solar access easement

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30
Q

In To-morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform Ebenezer Howard offered his vision of cities that would include self-governance, a land lease plan designed to support all socioeconomic stratums and beautiful cities. This was known as the ____________ movement:Select one:a. City Sanitary
b. City Beautiful
c. Garden City
d. City Efficient

A

In 1898 Howard published his plan for garden cities as planned communities.The correct answer is: Garden City

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31
Q

Economic base analysis looks at the current economic situation to determine future economic possibilities. Economic base analysis includes which of the following?Select one:a. Projections of future job growth
b. A current inventory of office and industrial space and occupancy
c. An assessment of current employment by industry
d. All of these are included in an economic base analysis.

A

Economic base analysis was developed as part of the Regional Plan of New York and its Environs in 1928. This analysis divides industries into two categories. Basic industries are those that can export from a region. For example, automobiles can be exported. Economic base analysis compares employment in the region to national levels of employment in the same industry. In this case only the employment data by industry would be used to complete the economic base analysis.The correct answer is: An assessment of current employment by industry

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32
Q

You are being interviewed to be the first Economic Development Director for a small growing city with a downtown full of old buildings. The members of the interview community ask you to talk about your perspective on the types of economic development programs you would pursue. What would be least appropriate to suggest?Select one:a. Providing grants and loans to help businesses
b. Instituting policies to attract new businesses
c. Demolishing some buildings to support a new mixed-use development
d. All of the above

A

Based on the existing downtown and the need to grow the tax base of the community, the best answer is to attract new businesses, retain existing businesses, and put grant/loan programs in place. It would not be appropriate to suggest the need to demolish buildings.The correct answer is: Demolishing some buildings to support a new mixed-use development

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33
Q

Which of the following tools was used to gain public feedback about the World Trade Center proposals developed by the Lower Manhattan Development Corporation?Select one:a. Online deliberative polling
b. Electronic town hall meeting
c. Interactive Geographic Information System
d. Online discussion forums

A

The Lower Manhattan Development Corporation and the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey held an online discussion via an electronic town hall meeting to gain feedback on proposals for the world trade center site redevelopment.The correct answer is: Electronic town hall meeting

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34
Q

What is the name of a fund established to manage the revenues and expenditures of a golf course?Select one:A. enterprise fund
B. general fund
C. revenue fund
D. bond fund

A

An enterprise fund is an account established to manage the revenues and expenditures of a self-sufficient activity such as a golf course, zoo, parking garage, minor league baseball park etc.From Washington State’s Office of Financial Management:”Enterprise Funds account for any activity for which a fee is charged to external users for goods or services.” – so that would describe a golf course.”Special Revenue Funds account for the proceeds of specific revenue sources. The fund is used to record the proceeds from specific revenue sources for which fund usage is restricted.”Note that a revenue bond is issued by a municipality and backed by a specific stream of revenue (like building a stadium).The correct answer is: enterprise fund

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35
Q

Which of the following was most important for advancing environmental justice?Select one:a. Executive Order 12898
b. Beaches Environmental Assessment and Coastal Health Act
c. National Environmental Policy Act
d. Clean Water Act

A

Executive Order 12898 (https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-1994-02-16/html/94-3685.htm) stated that federal actions shall address environmental justice in minority and low-income populations. Every federal agency has as its mission to try to address environmental justice.The correct answer is: Executive Order 12898

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36
Q

The metropolitan waste management landfill is making plans for a major expansion to handle the region’s waste management needs over the next 20 years. The City Manager has requested that you, as a planner, prepare a position paper that describes any environmental justice issues. Which of the following would be an environmental justice issue?Select one:a. Job discrimination
b. Discrimination according to race, religion, or income status in any program receiving state financial assistance
c. Discrimination in any program receiving federal financial assistance
d. Housing discrimination

A

The correct answer is discrimination in any program receiving federal financial assistance. Title VI of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits intentional discrimination on the grounds of race, color, or national origin under any program receiving federal financial assistance. In 1994, President Clinton signed an Executive Order that directed all federal agencies to ensure that their policies and practices do not have disproportionate adverse environmental or health impacts on low-income or minority communities.The correct answer is: Discrimination in any program receiving federal financial assistance

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37
Q

You are a planner in California working on an integrated regional water management plan. Which of the following outreach strategies would be best for communities possibly affected by environmental justice issues?Select one:a. Identify water agencies and irrigation districts in all areas
b. Work with public agencies and non-profit staff to facilitate outreach efforts
c. Place information, documents and other materials in local libraries
d. All of the above

A

All of these items should be a component of a public outreach strategy intended to reach into communities that could be affected by environmental justice issues.The correct answer is: All of the above

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38
Q

Under the AICP Code of Ethics, a planner should contribute to the development of the profession in all of the following ways except:Select one:a. Sharing results of your work at professional conferences
b. Striving to increase opportunities for minorities
c. Lecturing at area university planning programs
d. Accepting a bribe.

A

Accepting a bribe is not acceptable under the AICP Code of Ethics, which states “We shall not, as public officials or employees, accept from anyone other than our public employer any compensation, commission, rebate, or other advantage that may be perceived as related to our public office or employment.”The correct answer is: Accepting a bribe.

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39
Q

A colleague that works for another agency and is an AICP member recently engaged in work that was a violation of the AICP Code of Ethics. When you confronted him about the violation he said he didn’t care about the violation. With whom should a charge of misconduct against an AICP* member be filed?Select one:a. The Ethics Officer of AICP
b. Your supervisor
c. The regional representative of AICP
d. The AICP President

A

The charge would be filed with the Ethics Officer of AICP. Section D of the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct contains the procedural provisions that detail how a complaint of misconduct can be filed, as well as how complaints are investigated and adjudicated. Any person, whether or not an AICP member, may file an ethics complaint against a Certified Planner. An ethics complaint shall be sent to the AICP Ethics Officer on a form developed by the Ethics Officer (and posted on the AICP website).The correct answer is: The Ethics Officer of AICP

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40
Q

A Planning Director received an application for a preliminary plat of a 20-acre parcel adjacent to a parcel that he owns. The subdivision will include 150 homes and apartment units. The director currently owns 10 acres with a single house on it and is opposed to this subdivision development. What should the Director do?Select one:a. Review the preliminary plat and make recommended changes only based on the subdivision regulations
b. Notify the city manager and assign the case to a senior planner
c. Resign in protest
d. Notify the property owner that he or she is opposed to the proposal and suggest submitting a new proposal at a lower density

A

The correct answer is to notify the city manager and assign the case to a senior planner. The AICP Code of Ethics requires the avoidance of a conflict of interest “We shall avoid a conflict of interest or even the appearance of a conflict of interest in accepting assignments from clients or employers.”. In this situation, even if the director believes he could review the case based on the regulations, it would create the appearance of a conflict of interest.The correct answer is: Notify the city manager and assign the case to a senior planner

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41
Q

You are the sole planner for a small community. You are responsible for all development review. You husband is the manager for a local apartment complex. He is submitting an application for a variance to allow for the construction of a swimming pool at the apartment complex. Given your personal relationship and the AICP Code of Ethics, which would be the best course of action:Select one:a. Process the application and make a note in the staff report disclosing your relationship
b. Hire a consultant to manage this development application.
c. File for divorce
d. Inform your supervisor and manage the case yourself

A

Hire a consultant to manage this development application. The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall avoid a conflict of interest or even the appearance of a conflict of interest in accepting assignments from clients or employers.” In this case you want to avoid a conflict of interest given the the relationship between you and your husband.The correct answer is: Hire a consultant to manage this development application.

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42
Q

Which of the following would constitute a conflict of interest under the AICP Code of Ethics?Select one:a. Accepting a payment for consulting work
b. Not performing a work task when you believe you are being asked to do more work than other planners in the office.
c. Owning an interest in property for which you are the planner responsible for reviewing the plat.
d. Exercising independent professional judgment.

A

It would be a conflict of interest to review a proposal for which you are the owner. The AICP Code of Ethics states, “We shall avoid a conflict of interest or even the appearance of a conflict of interest in accepting assignments from clients or employers.” Exercising independent professional judgement or refusing to do work because you feel you are given more to do than other planners are not clear conflicts under the Code. Accepting a payment for consulting work may not be a conflict of interest if you follow the steps in the AICP Code of Ethics.The correct answer is: Owning an interest in property for which you are the planner responsible for reviewing the plat.

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43
Q

As a staff planner in a city, owning real estate that may come before your Planning Commission is most likely to constitute which of the following?Select one:a. Bribery
b. Conflict of interest
c. Public interest
d. Moonlighting

A

This can be a conflict of interest because of your relationship with the property. The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall not perform work on a project for a client or employer if, in addition to the agreed upon compensation from our client or employer, there is a possibility for direct personal or financial gain to us, our family members, or persons living in our household, unless our client or employer, after full written disclosure from us, consents in writing to the arrangement.”The correct answer is: Conflict of interest

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44
Q

You are the planning division manager of current planning. You have received a rezoning application for a 100-acre parcel that is adjacent to one that you own. The request is to rezone the parcel from single family to commercial. What should you do?Select one:a. Notify your supervisor and allow the supervisor to decide what should be done.
b. Review the case as you would ordinarily.
c. Resign
d. Notify your supervisor and request not to be assigned to review the case.

A

According to the AICP Code of Ethics planners should avoid a direct or perceived conflict of interest. The best option would be to notify your supervisor and request not to be assigned to the case.The correct answer is: Notify your supervisor and request not to be assigned to review the case.

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45
Q

As the planning director you want to ensure your office engages in ethical behavior. Which of the following would be appropriate to undertake in your office?Select one:a. Promote ethical values
b. All of these would be appropriate.
c. Establish clear guidelines and train elected and appointed officials
d. Build an ethical firewall

A

All of these are important to fostering ethical behavior. An ethical firewall creates a wall between elected officials and the line staff who are charged with administering the regulations of the organization. Clear, concise policies and guidelines establish the standards for ethics, The planning manager communicates and promotes the ethical values, and training public officials in ethics is also appropriate.The correct answer is: All of these would be appropriate.

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46
Q

You are reviewing a proposal for a rezoning for an apartment complex. The mayor lets you know that she is strongly supportive of the proposal, but you have significant concerns about the project as it is a substantial increase in density and is not consistent with the comprehensive plan. You later find out that the mayor received a $10,000 campaign donation from the developer.What should you do?Select one:a. Notify your supervisor about the incident
b. Let your friend who works for the local newspaper know about the donation
c. Prepare a recommendation consistent with the mayor’s support
d. Prepare a recommendation based on the facts that apply to the rezoning

A

The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall not deliberately or with reckless indifference fail to provide adequate, timely, clear and accurate information on planning issues.” In this case you have a responsibility to handle this zoning case with the same diligence as any other case. You may also wish to notify your supervisor of the incident, but the best answer is to prepare the report.The correct answer is: Prepare a recommendation based on the facts that apply to the rezoning

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47
Q

Which of the following does not constitute a conflict of interest under the AICP Code of Ethics?Select one:a. Accepting tickets to a professional baseball game from a developer doing business in your jurisdiction
b. Being appointed to the Historic Preservation Commission in an adjacent city
c. A city employee moonlighting for a developer seeking Council approval of a project in the city
d. Using your knowledge of the comprehensive plan to purchase vacant land in an area soon to be annexed by the city

A

The correct answer is being appointed to the Historic Preservation Commission in an adjacent city. All of the other answers are specifically addressed in the AICP Code of Ethics.The correct answer is: Being appointed to the Historic Preservation Commission in an adjacent city

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48
Q

According to the APA’s Ethical Principles in Planning, a planner should do which of the following?Select one:a. Provide access to public documents
b. Avoid the appearance of a conflict of interest
c. Involve the public in planning processes
d. All of these choices are correct.

A

The answer is “All of the above.” Adopted in 1992, The Ethical Principles in Planning guides advisors, advocates, and decision makers in the planning process. Although it is a guide and not a code by which individuals may be held accountable, the guide is a statement about ethical conduct for all who participate in the process of planning.The correct answer is: All of these choices are correct.

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49
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a planner’s primary obligation to serve the public interest under the AICP Code of Ethics?Select one:a. Promote excellence of design and endeavor to conserve and preserve the integrity and heritage of the natural and built environment
b. Seek social justice by working to expand choice and opportunity for all persons, recognizing a special responsibility to plan for the needs of the disadvantaged and to promote racial and economic integration
c. Have special concern for long range consequences
d. Limit participation to public hearings.

A

Limiting participation to public hearings is not considered to be a planner’s primary obligation to serve the public interest under the AICP Code of EthicsThe correct answer is: Limit participation to public hearings.

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50
Q

You have applied for a position with a state agency working in water resources planning. On your resume, you mentioned that you have experience working on a harbor management plan. In reality, you attended public meetings about a harbor plan In the interview you are asked to describe your experience with water resource planning. Which of the following would be best to say:Select one:a. I was an active participant in a water resource plan in my community learning about the key aspects of planning for the future of our harbor.
b. I was part of the team that developed a harbor management plan in Plannersville.
c. I led a harbor management planning process in Plannersville.
d. I am interested in water resource management and have actively participated in water resource processes in the past.

A

The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall not misstate our education, experience, training, or any other facts which are relevant to our professional qualifications.” This choice is clearer about your role in a planning process.The correct answer is: I was an active participant in a water resource plan in my community learning about the key aspects of planning for the future of our harbor.

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51
Q

A planner against whom a charge of misconduct has been filed has all of the following duties except which of the following?Select one:a. The planner should quit his or her job.
b. The planner should ensure that all information that may be relevant to the charge is made available.
c. The planner should maintain a dialogue with AICP.
d. The planner should cooperate fully with the AICP Executive Director.

A

Quitting his or her job is not one of the duties.The correct answer is: The planner should quit his or her job.

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52
Q

You are the planning director for a county planning agency. As part of your work you have been developing a regional bikeways plan, which will amend the transportation element of the comprehensive plan. This amendment will be heard before the County Board of Commissioners in a week at a public hearing. You find out that your brother is in intensive care due to cancer. Your family has asked that you come as soon as possible to help. You would need to take at least two weeks off. What should you do about the bikeway plan?Select one:a. Ask the board to table the hearing of the item until the following month.
b. Tell your family you cannot arrive until after the public hearing.
c. Ask the assistant planning director to handle the public hearing in your absence.
d. Request the board of commissioners hear the case, but table a decision to the following month’s meeting.

A

Planning professionals, especially managers and those with significant levels of authority, need to make sure there are contingency plans in place for public processes in case of staff changes due to emergencies and unforseen events. Planning directors need to ensure that staff are informed about major projects, and lay out a strategy for how scheduled events like public hearings will be handled if key staff are absent.The correct answer is: Ask the assistant planning director to handle the public hearing in your absence.

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53
Q

The senior planner for a county is responsible for developing a public participation process for a county-wide plan. Thinking about the AICP Code of Ethics which of the following should you not consider?Select one:a. Contribute to the development of the planning profession
b. Provide opportunities for participation
c. Provide accurate information
d. Consider how the public interest is determined through continuous and open debate

A

The correct answer is contribute to development of the planning profession. While this is part of the AICP Code of Ethics, it is not relevant to the development of a public participation process. This code citation is relative to the development of professional planners. This is the code citation that one would review before deciding it is not relevant in this case “We shall not accept an assignment from a client or employer to publicly advocate a position on a planning issue that is indistinguishably adverse to a position we publicly advocated for a previous client or employer within the past three years unless (1) we determine in good faith after consultation with other qualified professionals that our change of position will not cause present detriment to our previous client or employer, and (2) we make full written disclosure of the conflict to our current client or employer and receive written permission to proceed with the assignment.”The correct answer is: Contribute to the development of the planning profession

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54
Q

A development company has obtained approval to build a two-story building on a parcel that has 100 feet of street frontage and 200 feet of depth. The first story measures 40 feet by 250 feet, and the second story measures 50 feet by 200 feet. What is the FAR of this site, given that no variances were needed?Select one:a. 1
b. 2
c. 2.5
d. 3

A

The total buildable area is 100 ft x 200 ft or 20,000 sq. ft. The gross floor area of the building is 20,000 sq. ft. (40 ft. x 250 ft. plus 50 ft. x 200 ft). FAR is gross floor area divided by buildable area, so in this case the FAR equals 1.0.The correct answer is: 1

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55
Q

The city’s downtown zoning district allows development on the basis of floor area ratio, allowing for floor area ratio of 4.0. A developer has set up a pre-application meeting with you to discuss the development concept. The development site has 40,000 square feet. What is the maximum square footage allowed for a building on this site?Select one:a. 160,000 square feet
b. 10,000 square feet
c. 320,000 square feet
d. 40,000 square feet

A

Floor area ratio is calculated by multiplying the total lot area by the floor area ratio. 40,000 times 4 equals a maximum building size of 160,000 square feet.The correct answer is: 160,000 square feet

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56
Q

A midwestern city is proposing to increase the maximum multi-family density from 8 units per acre to 16 units per acre. In order to determine the financial impact on public services, which of the following analysis methods should be used?Select one:a. Cohort survival analysis
b. Cost-benefit analysis
c. Shift-share analysis
d. Fiscal impact analysis

A

Fiscal impact analysis generally refers to efforts to estimate the budgetary effects of various types of land uses on local governmental jurisdictions or other local service providers.The correct answer is: Fiscal impact analysis

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57
Q

A housing development is being considered for approval by the local government you work for. Your boss has asked you to prepare a Fiscal Impact Analysis. Which of the following best describes what you should focus your analysis on?Select one:a. The expected population and employment growth.
b. The cost of providing service to all residential development in the community.
c. The cost of providing service to the new development.
d. The expected benefit of public infrastructure to be provided by the developer.

A

Fiscal Impact Analysis involves estimating the net impact on government of a particular project. Fiscal impact analysis seeks to connect planning and local economics by estimating the public costs and revenues that result from property investments.The correct answer is: The cost of providing service to the new development.

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58
Q

The City Council has raised increasing concerns over the lack of a grocery store downtown.The Council has asked you to do a city-wide study that identifies locations of _________ and to prepare a strategy for resolving this situation downtown.Select one:a. Grocery opportunity zones
b. Food Hubs
c. Food Deserts
d. Grocery Shortage Zones

A

A food desert is a district with little or no access to foods needed to maintain a healthy diet.The correct answer is: Food Deserts

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59
Q

You are the planner for Plannersville responsible for developing form-based districts for inclusion in the zoning ordinance. Components of the code you are developing contain standards addressing:Select one:a. Building configuration and features
b. Building type and frontage
c. Public space and land use
d. All of the above

A

All of these items would be typically included in a form based code.Please note that Form-based codes do still regulate land use, but that is a secondary, not primary, consideration. The primary consideration is form.The correct answer is: All of the above

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60
Q

Who created a model town for his company and employees in Illinois?Select one:a. George Pullman
b. Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr.
c. James Rouse
d. Clarence Stein

A

Pullman created a model town.The correct answer is: George Pullman

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61
Q

As part of the comprehensive plan, the staff created a goals-achievement matrix. It is now time to use the matrix. At what point in the process are you:Select one:a. Data collection
b. Goal setting
c. Plan evaluation
d. Evaluation of alternatives

A

The Goals-Achievement Matrix can be used in plan evaluation to aid in seeing where implementation has been achieved and where revisions may be necessary.The correct answer is: Plan evaluation

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62
Q

Which of the following is not a case that was heard before the U.S. Supreme Court?Select one:a. Golden v. Planning Board of the Town of Ramapo
b. Eubank v. City of Richmond
c. Village of Belle Terre v. Boraas
d. Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty

A

In Golden v. Ramapo (1972) the Court of Appeals of New York (the highest court in the state) marked the first time in the U.S. that a town was legally approved to control its own growth. At issue was a planned development system the town adopted in 1969 as a way to effectuate its 1966 master plan.The correct answer is: Golden v. Planning Board of the Town of Ramapo

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63
Q

Your city is rapidly growing and as part of a comprehensive planning effort intends to create a growth management program. This should include which of the following? Select one:a. A statement of growth policy
b. A plan for financing
c. Public investment programs
d. All of the above

A

Based on Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practice a growth management program includes a program of when and where development should occur in the future, policies directing growth, the way to finance growth, and an indication of what public infrastructure investments are needed and when.The correct answer is: All of the above

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64
Q

Satisficing is a decision-making strategy that entails searching through the available alternatives until an acceptable threshold is met. For example, given the constraints of time, money, and other resources, a planner will make a decision to achieve a given goal. Who is the person who introduced the concept of satisficing?Select one:a. Peter Calthorpe
b. Alfred Bettman
c. Lawrence Veiller
d. Herbert Simon

A

Herbert Simon was best known for satisficing.The correct answer is: Herbert Simon

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65
Q

As a planner working for a rural county, you have been asked to draft a definition of homelessness. You are considering using the definition used by the federal government, but you have a concern. Which of the following might be the basis for your concern?Select one:a. The definition used by the federal government is biased towards rural areas.
b. The federal government definition is problematic in rural areas because there are few shelters.
c. The definition of homelessness that the federal government uses is not legal and is only used for descriptive purposes.
d. There is no federal definition of homelessness.

A

Federal law defines a homeless person as one who, “lacks a fixed, regular, and adequate nighttime residence … and has a primary night residency that is: a shelter or a public or private place not designed for, or ordinarily used as, a regular sleeping accommodation for human beings.” This definition works well in large urban communities, but is problematic in assessing the status of homeless persons in rural areas where there are few shelters.The correct answer is: The federal government definition is problematic in rural areas because there are few shelters.

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66
Q

The mayor is concerned about the conversion of single family homes from owner-occupied to rental. She has asked you to put together a report looking at national and regional trends in homeownership. As part of your report you share that nationally, according to the 2010 Census:Select one:a. 45% of units are owner occupied
b. 75% of units are owner occupied
c. 65% of units are owner occupied
d. 70% of units are owner occupied

A

65% of units are owner occupied according to the 2010 US CensusThe correct answer is: 65% of units are owner occupied

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67
Q

As a planner, you are asked to identify up to two hostile public spaces from a list of five spaces within your assigned community district. Of the following, which would you flag as potential spaces for redesign?I. A paved and tree-shaded dining area with benches and picnic tables within walking distance of a local state parkII. A flower garden with a statue honoring a local cultural leaderIII. A set of large concrete stairs in the district center with ample seating space and a designated security guardIV. A steep and scenic walking trail alongside a frequently busy highwayV. A Boxville park with storage unit stalls for rent by local entrepreneursa. I and III
b. IV and V
c. III and IV
d. II and IV

A

Space III is inaccessible to elderly and disabled residents due to its central stair element— no mention is made of a ramp. Concrete is also not a comfortable material for outdoor seating, and the constant presence of a security guard may leave residents feeling overpoliced and unsafe. Space IV is described as scenic, but it poses two safety risks by being both steep and next to a busy highway.The correct answer is: III and IV

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68
Q

What were the main provisions of the 1949 Housing Act?Select one:a. Federal and state financing for slum clearance
b. Federal financing for slum clearance and increased authorization for FHA mortgage insurance
c. Federal financing for slum clearance and subsidy for public housing
d. Increased authorization for FHA mortgage insurance and funding for public housing that was limited to 100,000 units

A

The main components of the National Housing Act of 1949 included federal financing for slum clearance programs associated with urban restoration projects in American cities (Title I), increased authorization for the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) mortgage insurance (Title II), and money to build more than 800,000 public houses.The correct answer is: Federal financing for slum clearance and increased authorization for FHA mortgage insurance

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69
Q

The Housing Act of 1954 created which of the following?Select one:a. HOPE VI
b. Urban renewal and the enterprise program
c. HOME Investment Partnerships Program
d. Funds for urban renewal and federal assistance for local planning

A

In addition to creating the section 701 comprehensive planning program (federal planning assistance to local governments), the Housing Act of 1954 provided funds for urban renewal. The HOPE VI housing program started in 1992 and provided funds for mixed-income housing using New Urbanist and defensible space urban design principles. The HOME Investment Partnerships Program (HOME) was created in 1990 and is a federal block grant program administered by HUD.The correct answer is: Funds for urban renewal and federal assistance for local planning

70
Q

You are the planner for a small but rapidly growing suburb. The council has directed you to implement a development impact fee ordinance. Which of the following would you do first?Select one:a. Ask whether developers would support a development impact fee
b. Determine how performance of the development impact fee would be measured
c. Determine the infrastructure costs associated with new development using local data.
d. Consult with the city attorney on the text of the ordinance.

A

Development Impact Fees are controversial and will likely be opposed by developers. Before a development impact fee ordinance could be considered, planners would need to first determine what the costs associated with new development actually are. This would need to happen before consulting an attorney about the text of the ordinance, or determining how performance might be measured, and asking whether developers would support it.The correct answer is: Determine the infrastructure costs associated with new development using local data.

71
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to set aside land to construct affordable housing within a development?Select one:a. Exaction
b. Impact fees
c. Dedication
d. Inclusionary zoning

A

Inclusionary zoning, usually practiced in urban areas, is planning communities and developments that will provide housing to all income brackets. Inclusionary zoning ordinances often require any new housing construction to include a set percentage of affordable housing units.The correct answer is: Inclusionary zoning

72
Q

The City of Metropolis has just adopted a comprehensive plan. One of the major goals is to increase the amount of affordable housing. As a senior planner you are charged with developing programs to implement this goal. Which of the following would you choose?Select one:a. Adopt inclusionary zoning
b. Adopt a TDR program
c. Develop a TIF
d. Adopt impact fees

A

The correct answer is to adopt inclusionary zoning. Inclusionary zoning requires that a portion of new development be devoted to affordable housing.The correct answer is: Adopt inclusionary zoning

73
Q

In a new development, who is typically responsible for construction of streets, curbs, water, and sewer on the development project site?Select one:a. Municipality
b. Developer
c. County
d. Lender

A

In most cases, the local government has requirements in place that the developer is responsible for the development of all infrastructure internal to the development.The correct answer is: Developer

74
Q

Who designed Columbia, Maryland?Select one:a. Daniel Burnham
b. James Rouse
c. Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr
d. Frank Lloyd Wright

A

James Rouse was the developer that conceived of Columbia, Maryland. Rouse strongly believed in the new cities movement that by proper design blight could be eliminated.The correct answer is: James Rouse

75
Q

Which of the following is not true about the Sierra Club?Select one:a. It was founded in the 1960s by a California-based conservationist group
b. It was founded by the conservationist John Muir in 1892
c. It is the nation’s largest environmental organization
d. It recently opposed CA Senate Bill 827 which promoted high-density housing

A

The Sierra Club was founded in 1892 by conservationist John Muir. With more than 3 million members, it is the largest environmental organization in the U.S. It recently came under criticism for opposing high-density housing development in California (CA Senate Bill 827).The correct answer is: It was founded in the 1960s by a California-based conservationist group

76
Q

APA filed an amicus curiae brief in support of an eminent domain action taken by a U.S. city. The brief argued that one way to reduce the advantage developers experience in greenfield development is to use eminent domain to assemble tracts of land in high-density urban areas. This brief was filed in support of which case?Select one:a. Sierra Club v. Morton
b. Kelo v. City of New London
c. Lingle v. Chevron
d. Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty

A

Kelo v. City of New London was a court case focused on land assembly using eminent domainThe correct answer is: Kelo v. City of New London

77
Q

The Division Director you hired has been on the job for almost a year, you have heard from people a mix of opinions about the employee’s performance. You want to create a development plan for this director. In order to understand how to best understand the employee’s strengths and weaknesses you decide to:Select one:a. Complete a performance checklist
b. Conduct a 360 degree evaluation
c. Interview the division director
d. Host a focus group

A

A 360 degree evaluation allows employees to receive feedback from people they report to, peers, and people that work for employees.The correct answer is: Conduct a 360 degree evaluation

78
Q

Peter Drucker is associated with which of the following?Select one:a. Tax Increment Financing
b. Zero Based Budget
c. Management by Objectives
d. Program Evaluation and Review Technique

A

The correct answer is MBO. Management by Objectives (MBO) is a process of agreeing upon objectives within an organization so that management and employees buy in to the objectives and understand what they are.The correct answer is: Management by Objectives

79
Q

A planner comes to you, the Planning Director of an agency with 20 employees, to make a complaint of sexual harassment against another employee in the department. What is the first thing you should do as the Planning Director?Select one:a. Review the section on sexual harassment in the Departmental Managers Rules and Procedures Manual and follow the instructions.
b. Contact the Human Resources Department and ask for direction.
c. Bring both employees into your office to discuss the allegation.
d. Talk to the accused employee.

A

Sexual harassment is a form of sex discrimination that violates Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Title VII applies to employers with 15 or more employees, including state and local governments. Employers should have established procedures, including an effective complaint or grievance process, that specify how to take immediate and appropriate action when an employee complains.The correct answer is: Review the section on sexual harassment in the Departmental Managers Rules and Procedures Manual and follow the instructions.

80
Q

You are undertaking a SWOT analysis. What does SWOT stand for?Select one:a. Simple, Wise, Open, and Transparent
b. Strengths Weaknesses Opportunities Threats
c. Strategies for Water, Open Space, and Transportation
d. Strengths, Weaknesses, Options, and Tasks

A

A SWOT analysis includes strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.The correct answer is: Strengths Weaknesses Opportunities Threats

81
Q

Zero-Base Budgeting does which of the following? Select one:a. Breaks the budget into decision packages
b. Starts the budget each year from scratch
c. Ties decision packages to long range goals
d. All of these choices are valid.

A

A method of budgeting in which all expenses must be justified for each budget period. Zero-based budgeting starts from a “zero base” and every function within an organization is analyzed for its needs and costs. Budgets are then built around what is needed for the upcoming budget year, regardless of whether the budget is higher or lower than the previous one. This method allows for strategic goal implementation and integration into the budgeting process by tying goals to expenditures.The correct answer is: All of these choices are valid.

82
Q

Which of the following would be most like to be used to characterize the hallmarks of exemplary planning leadership?I. Understanding the values of planning commissioners or elected leadersII. Being open to new ideasIII. Being able to generate enthusiasmIV. Being able to take direction from anyone in the organization, not just a supervisorSelect one:a. I and IV only
b. II and III only
c. I, III and IV only
d. I, II and III only

A

Great planning managers are also leaders. In addition to focusing on problem solving (rather than focusing on why problems cannot be solved), great leaders have a visionary and entrepreneurial perspective, an openness to new ideas, a willingness to work collaboratively, and the ability to generate enthusiasm and respect.The correct answer is: II and III only

83
Q

Which of the following characterizes the organization of a planning agency that is horizontally integrated and grouped by time frame?Select one:a. Management, current planning, advance planning
b. Management, human resources, legal counsel
c. Environment, human services, transportation
d. Transportation, land use, housing

A

Planning agencies are often organized such that certain functions are grouped together within a department. A common approach is horizontal integration grouped by time frame: management (e.g., human resources, board staffing, information technology); current planning (e.g., permitting, environmental assessments, project management); and advance or long-range planning (e.g., strategic plans and master/comprehensive/general plans).The correct answer is: Management, current planning, advance planning

84
Q

What might be the advantage of integrating current and long-range planning?Select one:a. To ensure a more transparent public participation process
b. To ensure that staff are communicating effectively
c. To help managers coordinate overlapping tasks
d. To ensure that goals expressed in comprehensive plans are implemented by current planning functions

A

The integration of current and long-range planning in the same department would have the advantage of helping to ensure that the goals and policies expressed in comprehensive and general plans would be implemented by current planning functions, including site plan and development review, zoning, and form-based codes.The correct answer is: To ensure that goals expressed in comprehensive plans are implemented by current planning functions

85
Q

Who was the father of the modern housing code?Select one:a. Lawrence Veiller
b. Saul Alinsky
c. Edward Bassett
d. Alfred Bettman

A

Lawrence Veiller is the father of the modern housing code. He was concerned with housing conditions for those who are low income. He produced a Tenement Exhibition with proposals for New York City. He went on to become secretary of the New York State Tenement House Commission and drafted the New York State Tenement House Act of 1901 that established basic housing laws - including fire exits and running water for bathrooms in every tenement.The correct answer is: Lawrence Veiller

86
Q

What technique can be used to find the optimum design solution on a project?Select one:a. Critical path programming
b. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
c. Zero Based Budgeting
d. Linear programming

A

Linear programming is a method for determining an optimal solution. This could apply to a number of planning projects, such as a regional development plan. Critical path programming and PERT are about the optimal scheduling of tasks. Zero-based budgeting is a method of budgeting in which all expenses have to be justified for each new period.The correct answer is: Linear programming

87
Q

Which of the following US Supreme Court cases was responsible for putting forth the “severity of the burden” rather than the “substantially advances” test for takings cases?Select one:a. Lingle v. Chevron
b. Agins v. Tiburon
c. Kelo v. City of New London
d. Rapanos v. United States

A

In Lingle v. Chevron the Court found that the takings clause should be based on the severity of the burden that the regulation imposes upon property rights and not whether the effect of the regulation is to “substantially advance” governmental interest. The substantially advances clause came from Agins v. Tiburon.The correct answer is: Lingle v. Chevron

88
Q

The metal fabrication industry has a location quotient of 0.50. This industry:Select one:a. Results in a shift of employment share
b. Is an import industry
c. Neither import or export industry
d. Is an export industry

A

The metal fabrication industry is an import industry. A score lower than one means importing employment and greater than one means exporting employmentThe correct answer is: Is an import industry

89
Q

In Kansas City, 3 percent of local employment is in polymer manufacturing. In Lawrence, 8 percent of local employment is in polymer manufacturing. In Wichita, 13 percent of the local employment is in polymer manufacturing. Nationally, 9 percent of people are employed in polymer manufacturing. Based on the location quotient method, which of these communities has polymer manufacturing as an export industry?Select one:a. Lawrence
b. St. Louis
c. Kansas City
d. Wichita

A

The correct answer is Wichita. A location quotient of greater than 1 means that it is an exporting industry.The correct answer is: Wichita

90
Q

What agency manages the Low-Income Housing Tax Credit program, and what mechanism is used to award credits?Select one:a. U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, using public housing programs
b. Federal Housing Administration, using mortgage insurance
c. State housing agencies, using the state’s Qualified Allocation Plan
d. All of these are correct

A

States manage the Low-Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC) program through a state housing finance agency. The state housing agency has wide discretion in determining which projects to award credits, and applications are considered under the state’s “Qualified Allocation Plan” (QAP).The correct answer is: State housing agencies, using the state’s Qualified Allocation Plan

91
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a mail survey?Select one:a. Extensive staff time required
b. Low cost
c. High response rate
d. High training costs

A

Low cost is an advantage.The correct answer is: Low cost

92
Q

A senior planner is responsible for developing a mail survey of citizen opinions of the city’s bikeway system. In general terms, what would be a reasonable expectation for the percentage of mail surveys returned?Select one:a. 0.8
b. 0.6
c. 0.4
d. 0.2

A

Survey response rates for mail surveys are generally low, so 20% is the best answer. It should be noted, however, that response rates vary significantly based on how the survey is conducted (is it included in a utility bill? Is it targeting a specific area on a specific topic that affects the area? Is there an incentive offered, such as a cash payment?)The correct answer is: 0.2

93
Q

The Village of Mariemont, designated as a National Historic Landmark, is interesting for planners because it was:Select one:a. Modeled on Garden City principles
b. Based on Burgess’ Concentric Zone model
c. The first Garden City in the U.S.
d. The nation’s first historic district

A

Mariemont was designed by John Nolen based on Garden City principles. It was also one of the earliest Garden Cities to be designed with the automobile in mind.The correct answer is: Modeled on Garden City principles

94
Q

The Capital Improvements Advisory Board has been charged with creating the city’s Capital Improvement Plan. Staff have requested $756 million in improvements, but the plan can only include $400 million due to debt financing constraints. The Board members are having a difficult time deciding which projects to move forward. As the staff member supporting the Board you decide to incorporate a Multiattribute Utility Analysis because:Select one:a. Multi-attribute Utility Analysis will allow for weight to be assigned the various values and for different alternatives to be evaluated.
b. Multi-attribute Utility Analysis is an important step in conservation planning
c. Multi-attribute Utility Analysis is more effective than performing multiple cost-benefit analyses
d. Multi-attribute Utility Analysis makes it easy to elicit consumer preferences

A

Multi-attribute Utility Analysis allows for weighting of a series of values dimensions. For example, participants are given a number of points that can be allocated between the value dimensions or participants can be asked which of two values is more important.The correct answer is: Multi-attribute Utility Analysis will allow for weight to be assigned the various values and for different alternatives to be evaluated.

95
Q

What is the mean of the following numbers: 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8?Select one:a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 4.5

A

The correct answer is 4.5. The mean is the average of a set of numbers. Three is the mode, 4 is the median, and 6 is the range.The correct answer is: 4.5

96
Q

What is the benefit of a facilitator in a planning meeting?a. Facilitation should be a last resort for meetings.
b. There are no benefits of facilitation. It is better to have people with opposing views work problems out on their own.
c. None of these choices are correct.
d. They do not have a direct stake in the outcome of a meeting to help groups that disagree work together to solve complex problems and come to a consensus.

A

Your answer is correct.The correct answer is: They do not have a direct stake in the outcome of a meeting to help groups that disagree work together to solve complex problems and come to a consensus.

97
Q

The first layer of a Message Pyramid is:a. The key message on top.
b. A first proof.
c. A list of goals.
d. A second proof layer.

A

A Message Pyramid consists of a Key Message on top, a First Proof layer in the middle, and a Second Proof layer at the bottom. Key Messages should be long-lasting and consistent statements, regardless of situation. They should create an environment and a belief system among your key audiences.The correct answer is: The key message on top.

98
Q

In which of the following cases was a violation of the First Amendment freedom of speech found?Select one:A. Metromedia v City of San Diego
B. City of Renton v Playtime
C. Euclid v. Ambler Realty
D. Young v. American Mini Theaters

A

Metromedia v City of San Diego was found to violate the first amendment’s freedom of speech. In this case, the City of San Diego banned most outdoor advertising signs to improve aesthetics and prevent a distraction for motorists. The City only permitted on-site signs, not off-site signs. This Court found that this did violate the first and fourteenth amendment finding that this ban discriminated against noncommercial speech. In this case, they found that the ordinance provided a greater degree of freedom of speech protection to commercial speech.The correct answer is: Metromedia v City of San Diego

99
Q

What is a metropolitan statistical area?Select one:a. A census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked geographically
b. A census designated place that includes a small city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked physically
c. A census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked economically
d. A census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked physically

A

A Metropolitan statistical area is a census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked economically.The correct answer is: A census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked economically

100
Q

According to the U.S. Census, a Micropolitan Statistical Area can be described as which of the following?Select one:a. A geographic entity, as defined by the Federal Office of Management and Budget for use by federal statistical agencies, that is based on the concept of a core area with a small central population nucleus
b. A geographic entity, as defined by the Federal Office of the Census for use by federal statistical agencies, that is based on the concept of an area with a large population
c. Urban areas in the United States based around an urban cluster (urban area) with a population of 10,000 to 49,999.
d. A geographic entity, as defined by the Federal Office of the Census for use by federal statistical agencies, that is based on the idea of a conglomeration of large cities

A

Defined by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), are urban areas in the United States based around an urban cluster (urban area) with a population of 10,000 to 49,999.The correct answer is: Urban areas in the United States based around an urban cluster (urban area) with a population of 10,000 to 49,999.

101
Q

Over 82% of Americans now live in urban areas. Which is an untrue statement about the urbanization of the US?Select one:a. Young professionals and Baby Boomers are the key populations moving into cities
b. The Western U.S. is the most urbanized part of the country today
c. About one-fifth of US states still have a majority rural population
d. Net migration, rather than higher birth rates, is driving the growth of urban areas

A

Only 4 states have a majority rural population: Maine, Vermont, West Virginia and MississippiThe correct answer is: About one-fifth of US states still have a majority rural population

102
Q

Metropolitan Planning Organizations are typically responsible for what kind of planning?Select one:a. Housing
b. Environmental protection
c. Economic
d. Transportation

A

A Metropolitan Planning Organization (MPO) is a transportation policy-making organization made up of representatives from local government and transportation authorities. In the early 1970s, the Congress of the United States passed legislation that required the formation of an MPO for any Urbanized Area (UZA) with a population greater than 50,000. Congress created MPOs in order to ensure that existing and future expenditures for transportation projects and programs are based on a continuing, cooperative, and comprehensive (“3-C”) planning process. Federal funding for transportation projects and programs are channeled through this planning process.The correct answer is: Transportation

103
Q

Which of the following is true about incrementalist planning theory?Select one:a. Harvey Perloff was an early advocate
b. It is not scientific
c. It rests on the idea that practical planning requires decisions to be made in a step-by-step fashion
d. It focuses on solving problems as efficiently as possible

A

Lindblom’s incrementalism was a critique of rational planning. Lindblom described planning as “muddling through” and thought that practical planning required decisions to be made incrementally. It was still scientific, although its focus was not efficiency. Perloff was in the tradition of rational planning.The correct answer is: It rests on the idea that practical planning requires decisions to be made in a step-by-step fashion

104
Q

What did the Indian Reorganization Act provide for?
I. Designation of reservations for Native Americans
II. Organization of Native Americans residing on reservations
III. Adoption of constitutions for Native Americans living on reservations
IV. Legalization of gaming on reservation propertiesSelect one:a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, III, and IV

A

Organization of Native Americans and adoption of constitutions. The 1934 Act allowed Native Americans to adopt a constitution and organize for their common welfare.The correct answer is: II and III only

105
Q

A tribal designated statistical area is?Select one:a. A unit drawn by tribes that do not have a recognized area.
b. A unit delineated by the Census in partnership with federally recognized tribes.
c. A unit drawn which recognizes an area for a tribe determined by the State Government.
d. A unit only used in 29 states and usually corresponds to a municipality.

A

Tribal-designated statistical areas (TDSAs) are statistical geographic areas identified and delineated by the U.S. CensusBureau in partnership withfederally recognizedtribes that do not have areservationoroff-reservationtrust land and arenotlocated in Alaska, Hawaii, or Oklahoma”The correct answer is: A unit delineated by the Census in partnership with federally recognized tribes.

106
Q

A manufacturing plant is reaching the end of its lifecycle. The manufacturer needs to make a decision to rebuild the plant in the same community or relocate to another region. The manufacturer has experienced increased competition and it has become increasingly difficult to maintain a profit. The manufacturer pays an average of $22 per hour for union labor. The plant is located within 200 miles of 70% of the customers. Wages represent 50% of the cost of production, parts 30%, and transportation 20%. In considering whether to relocate, which of the following would be most critical:Select one:a. Relocate to a new region where transportation costs are lower
b. Relocate to a new region where wages are lower
c. Relocate to a new region where construction costs are lower
d. Negotiate with the regional economic authority to get tax breaks equivalent to the savings that would be created from relocation.

A

In this case, it is logical that the manufacturer may choose to relocate to a lower wage region. However, before that decision is made the best option is to engage with the regional economic development authority to determine if it is possible to reach an agreement that would mitigate the cost savings of relocating.The correct answer is: Negotiate with the regional economic authority to get tax breaks equivalent to the savings that would be created from relocation.

107
Q

You have been working with a coalition of nonprofits, Centers for Disease Control and the City to develop a program to bring new business development into low income neighborhoods on the east side of the city. The coalition is focused on fostering community capitalism, having for-profit businesses invest in job creation in low income neighborhoods. The coalition has determined the best opportunity to stimulate business development is through:Select one:a. Forming a local business association
b. Community Development Corporation
c. Pursuing state and federal grant opportunities
d. New Markets Tax Credit Program

A

The New Markets Tax Credit Program spurs business development by providing tax credit incentives to investors for equity investments in Community Development Entities. The Community Development Entities then invest in development in low-income communities.The correct answer is: New Markets Tax Credit Program

108
Q

You are working with a community that wants to work together to solve the problem of crime in their neighborhood. You know that there is no consensus on what is the best approach to solving the problem and there has been a lot of finger pointing. The Mayor wants a fast solution that the neighborhood can agree on so that he can show immediate progress in reducing crime in the neighborhood. You invite together a group of 20 leaders in the neighborhood to work together to solve this challenge. Which of the following would be the best method for engaging this group?Select one:a. Deliberative Polling Process
b. Appreciative Inquiry Process
c. Nominal Group Technique
d. Citizen Jury

A

Given the tight time pressure and the desire for a consensus, the best choice is the Nominal Group Technique which allows everyone to share their ideas, but quickly come to an agreement on a solution.The correct answer is: Nominal Group Technique

109
Q

A staff member recently completed a survey that will be used to inform the comprehensive plan. One of the questions read, “What community do you live in?”. Your staff member lets you know that there is a problem. Only 1/3 of the respondents provided the name of the neighborhood they live in; some provided a city or others an area of a city. She wants your help in understanding what happened. You say:Select one:a. You explain that this is an example of a sampling error as there was a non-representative sample that resulted in an inadequate number of responses from different areas of the city.
b. You explain this was a problem with the clarity of the question and that she should have written the question using the word “neighborhood”.
c. You explain that this will result in a regression error because the data cannot be coded properly.
d. You explain this is an example of a non-sampling error because the respondents misinterpreted the intention of the question.

A

A non-sampling error relates to happenings during data collection that create unreliable data. In this case, respondents misinterpreted the intention of the term “community”. The planner intended this to mean neighborhood, while respondents interpreted this in multiple ways. While the question should have been written with greater clarity, the non-sampling error is the best answer response.The correct answer is: You explain this is an example of a non-sampling error because the respondents misinterpreted the intention of the question.

110
Q

As a planner for the City of Cleveland, you are reviewing past plans in preparation for the city’s current comprehensive planning effort. In reviewing the plans from the 1970s, you realize that under Director Krumholz the City of Cleveland utilized:Select one:a. Communicative planning
b. Transactive planning
c. Advocacy planning
d. Rational planning

A

The City of Cleveland, under Director Krumholz, utilized advocacy planning.The correct answer is: Advocacy planning

111
Q

What type of evaluation assesses change resulting from community engagement, such as change in the way people engage with each other and change resulting from their engagement?a. Process Evaluation
b. Outcome evaluation
c. None of these are the correct choice.
d. Ripple Effect Mapping (REM)

A

There are three evaluation design options. Outcome evaluation might involve collecting individual or community level changes in how people engage with each other. Process evaluation involves collecting data in the planning and implementation phases and are done at the beginning and throughout the engagement process. Ripple Effect Mapping is a method used in evaluation to engage key stakeholders in assessing the impact of community engagement.The correct answer is: Outcome evaluation

112
Q

What is the average width of a parking space in a parking lot?Select one:a. 5 feet
b. 9 feet
c. 7 feet
d. 11 feet

A

The width of a parking space can range from 7.5 feet for a compact car to 9 feet for a standard vehicle. Code requirements can be written for varying widths.The correct answer is: 9 feet

113
Q

The benefits of a participatory approach include:I. Promoting buy-in to the evaluationII. Empowering participants as it facilitates building evaluation capacity within the communityIII. Collecting key data around community engagementIV. Creating space to obtain input from all participantsa. II and III
b. I and IV
c. All of these are benefits of a participatory approach.
d. I, II, and IV

A

While collecting data is an important method of evaluating the participatory approach, it is not a benefit of the participatory approach overall.The correct answer is: I, II, and IV

114
Q

Who created advocacy planning?Select one:a. Charles Stein
b. Saul Alinsky
c. Charles Lindblom
d. Paul Davidoff

A

Paul Davidoff created Advocacy PlanningThe correct answer is: Paul Davidoff

115
Q

What constitutional amendment did Penn Central Transportation Co. v The City of New York primarily test?Select one:a. 1st
b. 5th
c. 14th
d. 21st

A

Penn Central Transportation Co. v The City of New York primarily tested the 5th amendment. The New York City Landmarks Preservation Law of 1965 resulted in the designation of “landmarks” and “landmark sites.” Penn Central, which owned the Grand Central Terminal, was not permitted to build an office building above it.The Court held that the restrictions imposed did not prevent Penn Central from ever constructing above the terminal in the future, it simply prevented Penn Central from building this specific 50 story addition. The Court found that the zoning restriction was substantially related to the general welfare of the city.The correct answer is: 5th

116
Q

Which case determined that property may be regulated to a certain extent, but if regulation goes too far it will be recognized as a taking?Select one:a. Nollan v. California Coastal Commission
b. Pennsylvania Coal Co. v. Mahon
c. Dolan v. South Carolina Coastal Commission
d. Berman v. Parker

A

Pennsylvania Coal Co. v. Mahon. This 1922 US Supreme Court case set forth the “balancing of interests” approach for reviewing taking claims.The correct answer is: Pennsylvania Coal Co. v. Mahon

117
Q

You are a planner in a government agency and you have an idea that you think is important. You are not in a top position on the organizational chart, but you feel that your idea is nevertheless worth promoting. What is an appropriate strategy to pursue?Select one:a. None. Non-supervisory planning staff are not in a position to promote their ideas
b. Focus your attention and build relationships with those who will be open to your point of view
c. Develop an understanding of various stakeholders and what their positions are relative to your idea; clearly communicate your vision and worldview
d. Talk to your supervisor about a strategy for future promotion

A

An organizational chart is just one part of how leadership happens. Who has power and who has interest are two dynamics that intersect and create differing leadership opportunities. If there is a particular goal a planner has, a politically savvy planner invests time to build interpersonal relationships, thoroughly explains their vision and worldview (and be honest about it), acknowledges differences rather than sweeping them under the rug, respects the power and leadership of others, and explains why the support of others actually matters.The correct answer is: Develop an understanding of various stakeholders and what their positions are relative to your idea; clearly communicate your vision and worldview

118
Q

Which of the following is a financial projection that includes an income statement for a real estate project that shows the capital cost, operating revenue and expenses, and return on investment for one or more years?Select one:a. Pro forma
b. Capital improvement program
c. Capital budget
d. Financial feasibility analysis

A

Pro forma is the best answer. A Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is a plan to fund infrastructure and building improvements over a fixed period of several years. A capital budget is a budget for large expenses or investments. A financial feasibility analysis uses project costs and revenue forecasts to evaluate the overall financial feasibility of a project, but it is not specifically about real estate.The correct answer is: Pro forma

119
Q

As the new director of planning you are reviewing the management of the department. As one example, you want to document the department’s progress in implementing the city’s comprehensive plan. Which of the following would be the most appropriate to use?Select one:a. Linear Programming
b. Goals Achievement Matrix
c. A program monitoring system
d. GANTT Chart

A

A program monitoring system documents progress, collects feedback and allows for plan revisions as needed.The correct answer is: A program monitoring system

120
Q

In which tax does the tax rate increase as the tax base increases?Select one:a. Proportional tax
b. Regressive tax
c. Progressive tax
d. Tax increment

A

Progressive tax increases the tax rate as the tax base increases (i.e., the tax rate, along with tax liability, increases as an individual or entity’s wealth increases). A proportional tax, also referred to as a flat tax, assesses the same tax rate regardless of income or wealth. Under a regressive tax system (e.g., sales tax), individuals and entities with low incomes pay a higher amount of that income in taxes compared to high-income earners. A tax increment is the additional property tax generated by a development; the increment is “captured” to finance development costs.The correct answer is: Progressive tax

121
Q

You are charged with redeveloping a 25-acre former public housing site into a office park. You need to conduct a fiscal analysis that estimates the average costs of the proposed office development. This is known as:Select one:a. Proportional Valuation Method
b. Employment Anticipation Method
c. Service Standard Method
d. Case Study Method

A

A fiscal analysis that estimates the average costs of the proposed office development is known as the Proportional Valuation Method. The proportional valuation method examines increases in community revenues and expenditures related to development. Specific expenditures and revenues are allocated to land uses. Costs and revenues are allocated to residential, commercial and industrial land uses in proportion to the share each represents of the total property base as reflected in property value. After costs and revenues are allocated, a current cost per acre by land use type is estimated and this is then applied to the development.The correct answer is: Proportional Valuation Method

122
Q

You have setup a meeting with the public health department to discuss comprehensive planning. The City will be launching a major comprehensive plan update and in the past the public health department had not been involved. You have prepared a memo outlining the ways in which public health topics could be incorporated into the comprehensive plan. Which of the following would be most appropriate to incorporate?Select one:a. Environmental health
b. Non motorized transportation
c. Food systems
d. All of the above

A

Public health includes all of the above and for a comprehensive plan the city would be considering how the built environment intersects with each of these issues.The correct answer is: All of the above

123
Q

You are working on a regional visioning process focused on economic, social, environmental and growth issues that represents the values of the region. You want to ensure broad public participation to make sure the region’s values are captured. Which of the following would be the best approach to gain public participation?Select one:a. Host a regional roundtable inviting public officials from across the region to come together to share their values and priorities.
b. Invite region residents to participate in a survey they provides three separate scenarios of regional values to identify which one best resonates with the public.
c. Host a vision fair where you invite the public to come together to prioritize goals.
d. Host community forums in eight subregions inviting community members to share their values for the region.

A

Hosting community forums throughout the region would allow community members to share their values early in the process. Engagement of public officials is important, but only captures one type of stakeholder. It would be best to engage the public before issuing a survey of value alternatives. Prioritizing goals would come after values have been developed.The correct answer is: Host community forums in eight subregions inviting community members to share their values for the region.

124
Q

You have been asked by the city council to provide a presentation on why the city should use a participatory process as part of their comprehensive planning effort. In your presentation you should emphasize all of the following except:Select one:a. Participation aims to insure that the perspectives of all residents are represented
b. Participation leads to greater acceptance of the resulting plan
c. It is difficult for some people to participate in the process
d. Participation leads to more interest in plan implementation

A

Explanation: While it is difficult for some people to participate in the process because of their job, family obligations, or lack of interest, it is important to emphasize the positives of participation when trying to encourage the council to engage in a participatory planning process.The correct answer is: It is difficult for some people to participate in the process

125
Q

As the consultant bidding on a Request for Proposal for a comprehensive plan, you are writing about your approach to public engagement. Which of the following is the best approach:Select one:a. You propose a focus on early and active participation early in the process encouraging two way communication.
b. You propose working closely with the city council and planning commission to ensure fair and open public hearings about the plan.
c. You propose a community-wide survey to understand the community’s values and aspirations.
d. You propose an advisory committee to oversee the planning process.

A

In a comprehensive planning process, participation early in the process and with two way communication is ideal. All of the responses would ultimately be part of a public participation plan, but the most important is early two way communication.The correct answer is: You propose a focus on early and active participation early in the process encouraging two way communication.

126
Q

You are a neighborhood planner that is responsible for presenting a draft housing plan to a 50-member neighborhood organization. Which of the following should you do?Select one:a. Host an open house.
b. Host a design charrette.
c. Ask the neighborhood organization leaders to determine the best presentation method.
d. Make a one-time group presentation.

A

The other options are all reasonable ways to engage citizens, however starting by talking to neighborhood leaders to design an ideal participation process would be best.The correct answer is: Ask the neighborhood organization leaders to determine the best presentation method.

127
Q

What factors contribute to the breakdown of public participation?a. Endless, unproductive meetings.
b. All of these can cause public participation to breakdown.
c. Opposing views.
d. Lack of trust.

A

These are all obstacles that can occur in public participation. Being aware of these can help planners to avoid and identify challenges that may arise.The correct answer is: All of these can cause public participation to breakdown.

128
Q

You are a planner who helped create a streetscape plan that includes a series of planters, street lighting, public art and other improvements. At the City Council hearing to adopt the plan, a Council member asks about your public participation process. You report that you notified and invited input from all the property owners along the corridor and within 500 feet. You also held meetings with the transit authority. The Council member expresses disappointment that you failed to engage with bus riders, shoppers at the businesses, and patrons at the entertainment establishments. What would be the best next step?Select one:a. As the City Council to move forward with approving the plan because it is supported by those who were engaged in the process.
b. Agree to table the plan adoption to the next Council meeting, then issue a press release inviting the general public to attend and comment on the plan.
c. Ask the plan to be tabled until you can expand the public participation process to include users of the corridor.
d. Report that you spoke with the business owners and that they did not report any concerns that their customers may have.

A

The next best step would be to ask the plan to be tabled until you can expand the public participation process to include users of the corridor. Planning projects should include a public participation plan and process that identifies the potentially impacted stakeholders. In this case only a portion of the stakeholder groups participated.The correct answer is: Ask the plan to be tabled until you can expand the public participation process to include users of the corridor.

129
Q

As the lead planner on a neighborhood planning process you are starting with creating a public involvement plan. What is an important question to ask when designing the participatory process?Select one:a. Do we have the time and resources to handle the engagement planned?
b. Do we have the right team?
c. Does our engagement plan meet legal requirements?
d. These are all important questions to ask

A

All of these are key questions that the planner should address as part of the engagement planning process. There may be legal requirements regarding public meetings for example.The correct answer is: These are all important questions to ask

130
Q

Which of the following is a feature of Radburn, New Jersey?Select one:a. It was originally designed for 25,000 people and it did not include mixed uses
b. It was designed by Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr., and it was planned for 20,000 residents
c. It was originally designed for 30,000 people and it called for a mix of uses
d. It was designed as a suburb of New York and construction was completed in 1920.

A

Radburn had a mix of uses and was designed by Clarence Stein and Henry Wright based on the concept of the garden city. Construction began in 1929.The correct answer is: It was originally designed for 30,000 people and it called for a mix of uses

131
Q

Why is a random sample from a population desirable?Select one:a. To get a normal distribution
b. To get close to the characteristics of a population at a minimum cost
c. To get at least 50 percent of the population
d. To get a statistically significant sample

A

Random samples are desirable because they get close to the characteristics of a population at a minimum cost.The correct answer is: To get close to the characteristics of a population at a minimum cost

132
Q

The range is a proper summary of the spread in the distribution of the following types of data : (1) nominal; (2) ordinal; (3) interval; (4) ratio:Select one:a. (1) and (2)
b. (2), (3) and (4)
c. (3) and (4)
d. all four

A

The range is only appropriate when the intervals between data points are meaningful, which is only the case for interval and ratio data.The correct answer is: (3) and (4)

133
Q

The use of Rational Planning Theory requires the following:Select one:a. Collection and analysis of data
b. Collection and analysis of data and consideration of all alternatives
c. Collection and analysis of data and selection of the best alternative
d. Collection and analysis of data, consideration of all alternatives, and selection of the best alternative

A

Rational planning follows a process of determining values, analyzing data, identifying alternatives and identifying the best alternative.The correct answer is: Collection and analysis of data, consideration of all alternatives, and selection of the best alternative

134
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of regional planning agencies?Select one:a. Serve a coordinating role across jurisdictions
b. Possess land use authority
c. Oversee separate jurisdictions
d. Hold home rule authority

A

Regional governments typically serve in a coordinating role and are not separate jurisdictions, do not hold home rule authority and do not have land use authority. Examples include MPOs, regional economic development agencies, and area councils on aging.The correct answer is: Serve a coordinating role across jurisdictions

135
Q

The City is considering several different interventions to prevent foreclosures. They want to understand the degree to which a combination of one-time grants to homeowners to catch up on mortgage payments, placing a temporary three year freeze on property taxes, and homeowner counseling are working and whether they are reducing the foreclosure rate among those they are helping. Which of the following is the best statistical technique to understand this relationship?Select one:a. T-Test
b. Regression Analysis
c. Hedonic Model
d. Z-Test

A

A regression analysis would help to understand the degree of influence of these programs.The correct answer is: Regression Analysis

136
Q

What method is used in evaluation to engage key stakeholders in assessing the impact of community engagement?a. None of these choices are correct.
b. Process evaluation
c. Outcome evaluation
d. Ripple Effect Mapping (REM)

A

Ripple Effect Mapping (REM) is when participants look back over a period of time and create a visual map of direct or indirect impacts of community engagement.The correct answer is: Ripple Effect Mapping (REM)

137
Q

As a member of the county’s green team you are responsible for evaluating energy utilization and identifying ways to reduce non-renewable energy consumption. As part of your energy audit, you realize that the city’s primary energy source is from coal. You decide to conduct a study to evaluate the feasibility of converting to:Select one:a. Nuclear Power
b. Renewable Power
c. Hydroelectric Power
d. Coal Power

A

As part of your energy audit, you decide you are going to conduct a study to evaluate the feasibility of converting to renewable power. Renewable energy is broad and can include hydroelectric, solar, wind, biomass etc.The correct answer is: Renewable Power

138
Q

As the current Development Manager for the City of Plannersville, you have just completed a pre-development meeting with a multifamily developer. The developer is proposing a 200-unit apartment complex that will be built in a row house style and will include a mix of two and three bedroom units. You have provided details on the requirements for site plan review. You let the developer know that they need to provide the following information:I. Location map
II. Parking locations
III. Storm water retention areas
IV. Rents by unit typeSelect one:a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III only
d. I, II, III, and IV

A

Rental places are not relevant to a site plan review.The correct answer is: I, II, and III only

139
Q

You are evaluating opportunities for revitalizing your commercial district. You have observed a lot of empty parking. As you study parking management in cities across the country, you have collected best practices and decide to recommend the most effective way to encourage redevelopment.Select one:a. Sending out a survey to determine who uses downtown parking
b. Encouraging local business owners to form a business association
c. Reducing the minimum parking requirement
d. Implementing ride sharing and peer-to-peer car rental

A

Reducing the required parking will allow for greater development area encouraging the redevelopment of the commercial district.The correct answer is: Reducing the minimum parking requirement

140
Q

You have a church in your community that has experienced substantial growth over the last ten years. This week representatives from the church came for an informal meeting to discuss their expansion plans.They came to you to seek advice on relevant land use regulations as they begin their search for an appropriate property. In reviewing your existing zoning ordinance you realize that the section related to religious facilities has not been updated in more than 30 years. In consultation with your Director, you make a decision to revise the ordinance. Which of the following would be the best to consult before beginning the code rewrite?Select one:a. RLUIPA
b. State Enabling Legislation
c. Other cities ordinances
d. Other planners on staff

A

The Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act passed in 2000 provides protections for the practice of region in land use contexts.The correct answer is: RLUIPA

141
Q

The First Holy Congregation of Plannersville has grown substantially over the last few years. The Pastor comes to see you to discuss relocating the church. One site is in an R-1 district and the other an R-2 district. In addition to reviewing the zoning ordinance, which of the following acts should you consider in reviewing the proposed sites?Select one:a. The Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act of 2000
b. The Religious Freedom Act of 1998
c. The Religious Freedom Restoration Act of 1993
d. All of these should be considered

A

This act prevents government from implementing land use regulations in a manner that imposes substantial burden on the religious assembly or institution, unless the government demonstrates that imposition of burden both is in furtherance of compelling government interest and is the least restrictive means of furthering that compelling governmental interest.The correct answer is: The Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act of 2000

142
Q

In the rational planning model, planners attempt to solve problems scientifically. Why is this critiqued?Select one:a. It does not consider costs in a realistic way
b. It does not consider what people actually want, and it does not evaluate alternatives
c. It does not evaluate the means against the ends
d. It does not consider what people actually want, and it is often not realistic cost-wise

A

The rational planning model (such as Banfield’s) has been critiqued for failing to consider community desires (and inputs), and for generating unrealistic alternatives in terms of expected cost. It does evaluate alternatives and means against ends.The correct answer is: It does not consider what people actually want, and it is often not realistic cost-wise

143
Q

As part of a safe routes to school assessment, a walking school bus was formed to walk to the school. As the planner participating in the walk you find that the students are required to walk along an arterial road for a portion of the route. As you walk along the arterial you find that there are 12 curb cuts and that cars frequently protrude into the crossing area. Which of the following would be the best solution to creating a safer pedestrian route.Select one:a. Improve the crosswalks by adding striping to clearly delineate the area where pedestrians cross
b. Improve the crosswalks by installing a pedestrian crossing light to stop oncoming traffic.
c. Extend the sidewalk to allow for improved pedestrian safety.
d. Reduce speed limits to slow cars

A

Because the properties are individually owned and already developed, this limits the ability to implement changes internal to the development. The best answer is improving the crosswalks by adding striping.The correct answer is: Improve the crosswalks by adding striping to clearly delineate the area where pedestrians cross

144
Q

Saul Alinsky was associated with which of the following?Select one:a. Consensus Building
b. Incremental Planning
c. Community Organizing
d. Advocacy Planning

A

Saul Alinsky was a community organizer in Chicago that promoted non-violent protest.The correct answer is: Community Organizing

145
Q

A new master-planned casino and resort development is planned in a
wetland area of the county which fronts along a coastal bay. The project will
require filling a portion of the wetland areas near some of the coastal
estuaries that will be incorporated into the development. Considerable land
will be cleared for the construction of the casino, hotel, and condominiums.
Local environmental groups have raised concerns about whether the project will
impact an endangered frog habitat. Which of the following statements is the
most accurate?

Select one:a. Under the Environmental Protection Agency guidelines that the Army Corps administers when considering whether to issue a section 404 permit, it may presume that other practical alternatives are available to the landowner unless it receives compelling proof to the contrary.
b. If the appropriate representative of the state coastal zone management program that qualifies under the federal Coastal Zone Management Act objects to the project, the Army Corps may not issue a section 404 permit.
c. The developer may be able to qualify an incidental-take permit (ITP), which requires the developer to prepare a habitat conservation plan (HCP) that minimizes and mitigates the take to the maximum extent possible. The County can protest the plan and prevent the issuance of a permit.
d. If an environmental impact statement is prepared for the project under the National Environmental Policy Act, and the study finds that adverse environmental impacts will occur, any federal permit that applies to the project must be withheld.

A

Section 404 of the Clean Water Act(CWA) establishes a program to regulate the discharge ofdredgedorfillmaterial intowaters of the United States, including wetlands.The basic premise of the program is that no discharge of dredged or fill material may be permitted if: (1) a practicable alternative exists that is less damaging to the aquatic environment or (2) the nation’s waters would be significantly degraded.The correct answer is: Under the Environmental Protection Agency guidelines that the Army Corps administers when considering whether to issue a section 404 permit, it may presume that other practical alternatives are available to the landowner unless it receives compelling proof to the contrary.

146
Q

You are a senior planner responsible for development review. In the course of your day you walk by the plotter and overhear a staff planner making inappropriate remarks of a sexual nature to the office intern. You are concerned that what you heard is sexual harassment. Which of the following is true of sexual harassment?Select one:a. It includes unwelcome sexual advances.
b. It includes verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature.
c. Acts of sexual harassment are against the law.
d. All of the above

A

Sexual harassment includes unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, or other verbal or physical harassment of a sexual nature.The correct answer is: All of the above

147
Q

The technique that allocates a projected employment expansion to smaller geographic areas is known as which of the following?Select one:a. Input-output
b. Shift-share
c. Location quotient
d. Cohort survival

A

Shift-share. The shift-share technique allocates a portion of the projected expansion to sub-regions or population centers based on the center’s present share of the employment.The correct answer is: Shift-share

148
Q

Which of the following would most likely not be required as part of a site plan review application?Select one:a. Location map for the site
b. List of endangered species in the area
c. Map including ownership information within a given radius
d. List of landscaping materials used on the site

A

The requirements for site plan review vary by jurisdiction, but typically require things like a location map, plot plan, a topographic map, building elevations, and a landscape plan (including a list of landscaping materials). Because of notification requirements in many jurisdictions, it would not be unusual for the application to require a map showing ownership information within a given radius, along with the names and addresses of all property owners and tenants within the radius.The correct answer is: List of endangered species in the area

149
Q

The City Council has asked you to develop a Smart Growth strategy for the city, as a result of a successful grant application. You form a stakeholder committee to discuss which of the following:Select one:a. Transit Oriented Development and town centers
b. Wildlife Corridors and water conservation
c. All of these should be discussed
d. Affordable housing and main street revitalization

A

All of these topics could be discussed as part of developing a smart growth strategy. Smart Growth America defines smart growth as “Smart growth is a better way to build and maintain our towns and cities. Smart growth means building urban, suburban and rural communities with housing and transportation choices near jobs, shops and schools. This approach supports local economies and protects the environment.”The correct answer is: All of these should be discussed

150
Q

Spatial justice is defined as:a. The ability to live anywhere in a city.
b. People being able to realize their potential in the communities in which they live.
c. How our cities are organized has a significant bearing on whether people have access to what they need.
d. Zoning that considers factors of gender, race, and class.

A

Spatial justice is linked to the concept of social justice; while the goal of social justice is people being able to realize their potential in the communities they live in, the interest of spatial justice is how where people live affects their access to resources. The ability to live anywhere in a city or equitable zoning practices are certainly important, but they do not define spatial justice.The correct answer is: How our cities are organized has a significant bearing on whether people have access to what they need.

151
Q

What of the following subjects were included in the 1928 Standard City Planning Enabling Act?I. Provision for adoption of a master street plan II. Provision for approval of all public improvements by the planning commissionIII. Control of private subdivision of landIV. Provision for the establishment of a regional planning commission and a regional planSelect one:a. I, II, III and IV
b. I and II only
c. III only
d. I, III and IV only

A

The Standard City Planning Enabling Act (SCPEA) was published in 1928. The SCPEA covered six subjects: 1) the organization and power of the planning commission, which was directed to prepare and adopt a “master plan”; 2) the content of the master plan for the physical development of the territory; 3) provision for adoption of a master street plan by the governing body; 4) provision for approval of all public improvements by the planning commission; 5) control of private subdivision of land; and 6) provision for the establishment of a regional planning commission and a regional planThe correct answer is: I, II, III and IV

152
Q

Which statements are true of the Standard State Zoning Enabling Act?Select one:a. It was passed in the 1920s and it was the second enabling act to be passed; the first was the Standard City Planning Enabling Act.
b. It was passed in the 1920s.
c. It was passed in the 1920s and it was developed by an advisory committee appointed by Woodrow Wilson.
d. The Act is an interesting piece of planning history but has long been replaced by other statutes.

A

The basic foundation for planning and zoning in the U.S. was laid by two standard state enabling acts published by the U.S. Department of Commerce in the 1920s: First, A Standard State Zoning Enabling Act, and second, a Standard City Planning Enabling Act. The Zoning Act was developed by an advisory committee on zoning appointed by Secretary of Commerce (and later President) Herbert Hoover in 1921. For many states, the Standard Acts, as they are known, still supply the institutional structure for planning and zoning, although some procedural and substantive components may have changed.The correct answer is: It was passed in the 1920s.

153
Q

You have been hired as a consultant for a small town to develop a comprehensive plan. The town has exclusively relied on the Census for its population estimates, but this is only available every ten years. The county planner estimates the county-wide population on an annual basis. Based on the information available in the town, which of the following would be the best method for estimating population?Select one:a. Step-down
b. Cohort survival
c. Linear
d. Symptomatic

A

The step-down method assumes that the relationship of a locality to some larger geographic entity–county or state–will prevail in the future and that population projections at the larger scale represent degrees of reliability that are not possible to achieve at the smaller scale of analysis.The correct answer is: Step-down

154
Q

Your community has seen significant change in housing values with some neighborhoods seeing double digit growth in housing values, while others have begun to see declines in values. You want to undertake a survey of residents to determine whether household income of existing residents is related to the housing value change. Which of the following would be the most appropriate sampling technique?Select one:a. Cluster Sample
b. Random
c. Bonus Sample
d. Stratified Sample

A

A stratified sample has the population divided into strata according to variables that are thought to be related to the variables of interest. Then a sample is taken from every stratum. This is intended to reduce sampling error because the strata are related to the variables of interest –– in this case, housing values. In a cluster sample, the population is divided into clusters and a sample of the clusters is taken, but only some of the clusters are taken. This tends to increase sampling error because it is possible for clusters to be similar; for example, in this case, if the clusters were neighborhoods. A random sample would randomly select addresses across the community for inclusion in the survey. This can lead to sampling error as you may not get a representative sample.The correct answer is: Stratified Sample

155
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the suburbanization that started after World War II? Select one:a. Interstate highways
b. Federal housing programs
c. Mortgage deduction
d. Telecommuting

A

Telecommuting arose well after World War II, while federal housing programs and the interstate highway system enabled suburbanizationThe correct answer is: Telecommuting

156
Q

According to Susan Fainstein, there are three elements of the just city. Which of the following are elements of a the just city?Select one:a. Democracy, Equity and Diversity
b. Economic Development, Diversity, and Sustainability
c. Diversity, Equity and Economic Development
d. Democracy, Diversity and Economic Development

A

Fainstein in her book the Just City describes the principles of democracy, diversity and equity as essential for the development and evaluation of public policy at the metropolitan level.The correct answer is: Democracy, Equity and Diversity

157
Q

The Symptomatic Approach to population calculation would not primarily rely on which of the following to estimate current population?Select one:a. Building permits
b. Latest U.S. Census
c. Voter registration
d. Telephone hookups

A

Symptomatic data are used to determine a correlation between population size and various other events, such as tax returns, voter registration, school enrollments, utility connections, telephone installations, occupancy permits issued, and motor vehicle licenses.The correct answer is: Latest U.S. Census

158
Q

Tahoe Sierra Preservation Council v. TRPA involved which of the following issues?Select one:a. Zoning
b. Signage
c. Freedom of speech
d. Taking

A

The case dealt with the question of whether a moratorium on construction of individual homes (imposed while a comprehensive plan was being completed), imposed by the Tahoe Regional Planning Agency, fell under the Takings Clause. The 2002 U.S. Supreme Court ruled that it did not constitute a taking: it was a legitimate regulation of property from private use and no compensation was required.The correct answer is: Taking

159
Q

As a planner in a residential suburb with residents who principally work in a nearby city, you conduct a citizen satisfaction survey. While the community gave high marks on infrastructure and safety, the number one complaint from the residents is that there is nothing to do in the community. You initiate a committee to begin working on a plan to address:Select one:a. Third Places
b. Parks
c. Economic Development
d. Schools

A

Third places, sometimes referred to as third spaces) are the social spaces in between where people live (the first place) and where people work (the second place). These social spaces can include parks, cafes, museums and other types of locations in which people enjoy spending time as a community.The correct answer is: Third Places

160
Q

As the Land Bank manager for a major city, you have been overwhelmed during the foreclosure crisis. You have seen numerous properties go through foreclosure. The council is pressuring you to encourage the redevelopment of the larger parcels and bring properties back into productive use. After exploring a variety of financing options and selecting the best one, you have prepared a recommendation that the council allow for the use of:Select one:a. Tax Increment Financing
b. Cap and Trade
c. Revenue Bonds
d. Capital Improvement Plan

A

You have prepared a recommendation that the Council allow for the use of Tax Increment Financing. Tax Increment Financing allows for the tax on the increased value of property in a designated area to be used for public improvements such as infrastructure. The goal is to have public investment in the district stimulate private development, thereby increasing property values providing an avenue to pay for the cost of the public improvements and overall improve the area.The correct answer is: Tax Increment Financing

161
Q

You are responsible for developing a Fair Housing Equity Assessment. During a focus group at a homeless shelter you hear from a family who describes how they had their application for a lease of a rental unit denied and that the reason the landlord gave is that he doesn’t want people like them in his complex. Which of the following would be the best response? A. Advise all focus group participants that housing discrimination is prohibited under Title VI of the Civil Rights Act and share how they can file a complaint with the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development. B. Offer to speak to the family personally afterwards. Take down their information and then make a call to the local U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development office to file a complaint and provide information on the family. C. Ask others in the focus group if they have had a similar experience. D. Explain that landlords have the right to choose who they want to live at their property and encourage the family to connect with a social service agency that assists in providing housing. Select one:a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

Answers A, B, and C could all be acceptable approaches. Answer A provides the clearest information to participants on housing discrimination. Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color or national origin in all U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development assisted programs. Any person who believes they have been a victim of housing discrimination on the basis of race, color, or national origin in a program receiving U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development assistance may file a complaint with the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development as part of Title VI. The correct answer is: A

162
Q

An area neighborhood has come to your office to present you with a petition demanding that something be done to reduce the cut-through traffic on a neighborhood street. You invite the residents to a conference room to discuss their concerns and options for reducing cut through-traffic. Which of the following would be the most effective method for reducing the number of vehicles on the street?Select one:a. Install speed tables
b. Post no cut-through traffic signs
c. Reduce the speed limit
d. Partially close the street

A

The correct answer is to partially close the street. All of the above are methods of traffic calming. A partial closure, which changes the traffic from two-way to one-way at a point in the road, would limit the traffic to locals only.The correct answer is: Partially close the street

163
Q

According to the U.S. Census, which of the following is an area that has at least 2,500 people but less than 50,000 and is described as a densely settled territory?Select one:a. Urban cluster
b. Urbanized area
c. Census place
d. Census tract

A

Urban cluster. The Census Bureau identifies two types of urban areas: Urbanized Areas and Urban Clusters. Urbanized Areas have 50,000 or more people. Urban clusters are areas containing at least 2,500 and less than 50,000 people. Census Designated Places (CDPs), which are delineated to provide data for settled populations that are not legally incorporated, have no size requirements. Census tracts generally have a population size between 1,200 and 8,000 people, with an optimum size of 4,000 people.The correct answer is: Urban cluster

164
Q

Urban design guidelines usually don’t include:Select one:a. Parking ratios
b. Landscaping
c. Building materials
d. First floor height

A

Land use and parking ratios are managed by zoning ordinances. Design guidelines regulate physical space and the elements within it, which could include building materials, landscaping, and floor height. The correct answer is: Parking ratios

165
Q

You are the director of planning responsible for facilitating a visioning process. You and the rest of the staff are working with a citizens’ committee to determine how to evaluate the outcomes of the vision. Which of the following would NOT be an example of a performance standard?Select one:a. Setting the number of new neighborhood organizations to be created to assist the city in policy evaluation
b. The adoption of an amendment to the zoning ordinance allowing transit oriented development
c. Setting a goal of improving open space
d. Setting a target number of new housing units to be built within the center of the city

A

Setting a goal of improving open space is not a performance standard.The correct answer is: Setting a goal of improving open space

166
Q

What are the results of visioning?a. A community vision statement.
b. All of these are the results of visioning.
c. Grounded discussions and decisions when devising land use criteria and resulting policies.
d. Improved communication developed within the community.

A

Visioning is a process in which a community defines the future it wants. All of these choices are important in the visioning process.The correct answer is: All of these are the results of visioning.

167
Q

Which of the following best describes a visual preference survey?a. All of these are elements of a visual preference survey.
b. It is an informal approach to gathering input in the initial stages of a project, or in trying to determine goals.
c. It is a technique that can be used to assist citizens in evaluating physical images of natural and built environments.
d. It is a structured process of public participation with the intent of coming to a consensus decision.

A

A visual preference survey asks citizens to view and evaluate a wide variety of pictures depicting houses, sites, building styles, streetscapes, etc.The correct answer is: It is a technique that can be used to assist citizens in evaluating physical images of natural and built environments.

168
Q

The city is rapidly growing and the capacity for the current water treatment plant is nearing capacity. You are on a team responsible for siting a second treatment plant. In your analysis of potential locations you consider:I. Adjacent land usesII. TopographyIII. Adjacency to a water sourceIV. Population densitySelect one:a. I, II, and III
b. All of these are correct
c. II, III, and IV
d. II and III

A

Topography, adjacent land uses and how close a water source are would all be relevant factors in siting of a water treatment plant. Population density is not a critical factor, the number of people to be served would be the relevant factor.The correct answer is: I, II, and III

169
Q

The City is planning to expand its conference center to attract national conventions. You have formed a team to evaluate how to make the neighborhood around the convention address visitor needs. Which of the following would be best to evaluate first.?Select one:a. Encourage destinations to develop discounts for convention goers
b. Identify restaurants within walking distance
c. Evaluate Wayfinding from hotels to the convention center
d. Develop Promotional Materials about the City

A

Wayfinding is critical for visitors. If they cannot find their way from the convention center to area hotels, restaurants and destinations visitors will have a less than ideal experience.The correct answer is: Evaluate Wayfinding from hotels to the convention center

170
Q

How can local governments help protect wetlands, which are primarily protected under Section 404 of the Clean Water Act?Select one:a. Through acquisition of selected wetlands
b. By educating landowners about wetlands restoration
c. By reporting violations to federal and state regulatory agencies
d. All of the above

A

Actions that affect wetlands often require state and federal agency review. All of the ways listed are valid strategies for local governments to protect wetlands.The correct answer is: All of the above