H 2021 Flashcards
III. (1) The Mayor established a citizen’s advisory group to provide recommendations to the Town
Council on the siting of new religious institutions within the rural community that includes an
agricultural reserve area. Which of the following draft recommendations would you identify to
discuss with the citizen’s advisory group as potentially being problematic under the federal Religious
Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act (RLUIPA):
(A) Exclude all religious institutions from the central business district
(B) Establish a minimum 1,000-foot buffer requirement between nonagricultural, nonresidential
uses in an agricultural district “to protect, preserve, and enhance the rural character and
lifestyle of existing low-density areas and agricultural use”
(C) Establish a conditional use approval process for certain religious institutions
(D) Require religious homeless shelters to comply with the town’s building code
The correct answer is (C)
RLUIPA cautions local governments not to “substantially burden” a religious land-use applicant’s right to
free exercise. A conditional use approval process covering only some religious institutions appears to
discriminate against those religious institutions, compared to other, non-covered, religious institutions,
and thereby likely creates a substantial burden for the covered religious institutions.
To date, the courts have generally found that the government did not substantially burden the religious
land-use applicant in three broad categories where:
1. General zoning and land-use restrictions apply to everyone.
EXAMPLE: Establishing a minimum 1,000-foot buffer requirement between nonagricultural,
nonresidential uses in an agricultural district “to protect, preserve, and enhance the rural
character and lifestyle of existing low-density areas and agricultural use”
2. Churches are excluded from some districts.
EXAMPLE: Excluding all religious institutions from the central business district
3. General review processes apply to everyone.
EXAMPLE: Requiring religious homeless shelters to comply with the town’s building code
(like everyone else)
PROBLEMATIC: Establishing a conditional use approval process for certain religious
institutions (e.g. Moslem; thereby treating them differently)
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act of
2000”, p. 586
Zoning Practice (October 2010), What Constitutes a ‘Substantial Burden’ Under RLUIPA?
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9006935/
Zoning Practice (September 2008), The Zoning of Religious Institutions in the Wake of RLUIPA
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9027708/
V. (2) A county planner (FAICP) pleads nolo contendere to a charge of perjury with the judge then
withholding adjudication, resulting in:
(A) A hearing to determine the removal of their FAICP membership
(B) No ethics issue is involved, as a plea of nolo contendere is not addressed by the code, and
adjudication was withheld by the judge in this case
(C) A duty to immediately notify the Ethics Officer by both receipted Certified and Regular First
Class Mail of being convicted of a “serious crime”
(D) No issue, as the Ethics code applies only to AICP planners
The correct answer is (C)
A FAICP member is a Fellow of the American Institute of Certified Planners and subject to the Code of
Ethics. Rule of Conduct #26 requires that “We shall not fail to immediately notify the Ethics Officer by
both receipted Certified and Regular First Class Mail if we are convicted of a “serious crime” as defined in
Section E of the Code; nor immediately following such conviction shall we represent ourselves as Certified
Planners or Members of AICP until our membership is reinstated by the AICP Ethics Committee pursuant
to the procedures in Section E of the Code.” Part E.3. of the Ethics Code directs that perjury (i.e. false
swearing under oath) is considered to be a serious crime and that “The membership of a Certified
Planner shall be revoked if the Planner has been convicted of a “serious crime”. Membership shall be
revoked whether the conviction resulted from a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, from a verdict after
trial, or otherwise. Membership shall be revoked even if the Planner is appealing a conviction, but it will
be reinstated if the conviction is overturned upon appeal.” It doesn’t matter that adjudication was
withheld by the judge; the planner still entered a plea of nolo contendere covered by the code.
SOURCES:
AICP Ethics Code - https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
AICP Ethics Report (2017) - https://www.planning.org/ethics/report/
II. (3) The Mayor asks the Planning Director to develop a planning strategy to address the
community’s Zombie subdivisions. The Planning Director will develop planning strategies to address
all of the following, except:
(A) Threats to safety and health
(B) Long-term service costs
(C) Illegal development
(D) New development planning
The correct answer is (C)
Zombie subdivisions are unfinished housing developments with at least some infrastructure in place that
were left unfinished after the housing bubble burst in 2008. Some are empty, but others are partially
inhabited, requiring the delivery of public services to remote neighborhoods that generate very little tax
revenue. Such lots can also pose health and safety issues from wildfires, flooding, erosion, water
contamination, and poor emergency access. They are prime candidates for additional planning efforts
for communities seeking to regulate unfinished subdivisions; take advantage of the already built, underutilized, infrastructure; or to support rezoning lands to limit the number of potential residential
development entitlements.
SOURCE:
Zoning Practice (May 2014), Zombie Slaying
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9006890/
https://www.lincolninst.edu/publications/articles/combating-zombie-subdivisions
I. (4) Place the following generations in order from youngest to oldest:
(A) Generation X, Silent Generation, Millennials, Baby Boomers
(B) Silent Generations, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials
(C) Millennials, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Silent Generation
(D) Millennials, Generation X, Baby Boomers, Silent Generation
The correct answer is (D)
Millennials, also known as the Millennial Generation, Echo/Shadow Boomers (i.e. because they
are the children of Baby Boomers), or Generation Y, is the demographic cohort following Generation X.
Commentators use birth dates ranging from the early 1980s to the early 2000s.
Generation X, commonly abbreviated to Gen X, is the generation born after the Western Post–
World War II baby boom. Demographers, historians and commentators use birth dates ranging from the
early 1960s to the early 1980s.
The Baby Boomers are the generation that was born following World War II, generally from
1946 up to 1964, a time that was marked by an increase in birth rates. In the 1960s, as the relatively
large numbers of young people became teenagers and young adults, they, and those around them,
created a very specific rhetoric around their cohort, and the change they were bringing about.
The Silent Generation, also known as the Lucky Few, were born from approximately 1925 until
1942. It includes some who fought in World War II, most of those who fought the Korean War and many
during the Vietnam War.
SOURCE:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generation#Western_world
I. (5) Digital billboards have become all the rage in your municipality. As Planning Director you ask
your senior staff to revise your existing sign ordinances to address:
(A) Message Control and Illumination
(B) Illumination and no net increase policies
(C) Amortization
(D) Message Control
The correct answer is (B)
Ordinances addressing message control will likely run into significant first amendment challenges, and
the billboard industry has been highly successful at restricting the use of amortization through both
state and federal legislation (e.g. the federal Highway Beautification Act, which was modified many
years ago under industry pressure to prohibit amortization and requires cash compensation for billboard
removal).
SOURCES:
Zoning Practice (April 2008), Looking Ahead: Regulating Digital Signs and Billboards
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9027703/
PAS QuickNotes (February 2009), Regulating On-Premise Signage
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007615/
APA Policy Guide (1997) – Billboard Controls
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/billboards.htm
III. (6) Riparian rights can be described as:
(A) Reasonable use of water as flows under your property
(B) Principal western water right law
(C) First in time, first in right
(D) Prior appropriation
The correct answer is (A)
RIPARIAN water rights (or simply riparian rights) is a system for allocating water among those who
possess land along its path. Under the riparian principle, all landowners whose properties adjoin a body
of water have the right to make reasonable use of it as it flows through, under, or over their properties.
These rights cannot be sold or transferred other than with the adjoining land and only in reasonable
quantities associated with that land. Riparian rights include such things as the right to access for
swimming, boating and fishing; the right to wharf out to a point of navigability; the right to erect
structures such as docks, piers, and boat lifts; the right to use the water for domestic purposes; the right
to accretions caused by water level fluctuations; the right to exclusive use if the waterbody is nonnavigable. Riparian rights also depend upon “reasonable use” as it relates to other riparian owners to
ensure that the rights of one riparian owner are weighed fairly and equitably with the rights of adjacent
riparian owners.
PRIOR APPROPRIATION water rights is the legal doctrine that the first person to take a quantity of water
from a water source for “beneficial use”—agricultural, industrial or household —has the right to
continue to use that quantity of water for that purpose (i.e. “First in time, First in Right”). Subsequent
users can take the remaining water for their own beneficial use provided that they do not impinge on
the rights of previous users. This doctrine developed in the western states of the United States. These
water rights are different from riparian water rights, which are applied in the rest of the United States.
SOURCES:
Zoning Practice (August 2009); Local Zoning and Water Rights
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9027671/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riparian_water_rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prior-appropriation_water_rights
I. (7) Real property does NOT include:
(A) Mineral Rights
(B) Light fixtures
(C) Easements
(D) Washer and dryer
The correct answer is (D)
Real property consists of all land, structures, firmly attached and integrated equipment (such as light
fixtures or a well pump), anything growing on the land, and all “interests” in the property which may be
the right to future ownership (remainder), right to occupy for a period of time (tenancy or life estate)
the right to drill for oil, the right to get the property back (a reversion) if it is no longer used for its
current purpose (such as use for a hospital, school or city hall), use of airspace (condominium) or an
easement across another’s property. Real property should be thought of as a group of rights like a
bundle of sticks which can be divided. It is distinguished from the other type of property, “personal
property”, which is made up of movable items.
SOURCES:
http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/real+property
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_property#USA
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_property
I. (8) The dissimilarity index:
(A) Measures the genetic diversity between two species used to determine whether two species
constitute one or two discrete species.
(B) Is a census-related term that measures the relative separation or integration of groups across all
neighborhoods of a city or metropolitan area
(C) Is a statistical term that measures the degree of separation between two data sets
(D) Is the inverse of the correlation coefficient
The correct answer is (B)
The index of dissimilarity is a demographic measure of the evenness with which two groups are
distributed across component geographic areas that make up a larger area. The index score can also be
interpreted as the percentage of one of the two groups included in the calculation that would have to
move to different geographic areas in order to produce a distribution that matches that of the larger
area.
For example, the dissimilarity index measures the relative separation or integration of groups across the
census tracts of all neighborhoods of a city or metropolitan area. A high value indicates that the two
groups tend to live in different tracts. D ranges from 0 to 100. A value of 60 (or above) is considered very
high. It means that 60% (or more) of the members of one group would need to move to a different tract
in order for the two groups to be equally distributed. Values of 40 or 50 are usually considered a
moderate level of segregation, and values of 30 or below are considered to be fairly low.
SOURCES:
http://www.censusscope.org/us/s40/p75000/chart_dissimilarity.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Index_of_dissimilarity
http://www.s4.brown.edu/us2010/segregation2010/Default.aspx
II. (9) This type of survey is inexpensive, but does not work well with the disabled or the poorly
educated:
(A) Telephone survey
(B) Charrette
(C) Mailed-in survey
(D) In-person survey
The correct answer is (C)
The costs for mail surveys tend to be lower than those for telephone surveys, and mail surveys are a
good strategy for obtaining feedback from people who are dissatisfied with a service or have strong
concerns. However, return rate are low and mail surveys face the possibility of bias due to these low
response rates, especially for some of the following groups:
1. Very young children
2. People with illnesses or disabilities that preclude reading or responding in writing
3. People who do not speak or understand the language(s) in which the questions are written,
who cannot write in that language, or who are marginally literate or illiterate
4. Homeless adolescents and adult
5. People in institutional settings, such as hospitals or jails
SOURCES:
The Planner’s Use of Information (2003); “Mail-in Questionnaire”, pp. 67-68.
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Surveys” pp. 51-52.
I. (10) A 5th amendment taking occurs when:
(A) Government utilizes public property for a new highway
(B) Government seizes private property for a public use
(C) A regulation is enacted to regulate private property
(D) Adverse possession is invoked
The correct answer is (B)
The Fifth Amendment provides that private property shall not be taken without just compensation.
While the Fifth Amendment by itself only originally applied to actions by the federal government, the
Fourteenth Amendment extended the Takings Clause to actions by state and local government as well.
When the government wishes to acquire property (e.g building a new road), it first attempts to buy the
land from a willing seller. If the owner refuses to sell, the government may go to court to have the court
allow the condemnation and taking of the property by eminent domain. The government must
demonstrate that the property is being acquired “for public use,” and the government must pay “just
compensation” to the property owner.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Eminent Domain, Takings, and Exactions” pp. 563-565.
APA Policy Guide (1995) – Takings
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/takings.htm
http://law2.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/conlaw/takings.htm
II. (11) The Mayor directs you, the Planning Director, to undertake a community visioning exercise. To
ensure this effort is successful, you focus on the following important aspects, EXCEPT:
(A) Ensuring that key community institutions and opinion leaders are involved with the process.
(B) Engaging elected officials and city managers to gain their support of the effort
(C) Empowering the community to design and manage the visioning effort without assistance.
(D) Planning to follow-through and implement the resulting vision and action plan
The correct answer is (C)
One of the key reasons community visioning may fail is that the process may be poorly designed or
managed or inadequately resourced. Planning staff or outside expert assistance is typically required to
assist in ensuring the effort is successful. Other typical reasons why community visioning may be unsuccessful include:
* The community is too polarized to engage in a civilized dialogue
* Key community institutions or opinion leaders are not involved in the process
* Elected officials or city managers are unsupportive of the process
* There is no follow-through in implementing the vision and action plan
SOURCE:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Community Visioning” pp. 55-56
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/visioning/
III. (12) The Housing Act of 1937 involved which of the following?
(A) Tied slum clearance to public housing
(B) Began providing federal housing subsidies
(C) Began an interest subsidy program
(D) None of the above
The correct answer is (A)
The 1937 U.S. Housing Act (Wagner-Steagall) set the stage for future government aid by appropriating
$500 million in loans for low-cost housing, and tied slum clearance to public housing. Note, however,
that it is often the 1949 Housing Act that may come up on the actual exam regarding its “providing
federal financing for slum clearance programs associated with urban renewal projects in American
cities” (compared against the 1954 Housing Act that had provisions related to slum prevention). The
best bet is to have a clear understanding of how the various Housing Acts differed – i.e. 1934 (FHA,
FSLIC), 1937, 1949, 1954 (Section 701), 1968 (Fair Housing), 1974 (CBDG).
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Federal Housing and Community Development Law” pp.
581-583.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Category:United_States_federal_housing_legislation
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Housing_Act_of_1937
http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/United_States_National_Housing_Act_of_1937#Sec._9._Loans_for_LowRent-Housing_and_Slum-Clearance_Projects
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Housing_Act_of_1949
II. (13) Impact fees:
(A) Are usually collected prior to project approval
(B) Cover all infrastructure and service costs
(C) Are subject to the dual rational nexus standard
(D) Are funds that can be used anywhere within the city
The correct answer is (C)
An impact fee is a fee that is imposed by a local government on a new or proposed development project
to pay for all or, more typically, a portion of the costs of providing specific public services to the new
development. Most often covered are impacts to roads, sewer, and public water utilities; sometimes
impacts on schools, libraries, parks and fire protection are also covered. Impacts fees should not be used
to address existing deficiencies. Impact fees are either authorized by state enabling acts or by local
government home rule. The courts have derived two major tests for impact fees—the “rational nexus”
test (i.e. impact connected to the new development) and the “rough proportionality” test (i.e. cost
roughly equal to impact caused), more commonly known together as the Dual Rational Nexus test or
standard.
SOURCES:
PAS QuickNotes (December, 2011), Development Impact Fees
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007632/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impact_fee
II. (14) The Visioning process allows for: early citizen involvement, impartial leadership, all inclusive
citizen participation, and:
(A) The savings of time and money
(B) Implementation of the comprehensive plan
(C) Heavy media involvement
(D) Ideal communities
The correct answer is (C)
Visioning is “planning at its boldest”, a participatory, collaborative, and consensus-driven planning
process that seeks to describe an agreed-upon long-range desired future for a community on the issues
that matter most to the community. Therefore, the most successful visioning efforts involve all
segments of the community. This generally involves the use of major multi-media strategies to both
encourage public participation from all interest groups, and to periodically publicize the success of
ongoing efforts and maintain forward momentum and retain continued interest and involvement in the
process.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Community Visioning” pp. 55-56
Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices (2009); pp. 216-217
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/visioning/
PAS QuickNotes (August 2008): Visioning
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007612/
III. (15) Key issues of concern in waterfront planning do NOT include addressing:
(A) Gentrification
(B) Industrial development
(C) Sprawl
(D) Heavy metals
The correct answer is (C)
The loss of working waterfronts due to residential gentrification (and the continued retention of major
industrial areas that need to be on the water, such as boat repair facilities) is a significant planning issue
for many coastal areas, as is sediment contamination by heavy metals from such industrial and marine
activities.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Waterfronts” pp. 425-429
https://www.flseagrant.org/wateraccess/working-waterfronts-2/
http://www.washington-apa.org/assets/docs/new_efforts_with_working_waterfronts_and_public_access.pdf
III. (16) A Neighborhood plan:
(A) Often proposes a program of implementation longer in duration than is proposed in the general
plan
(B) Is intended to provide a more general inclusion of goals, policies and guidelines than in the
general plan
(C) Focuses on a specific geographic area of a local jurisdiction that typically includes substantial
residential development, associated commercial uses, and institutional services such as
recreation and education
(D) Has the sole sponsors of neighborhood plans being government and the citizens of the
neighborhoods affected.
The correct answer is (C)
The neighborhood plan is intended to provide more detailed goals, policies, and guidelines than those in
the general plan. The sponsors of neighborhood plans include cities, community development
organizations, foundations and private developers.
SOURCE:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Neighborhood Plans” pp. 16-17.
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/neighborhoods/
I. (17) Advocacy Planning is associated closely with Paul Davidoff. Which of the following was the
significant effect of the advocacy movement?
(A) Assisted single women with children find employment.
(B) Caused social planning to move from back room negotiations into the public forum.
(C) Reduced the need for more environmental documentation.
(D) Created economic stability.
The correct answer is (B)
The term advocacy planning was coined by Paul Davidoff in his famous 1965 article “Advocacy and
Pluralism in Planning”. Davidoff understood that planning had evolved in the United States with support
from governmental and development interests. This left under-represented low income and minority
groups vulnerable to the interests of those larger and more powerful public institutions and private
business interest, especially in the areas of access to the expertise, skills and information needed to
understand the planning decisions that affected them. He argued that planners should actively work
with these disadvantaged groups to help with the development of plans which incorporated and
addressed their social and economic needs. This open advocacy helped result in both making planning
more accessible to groups under-represented in planning, but also helped bring more transparency to
the planning process.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Advocacy and Equity Planning” pp. 82-83.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advocacy_planning
II. (18) Which of the following represents the order of the basic rezoning process according to the
Standard State Zoning Enabling Act?
I. Plan Commission recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
II. Notice is given of the governing body public hearing
III. The governing body hearing occurs
IV. The governing body takes action
(A) II, I, III, IV
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) III, I, II, IV
(D) IV, II, I, III
The correct answer is (B)
The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act states the following as the basic rezoning process:
1. Submittal of the zoning application
2. Application review by staff
3. Notice is given of the planning commission public hearing
4. The staff report is created
5. The planning commission hearing
6. The planning commission recommendation
7. The recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
8. Notice given of the governing body public hearing
9. The governing body hearing occurs
10. The governing body decision
SOURCE:
https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/enablingacts/
II. (19) Carrying Capacity is a concept associated with:
(A) Andres Duany
(B) Ebenezer Howard
(C) Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr.
(D) Ian McHarg
The correct answer is (D)
Ian L. McHarg was a landscape architect and a renowned writer on regional planning using natural
systems. He was the founder of the department of landscape architecture at the University of
Pennsylvania in the United States. His 1969 book Design with Nature pioneered the concept of
ecological planning. The book was essentially a step-by-step graphic overlay style instruction manual
about how to assess a region (big or small), in physical planning terms, and to determine appropriate
land uses that would endure and have long term sustainability (i.e. “intrinsic suitability”). This land use
suitability approach laid the basis for both GIS layering and the notion of carrying capacity, which is
basically the maximum population size that an environment or location can sustain indefinitely, without
adverse environmental changes.
SOURCES:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3863853/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ian_McHarg
The Environmental Planning Handbook (2014); “How Humans fit into Ecosystems”; pp. 70-73.
III. (20) Which of the following is NOT true about a Metropolitan Planning Organization (MPO)?
(A) They are federally mandated for urbanized areas with a population over 250,000.
(B) They channel federal funds for transportation projects.
(C) They maintain a long-range transportation plan for a region.
(D) Their decision-making committees can be comprised of a mix of local, state, and federal
representatives.
The correct answer is (A)
MPOs are federally mandated for urbanized areas with a population over 50,000.
SOURCES:
Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices (2009); pp. 180-181
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Metropolitan Planning Organizations” p. 102.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metropolitan_planning_organization
I. (21) Which of the following happened in 1909?
(A) The San Francisco Plan is completed by Burnham
(B) Yellowstone Park was designated
(C) The first National Conference on City Planning
(D) All of the above
The correct answer is (C)
APA traces its roots back to 1909 and the First National Conference on City Planning that was held in
Washington, D.C., organized by Benjamin Marsh and attended by professionals such as Frederick Law
Olmsted, Jr., John Nolan, Lawrence Veiller, and Jane Addams.
SOURCE:
https://www.planning.org/history/
I. (22) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co., 272 U.S. 365 (1926) dealt with which of the following
issues?
(A) Adult Uses
(B) Exactions
(C) Taking
(D) Sign Ordinance
The correct answer is (C)
Ambler Realty sued the village, arguing that the zoning ordinance had substantially reduced the value of
the land by limiting its use, amounting to a deprivation of Ambler’s liberty and property without due
process (i.e., an unconstitutional “taking”).
SOURCES:
https://planning-org-uploaded-media.s3.amazonaws.com/document/PLD-Land-Use-Law-Cases-2019.pdf
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Village_of_Euclid_v._Ambler_Realty_Co.
III. (23) According to Richard Florida, the types of urban areas that attract the “Creative Class” do NOT
require those with:
(A) Low taxes
(B) A highly talented/educated/skilled population
(C) A diverse community
(D) Technological infrastructure necessary to fuel an entrepreneurial culture
The correct answer is (A)
In Cities and the Creative Class (2004), Richard Florida devotes several chapters to discussion of the
three main prerequisites of creative cities (though there are many additional qualities which distinguish
creative magnets). For a city to attract the Creative Class, he argues, it must possess “the three ‘T’s”:
Talent (a highly talented/educated/skilled population), Tolerance (a diverse community, which has a
‘live and let live’ ethos), and Technology (the technological infrastructure necessary to fuel an
entrepreneurial culture). In Rise of the Creative Class, Florida argues that members of the Creative Class
value meritocracy, diversity and individuality, and look for these characteristics when they relocate
(2002).
SOURCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creative_class
https://www.planning.org/planning/2008/jun/research.htm
PAS MEMO (October, 2016), Creative Placemaking
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9115238/
I. (24) Which of the following groups of planning philosophies came before the City Humane
Movement?
(A) City Functional, City Efficient, City Beautiful and Garden City
(B) Garden City, Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, City Functional
(C) Public Health, Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, Garden City
(D) Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, Public Health, City Functional
The correct answer is (C)
The Public Health Movement developed in the late 1800s from a concern for public health and workers’
safety. This movement focused on the establishment of industrial safety requirements, maximum work
hours, minimum housing standards, public recreation amenities, and ensuring the provision of light and
air in cities.
The Garden City Movement began with Ebenezer Howard’s classic work, Tomorrow: A
Peaceful Path to Real Reform, which was published in 1898, later republished in 1902, Garden Cities of
Tomorrow. A reaction to industrialization and poor living conditions in cities, this movement was
predicated on the inherent immorality of the city, a return to the country village, and the sacredness of
nature. The Garden City Movement proposed public greenbelts and agricultural areas surrounding selfsupporting, satellite communities ringing a central garden city with maximum populations to prevent
sprawl.
Emphasizing design and aesthetics, the City Beautiful Movement emerged from the 1893 Columbian
Exposition in Chicago. The Exposition provided a prominent American example of a great group of
buildings designed in relation to each other and in relation to open spaces. Contributions of the
movement included: a revival of city planning and its establishment as a permanent part of local
government, an emphasis on physical site planning, the professional consultant role, and the
establishment of quasi-independent planning commissions composed of citizens.
The City Humane Movement occurred during the 1930’s and is associated with the Great Depression
and concentrated on social and economic issues and ways of alleviating the problems of unemployment,
poverty, and urban plight.
The City Functional Movement (included in the other three answers) developed during the 1940’s with
the growth of the military and renewed industrialization. This movement emphasized functionalism and
administrative efficiency, and contributed to the federal government’s increased involvement in local
planning and the passage of Section 701 of the Housing Act in 1954. The 701 program subsidized
thousands of general plans and, once expanded, special projects for cities, counties, regional councils of
government, and states until 1981.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Planning Movements” pp. 68-96.
http://www.cityofbenson.com/vertical/sites/%7BF59197D1-30ED-49AE-8751-
2EBA89C105BA%7D/uploads/pzhandbook_email.pdf (Chap. 2, p.5)
http://www.csun.edu/~schoi/urbs310_planninghistory_wk6.pdf
II. (25) The three C’s of a good staff report are:
(A) Consistency, Compatibility, Comprehensive
(B) Compliance, Consistency, Compatibility
(C) Compliance, Consistency, Comprehensive
(D) Comprehensive, Consistency, Compatibility
The correct answer is (B)
Staff Report findings are typically related to the concepts of compliance, consistency, and compatibility,
which are often the factors considered should the case be litigated:
* Compliance. The report should identify which codes the application is subject to and, generally,
how it complies. It should specify sections of the code with which the project does not comply
and note whether there are any waivers, alternatives, or conditions to be considered. The report
should relay how the application complies with environmental, utility, traffic, and other
regulations in addition to zoning.
* Consistency. The staff report should describe not only the land-use map classification but
whether the proposed project is consistent with the goals and policies of the adopted plan.
Consistency in applying codes is also important to assure equal protection. The report should
identify prior decisions, if any, and indicate why this recommendation is similar (or why it is not).
* Compatibility. This is probably the most subjective and debated of the parameters. The staff
report should evaluate the project’s compatibility with adjacent properties. Is the use
compatible with those around it? Is the height and scale of the building compatible with those
adjacent? Are the site improvements (e.g., parking) and operational features (e.g., hours of
operation) in character with the surrounding uses?
SOURCE:
PAS QuickNotes (February 2011), Getting the Most out of Staff Reports
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007627/
II. (26) Which of the following is an Objective:
(A) Train the Chapter’s planners to pass the AICP Exam
(B) Develop a comprehensive Florida Chapter AICP Exam Prep training manual
(C) Increase the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate above the national average by 2021.
(D) Annually monitor the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate by Section.
The correct answer is (C)
Goals provide a long term result, or the long-term end toward which programs or activities are
ultimately directed. Objectives are more specific, measurable statements of desired or intermediate
ends that are achievable and mark progress toward a goal. Policies are courses of action that indicate
how the goals and objectives of a plan should be realized. Measures are metrics used to assess progress
toward meeting an objective, which can consist of an output or an outcome. Above, “A” is a goal. “B” is
a policy, “C” is an Objective, and “D” is a measure.
SOURCE:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Goals, Objectives, and Assumptions” pp. 4-5.
https://www.uwsp.edu/cnrap/clue/Documents/Comprehensive_Planning/Land_Use_Resource_Guide_Chapter_5.pdf
III. (27) The County Administrator tells you, the Planning Director, that he is concerned about the
potential environmental justice issues associated with the new proposed landfill site in a residential
area. Among the planning issues you direct your staff to investigate are:
I. Whether Hispanics will experience a disproportionate environmental impact
II. Public participation
III. Housing gentrification
IV. Health risk assessment
(A) I, II
(B) I, II, IV
(C) I only
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (B)
Realize the siting of a new landfill is highly unlikely to generate housing gentrification issues. EPA defines
environmental justice (EJ) as the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all people regardless of
race, color, national origin, or income with respect to the development, implementation, and
enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies. Other definitions include equitable
distribution of environmental risks and benefits; fair and meaningful participation in environmental
decision-making; recognition of community ways of life, local knowledge, and cultural difference; and
the capability of communities and individuals to function and flourish in society. Although its origins go
back much earlier, in 1994, President Clinton issued Executive Order 12898, “Federal Actions to Address
Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations.” Executive Order 12898
requires that achieving EJ must be part of each federal agency’s mission and to identify and address the
disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their actions on minority
and low-income populations.
SOURCE:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Environmental Justice” pp. 93-94.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Environmental_justice
https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-executive-order-12898-federal-actions-address-environmental-justice
II. (28) Which of the following is the most appropriate instrument for waiving the frontage
requirements for a lot located on an isolated hillside?
(A) variance
(B) special permit
(C) cluster zoning
(D) rezoning
The correct answer is (A)
A variance would be appropriate in this case, provided the hillside represented a severe topographic
hardship, precluding the strict application of the ordinance. There are two broad categories of zoning
variances: area variances and use variances. Area variances permit deviations from zoning regulations
that govern the physical development of a property, such as minimum setbacks, maximum height, or
maximum lot coverage due to a hardship created by the property (e.g. hillside). Use variances permit a
use of property that would otherwise be prohibited by that property’s zoning designation, although
some jurisdictions do not allow this type of variance.
SOURCES:
PAS QuickNotes (June 2012), Zoning Ordinance Variances
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007635/
Zoning Practice (June 2012), Avoiding Idiotic Variances
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9006914/
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/variances/
I. (29) Each of the following is a Smart Growth goal except:
(A) Saving our most valuable remaining natural resources
(B) Supporting existing communities and neighborhoods
(C) Controlling population growth
(D) Saving taxpayer dollars by not building the infrastructure required to support sprawl
The correct answer is (C)
Smart growth is not about controlling or stopping growth. It is about encouraging development patterns
that simultaneously promote environmental protection and economic development opportunities
within a framework of neo-traditional design principles. Strategies include land use planning, mixed-use
development, measures to increase public mass transit use, and the preservation of natural and
agricultural lands.
Core principles of Smart Growth include:
A. Efficient use of land and infrastructure
B. Creation and/or enhancement of economic value
C. A greater mix of uses and housing choices
D. Neighborhoods and communities focused around human-scale, mixed-use centers
E. A balanced, multi-modal transportation system providing increased transportation choice
F. Conservation and enhancement of environmental and cultural resources
G. Preservation or creation of a sense of place
H. Increased citizen participation in all aspects of the planning process and at every level of
government
I. Vibrant center city life
J. Vital small towns and rural areas
K. A multi-disciplinary and inclusionary process to accomplish smart growth
L. Planning processes and regulations at multiple levels that promote diversity and equity
M. Regional view of community, economy and ecological sustainability
N. Recognition that institutions, governments, businesses and individuals require a concept of
cooperation to support smart growth
O. Local, state, and federal policies and programs that support urban investment, compact
development and land conservation
P. Well defined community edges, such as agricultural greenbelts, wildlife corridors or greenways
permanently preserved as farmland or open space.
SOURCES:
APA Policy Guide (2012) – Smart Growth
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/smartgrowth.htm
Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices (2009); “Smart Growth in brief” pp. 117-122
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/
II. (30) What type of regulation includes impact fees, growth management controls, and land
recordation?
(A) Subdivision Regulation
(B) Zoning
(C) Land Use
(D) Comprehensive Planning
The correct answer is (A)
Subdivision regulations control and record the process of subdividing land. A result of subdivision
regulations is the preservation of land records by platting and mapping. Another result is that
developers design and construct developments properly. They include: 1) land recordation, 2) local
design and construction standards for improvements and lots, 3) dedication requirements in the form of
land or cash-in-lieu, 4) use of developer’s impact fees, 5) the institution of growth management controls.
SOURCE:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Subdivision Regulations” pp. 597-598.
http://plannersweb.com/1992/07/an-introduction-to-subdivision-regulations/
SCPEA - https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/enablingacts/
IV. (31) Your small town needs to undertake an extensive citizen involvement process to help develop
a vision for the community and lacks the needed in-house expertise to know how to effectively
accomplish this. In your role as the Planning Director, you determine that the best option available is:
(A) Define required services and carry out a two-step RFQ-RFP process
(B) Seek advice from the regional planning council
(C) Assign your best senior planner to educate himself in citizen involvement techniques
(D) Ask your local citizen groups for advice
The best answer is (A)
Although the regional planning council may be able to provide “advice” on how to effectively accomplish
a visioning process, it is often best to augment staff expertise through the hiring of expert consultants
where detailed technical or subject matter knowledge on a specific planning process is required.
Consultants are typically skilled at facilitating the extensive public outreach and involvement required in
major planning projects. Outside experts can also bring credibility and a sense of objectivity to planning
processes.
SOURCES:
PAS QuickNotes (April 2012): Hiring a Consultant: RFQs and RFPs
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007634/
PAS Report #573 (2013); Working with Planning Consultants
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026897/
II. (32) Which of the following is true about the planning process in most jurisdictions?
(A) The planning office and staff have final authority on planning decisions
(B) The governing body writes the zoning ordinances
(C) Planners establish policies first and then determine goals and objectives
(D) A body of appointed citizens, such as a planning commission, oversees comprehensive plans
The correct answer is (D)
Planning staff make recommendations but the governing body has final authority. Planning staff or hired
consultants usually write the zoning ordinances and establish goals and objectives before determining
policies. Planning staff generally report to an appointed body that acts as a balance to short term
elected officials.
SOURCES:
PAS Report (2016), Local Planning Agency Management
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9101254/
SSZEA - https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/enablingacts/
I. (33) Clarence Stein is best known for his work on which topic?
(A) The New York State thruway
(B) The Catskill preserve
(C) The Greenbelt Towns
(D) The Rural Electrification Administration
The correct answer is (C)
Stein was a major proponent of the Garden City movement in the United States, and involved in the
1930’s development of the “Greenbelt towns” under the rural Resettlement Administration, including
Greenbelt, Maryland, Greendale, Wisconsin and Greenhills, Ohio. Earlier in 1923, Stein and Henry
Wright collaborated on the plan for Sunnyside Gardens, a neighborhood of the New York City borough
of Queens that took the garden city ideas of Sir Ebenezer Howard as a model. Also, in 1929, Stein and
Wright collaborated with Kenneth Weinberger on the plan for the Radburn community in Fair Lawn,
New Jersey, roughly double the area of Sunnyside. The vision for Radburn was of an integrated selfsustaining community, surrounded by greenbelts, specialized automotive thoroughfares (main linking
roads, serviced lanes for direct access to buildings, and express highways), and a complete separation of
auto and pedestrian traffic. These thoroughfares were called “superblocks”.
SOURCES:
https://www.planning.org/planning/2008/nov/over70.htm
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clarence_Stein
https://www.greenbeltonline.org/radburn-nj-garden-city-model-greenbelt/
https://www.greenbeltmuseum.org/copy-of-new-deal-era-housing-projec
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Garden Cities” pp. 72-73.
III. (34) The Planning Director of your large, metropolitan city desires to establish some regulations to
address the burgeoning public street markets and vendors that are increasingly appearing on vacant
spaces throughout the city. Among the many relevant issues the senior planner in charge of drafting
the regulations may decide to address is/are:
I. Restrictions on vending and market locations
II. Capping the total city number of allowed vendors
III. Restrictions/prohibitions on certain foods for sale
IV. Fees and Taxes
(A) I
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
Communities regulate markets and street merchants through zoning and business licensing or through
standards of behavior on public property in eight key areas:
1. Vending locations – e.g. sidewalk vending or street markets
2. Exemptions – e.g. obtaining waivers from neighboring businesses
3. Permit caps – e.g. vending permit caps
4. Vending area – e.g. brightline versus flexible locational standards
5. Space allocation – e.g. space allocation by governmental vs. designated authority
6. Restrictions on certain goods – e.g. food type restrictions (fruit/vegetable only) near schools
7. Cart or display design – e.g. cart size, less often, cart appearance
8. Fees and taxes – e.g. license, permit costs (per sq. foot vs. flat fee)
SOURCE:
Zoning Practice (February 2009), Zoning for Public Markets and Street Vendors
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9027458/
https://fyi.extension.wisc.edu/downtowneconomics/files/2012/07/Public-Markets.pdf
https://scholarship.law.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1073&context=jchlp
III. (35) This question focuses on techniques to address articulated goals and policies of a suburban
town of 35,000 inhabitants. Which program is likely to be used to address the goal of increasing
affordable housing?
(A) Capital Improvement Program
(B) Inclusionary housing program
(C) Impact fee program
(D) Growth phasing program
The correct answer is (B)
An inclusionary housing program will likely address the community’s affordable housing needs.
Inclusionary housing allows for mixed income communities that provide people with options in housing
type as individual lifestyles and incomes change over time. Some jurisdictions use inclusionary zoning
ordinances that require developers to produce a certain number of affordable units in order to be
approved, frequently mandating 10 to 30 percent of the new residential units to be affordable to lowincome residents. Other options may be housing payments in-lieu of fees or the providing of off-site
affordable housing units. Another approach can be to create a housing trust fund for city-administered
affordable housing programs.
SOURCES:
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/inclusionaryhousing/
PAS QuickNotes (December 2006), Inclusionary Housing
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007604/
V. (36) You are a Planner for Wainfleet, New York, and you are attending the Mayor’s Annual
Luncheon on the State of the City and you bump into a private developer that you went to college
with. She tells you about an exciting retail development and movie theater complex that she wants to
build in Wainfleet. She offers you the opportunity to invest in the development. Which is the best
option below for you to follow knowing that the development will come before your department for
review?
(A) You should put the investment in your husband’s name and invest in the development.
(B) You should disclose your investment with your boss, the director, and once they give their
approval you should invest.
(C) Invest in the development and when it comes before your department for review, exclude
yourself from dealing with the project and have your staff make the recommendations for or
against the development.
(D) Although it seems like an exciting opportunity you should decline the opportunity.
The correct answer is (D)
According to the APA Code of Ethics the best thing to do in this situation is to decline the opportunity
and say “no” to investing in this development. RULE OF CONDUCT #5 states: ”We shall not, as public
officials or employees, accept from anyone other than our public employer any compensation,
commission, rebate, or other advantage that may be perceived as related to our public office or
employment.” One of the main thoughts that the APA is trying to make very clear to planners is to stay
out of potentially unfavorable situations that could be construed as being unethical. In answer “A”, you
should remember that, as in this example, your husband’s financial interests are also your own. In
answer “B”, your Director or boss should not give you permission to invest in this development. In
answer “C”, your staff may recommend the development or show some sort of favoritism because they
know that you are involved in its success or failure. Answer “D”, is the best of the four possible actions.
SOURCES:
AICP Ethics Code - https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
III. (37) Which one of the following is NOT a feature of farmland protection or right-to-farm
legislation?
(A) The right of a farmer with land in an agricultural district to be protected from nuisance suits
brought by neighboring property owners or by units of government, if the farm is not
negligently operated.
(B) The obligation of a farmer with land in an agricultural district to pay property taxes on the land
based on full market value.
(C) The requirement that rural lands in an agricultural district remain large-lot zoned.
(D) Limitations on the ability of landowners to subdivide large tracts of land.
The correct answer is (B)
Farmland protection refers to primarily state and local government programs designed to limit the
conversion of agricultural land into other land uses. The protection of agricultural lands is critical due to
the important roles that agricultural plays economically, environmentally, and socially. Typical strategies
focus on either protecting farmland from conversion to non-farm uses by prohibiting or restricting
development on farmland, or permanently protecting those lands, or minimizing conflicts between
existing agricultural operations and new development. Right-to-farm laws are designed to accomplish
one or both of the following objectives: (1) to strengthen the legal position of farmers when subsequent
neighbors sue them for private nuisance (i.e. “coming to the nuisance”); and (2) to protect farmers from
anti-nuisance ordinances and unreasonable controls on farming operations.
SOURCES:
PAS QuickNotes (February 2012); The Farmland Protection Toolbox
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007633/
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/farmlandprotection/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Farmland_preservation
IV. (38) A planner is preparing a staff report for a proposed comprehensive plan amendment to allow
a multiple family affordable housing project within the downtown area. There has been a business
community protest over the proposed change. The City Council is seeking compelling reasons to
disapprove the amendment to prevent further objections from some of the upscale downtown
merchants. Understanding all this, the planner decides to:
(A) Recommend approval based on the right of the property owner to develop his land as he sees
fit.
(B) Recommend denial of the project to protect the Council from further public outcry, based upon
the planning theory that mixing such use would constitute bad planning.
(C) Include in the staff report a discussion about the need for affordable housing in the downtown
area and offer a recommendation for approval.
(D) Recommend a series of alternative choices and let the Council make the final decision.
The correct answer is (C).
The general, the multiple purposes of a good staff report are:
1. To factually describe the issue
2. To objectively describe why the issue is before the board or commission
3. To anticipate and answer questions likely to be asked at the hearing
4. To provide a professional recommendation
5. To inform officials and stakeholders on the issues of compliance, consistency, and compatibility
with adopted plans and applicable regulations
6. To build a public record and a legally defensible foundation—should litigation arise.
SOURCE:
PAS QuickNotes (February 2011); Getting the Most out of Staff Reports
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007627/
III. (39) Which U.S. housing act or legislation has been most successful at encouraging home
ownership?
(A) Hope VI
(B) HOME
(C) Mortgage interest tax deduction
(D) LIHTC
The correct answer is (C)
The home mortgage interest deduction allows taxpayers who own their homes to reduce their taxable
income by the amount of interest paid on the loan which is secured by their principal residence.
Approximately half of all homeowners (~ 75 million) use this deduction, and the standard justification
for the deduction is that it gives an incentive for home ownership. It has, however, been criticized for
providing few benefits to low-income families.
SOURCES:
https://www.planning.org/planning/2014/dec/viewpoint.htm
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Home_mortgage_interest_deduction
http://www.investopedia.com/articles/pf/06/mortinttaxdeduct.asp
II. (40) The original Oregon Model is framed by the following four questions of the steps to undertake
in the Visioning process, in the following order (from first to last):
(A) Where Do We Want to Be? How Do We Get There? Where Are We Now? Where Are We Going?
(B) Where Are We Now? Where Are We Going? How Do We Get There? Where Do We Want to Be?
(C) How Do We Get There? Where Do We Want to Be? Where Are We Going? Where Are We Now?
(D) Where Are We Now? Where Are We Going? Where Do We Want to Be? How Do We Get There?
The correct answer is (D)
Oregon was one of the first places in the U.S. to undergo a proliferation of community-based visioning,
and the Oregon Model represents a comprehensive approach to visioning that has since gained
widespread acceptance around the country. The model is framed by four simple questions:
1. Where are we now?
2. Where are we going?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
Some communities add a fifth step promoting action plan implementation (called the “New”
Oregon Model):
5. Are we getting there?
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Community Visioning”, pp. 55-56
https://nj.gov/state/planning/assets/docs/pe-docs/pe-doc-community-visioning-standards.pdf
I. (41) Who is considered the Father of Regional Planning?
(A) Daniel Burnham
(B) Patrick Geddes
(C) Paul Davidoff
(D) Kevin Lynch
The correct answer is (B)
Patrick Geddes (1854-1932), a sociologist by training, is known as the Father of Regional Planning. In his
1915 book, Cities in Evolution: An introduction to Town Planning Movement and the Study of Civics,
Patrick Geddes set out his idea of the city as an instrument of evolution, and began to formulate his
broader philosophy of regional planning, including the idea of ‘conurbations’, ever-expanding urban
communities that could turn the east coast of America into one vast city stretching for hundreds of
miles. His ideas were brought to the United States by Lewis Mumford, an American writer who was a
leading member of the Regional Planning Association of America along with Clarence Stein, Henry
Wright and others. Mumford popularized Geddes’s theories, promoting the idea that people, industry
and land were an integrated network that needed to be planned for together.
OTHER PEOPLE: Daniel Burnham was an architect and urban planner instrumental in the development of
the skyscraper and best known for his management of the World’s Columbian Exposition in 1893
(birthing the “City Beautiful” planning movement) and for the influential 1909 “Plan for Chicago”, the
first metropolitan regional plan in the country. Paul Davidoff is best known for explaining advocacy
planning, and wrote A Choice Theory of Planning with Thomas Reiner in 1962. Kevin Lynch wrote Image
of the City in 1960 that discusses how observers take in information about a city, and use it to make
mental maps of the city (i.e. Paths, Edges, Districts, Nodes, Landmarks).
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Regionalism, 1910-1940”, pp. 77-78
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Patrick_Geddes
II. (42) An area intended for a future shopping district would be depicted as what color on a
Comprehensive Plan Land Use Map?
(A) Yellow
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Purple
The correct answer is (C)
Land use maps generally use different colors to represent different land use functions. Typical colors for
land uses (by function) include:
* Yellows for residential uses such as single-family and town houses.
* Reds for retail and commercial uses
* Purples for industrial uses
* Blues for institutional and public facilities
* Greens for recreational uses
* Grays for industrial utilities
SOURCES:
APA Knowledge Center - https://planning-org-uploaded-media.s3.amazonaws.com/document/LBCS.pdf
https://www.planning.org/lbcs/standards/activity/
III. (43) The Johnson Air Force base in Levy County is being increasingly impacted by new surrounding
development that is quickly conflicting with the military base’s primary training mission, and creating
potential safety issues. The County, in conjunction with the Air Force Base Commander, decides to
immediately begin planning to address base compatibility issues, and undertakes those efforts by
utilizing the following tools in the following order (from first to last):
(A) AICUZ/JLUS, Military Overlay adoption, Moratorium, Amortization
(B) Amortization, Moratorium, AICUZ/JLUS, Military Overlay adoption
(C) Moratorium, AICUZ/JLUS, Military Overlay adoption, Amortization
(D) Moratorium, Amortization, AICUZ/JLUS, Military Overlay adoption
The correct answer is (C)
This is a question about immediateness of action and order of action. In the military land-use
compatibility context, a moratorium might likely be used to serve a valid public purpose (i.e. planning in
progress) because it restricts development while local government prepares a permanent plan to
address public safety and military readiness—both vital public interests. The planning could happen
through either the airfield oriented Air Installation Compatible Use Zone (AICUZ) process, or a Joint Land
Use Study (JLUS) involving the military base, local government, and the public. For example, a
comprehensive plan’s land-use element might address the issue of compatible use by calling for
implementation of the AICUZ study or JLUS, which might be codified through the adoption of a Military
overlay addressing the height, noise, and accident potential zones contained in the base’s AICUZ study,
and imposing specific land-use regulations in addition to a property’s underlying zoning designation.
Finally, a local government might use amortization to provide a non-conforming use property owner a
reasonable time to phase out nonconforming uses and structures that interfere with military operations,
but once that time has expired, the nonconformity would have to be terminated.
SOURCE:
Zoning Practice (May 2011); Compatibility: Land-Use Compatibility Near Military Bases
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9006928/
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Safety Considerations at Military Airports”, p. 290.
V. (44) The planning director is asked to play in a charity golf tournament sponsored by the local
Chamber of Commerce. The director should:
(A) Decline the invitation
(B) Accept the invitation
(C) Ask the mayor for permission to play
(D) Discuss the situation with the AICP Ethics officer
The correct answer is (B)
It is understood that playing in a public charity event involves making a donation to the charity (as
opposed to problematically being offered a free round of golf). As many local business leaders will be at
this public event, it does not represent a conflict of interest (as opposed to accepting a private invitation
to play a free round of golf from one specific business leader, which would represent a conflict of
interest).
SOURCE:
AICP Ethics Code - https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
II. (45) A non-sampling error can be increased by:
(A) Lowering the confidence interval
(B) Increasing the sample size
(C) Adding leading questions
(D) Decreasing the sample size
The correct answer is (C)
The inaccuracy caused in the estimates of population parameters attributed to bias (non-sampling error)
is more systematic than sampling error, which is the natural consequence arising out of the fact that
sample size is much less than the population size. Sampling error can therefore be minimized by
increasing the size of the sample, but non-sampling error can’t. Bias is a term often confused with
sampling error. Bias is the systematic error resulting in deviation in estimates of population parameters
caused by faulty design and/or deficient execution of sampling process. Bias is not a result of sample
size and hence increasing the sample size will not reduce bias in estimates. The bias caused in surveys
due to asking leading questions is often intended. The questions for the survey might be framed in a
way to lead to the responses desired by the researcher. There might be more options provided in favor
of desired responses than provided for opposite viewpoints.
SOURCES:
The Planner’s Use of Information (2003); “Selecting the Population to be Surveyed”, pp. 59-65.
https://www.abs.gov.au/websitedbs/a3121120.nsf/home/statistical+language+-+types+of+error
https://surveytown.com/10-examples-of-biased-survey-questions/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bias_(statistics)
I. (46) According to Aristotle, the proper design of Greek cities should:
(A) Emphasize aesthetics, to promote beauty
(B) Be functionally situated to shade from summer heat and provide access to winter sun
(C) Preserve the haphazard arrangement of earlier times to make it more difficult for invaders to
fight their way in
(D) Incorporate a grid pattern to encourage commerce and ease of movement
The correct answer is (C)
Aristotle was a critic of Hippodamus’ idea of straight streets and a gridded layout. He argued that, while
a town planned in a grid is certainly more visually appealing than a haphazardly planned urban area, the
latter is better for deterring invaders. If a city is infiltrated, the trespassers would easily be able to
navigate through the streets if they are planned out in an orderly way. However, poorly planned streets
are much easier to get lost in, and intruders not familiar with the city would be at a loss in such a place.
Basically, orderly planning is good for beauty, haphazard planning (or lack thereof) is better for security.
SOURCES:
https://desktopexplorer.wordpress.com/tag/hippodamus-of-miletus/
http://www.academia.edu/4378826/Centenary_Paper_Plan_and_constitution_Aristotle_s_Hippodam_t
owards_an_ostensive_definition_of_spatial_planning_2009
https://www.planning.org/planning/2014/feb/thecommissioner.htm
IV. (47) A planning director appointed by a mayor (as opposed to one hired by a City Manager):
(A) The planner appointed by the mayor will be the best planner available
(B) The planner appointed by the mayor serves at the pleasure of the mayor
(C) The planner appointed by the mayor will be someone who supported the mayor politically
(D) The planner appointed by the mayor may be fired by the City Manager
The best answer is (B)
Planning Directors hired by a Council, Commission or Mayor typically report directly to the Council,
Commission or Mayor hiring them, and serve “at will”.
SOURCE:
PAS Report #582 (2016); Local Planning Agency Management
V. (48) You are a newly hired planner involved in the process of preparing a new recreation plan for
your community. Your supervisor, an AICP planner, learns that the City Council is anxious to take
action on a recreation plan, and therefore, you are instructed to prepare the plan without scheduling
any time for public participation or public comment. Suppose you learn that there is a regulation in
place and that this appears to be a violation of the regulation. What might you do next?
(A) Discuss the situation with your Supervisor.
(B) Schedule a public workshop to discuss the recreation plan.
(C) Report the situation to the Planning Director.
(D) File a charge of misconduct with AICP.
The correct answer is (A)
When you first begin to believe this may be an issue, discuss it further with your director or supervisor
before proceeding. If you learn that the potential violation is unintentional, suggest remedies such as
delaying action on the plan until there is adequate time for a participatory process, scheduling a number
of participatory events quickly, publicizing the events well, and revising the plan accordingly. If the
potential violation is intentional, this is a very serious situation because as planners we shall not accept
an assignment from an employer when the service to be performed involves conduct that we know to
be illegal (Rules of Conduct #2). It would then be a good idea to then discuss the situation further with
the Ethics Officer.
SOURCE:
AICP Ethics Code - https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
III. (49) “Triple Bottom Line” refers to:
(A) Costs, Revenues, Profits
(B) Cash, Debt, Inventory
(C) People, Prosperity, Planet
(D) Durable Goods, Consumer Demands, Orders
The correct answer is (C)
The three “E’s” of sustainability (environment, economy, and equity) are also referred to as the “triple
bottom line” (people, prosperity, and planet), coined by John Elkington in 1995.
SOURCES:
PAS Report #571 (2013): Green Infrastructure: A Landscape Approach
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026895/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Triple_bottom_line
II. (50) The greatest number of building floors result from the implementation of which Floor Area
Ratio (FAR):
(A) FAR of 6 covering an entire lot
(B) FAR of 5 built on 1/3 of a lot
(C) FAR of 6 built on half of a lot
(D) FAR of 5 built on 1/4 of a lot
The correct answer is (D)
FAR = floor area ratio = building area / lot area. A two story building built over an entire lot has a FAR of
2; if that Floor Area Ratio of 2 were to be totally built on only ½ of the site, it would still contain the
same square footage, but now be 4 stories high. For the examples given: (A) = 6 story building; (B) = 15
story building; (C) = 12 story building; (D) = 20 story building.
SOURCES:
The Practice of Local Government Planning (2000); “Zoning District Regulations”, pp. 353, 356.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Floor_area_ratio
III. (51) A Complete Street is best described as:
(A) A street that promotes New Urbanism principles and has on-street parking
(B) A street that incorporates green infrastructure, TOD and walkability
(C) A street that ensures safe, healthy, convenient and comfortable travel and access for all users
(D) A street that uses green infrastructure, TOD, walkability, Woonerfs and Wayfinding.
The correct answer is (C)
Complete Streets is a transportation policy and design approach that requires streets to be planned,
designed, operated, and maintained to enable safe, convenient and comfortable travel and access for
users of all ages and abilities regardless of their mode of transportation.
SOURCES:
PAS Report #559 (2010): Complete Streets: Best Policy and Implementation Practices
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026883/
PAS QuickNote #5 (2006): Complete Streets
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007602/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Complete_streets
III. (52) Economic base analysis does NOT include which of the following?
(A) An assessment of basic and non-basic industries.
(B) Location quotient analysis.
(C) An analysis of real estate market conditions.
(D) An analysis of unemployment and racial demographics.
The correct answer is (D)
Economic base analysis is the study of cities and regions which focuses on basic service (export) ratios,
the ratio of employment in basic activities to employment in non-basic activities which utilizes economic
multipliers. Basic industries are defined as local or regional industries with an industry employment /
total employment ratio higher than the national ratio for the industry (note: this known as Location
Quotient and can include industries such as “Finance, insurance, and real estate”). Non-basic industries
have a lower industry employment /total employment ratio than the nation. This varies with the size of
community: the larger the community, the larger the multiplier (more places to spend money). Service
economies can “export” the knowledge or service (e.g. Detroit and car manufacturing). Once basic
employment is identified, the outlook for future basic employment is investigated sector by sector and
future projections are made sector by sector. In turn, this permits the projection of future total
employment in the region.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Economic Base and Econometric Projections” pp. 507-
508.
The Planner’s Use of Information (2003); “Economic Models”, pp. 149-152.
Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices (2009); “Sizing up the local economy” pp. 80-84
I. (53) What is the smallest census geographic unit with 100% tabulation of data?
(A) Consolidated MSA
(B) Census Tract
(C) Census Block
(D) Place
The correct answer is (C)
A census block is the smallest geographic unit used by the United States Census Bureau for tabulation of
100-percent data (data collected from all houses, rather than a sample of houses). Census blocks are
grouped into block groups, which are grouped into census tracts. There are on average about 39 blocks
per block group. Blocks are typically bounded by streets, roads or creeks. In cities, a census block may
correspond to a city block, but in rural areas where there are fewer roads, blocks may be limited by
other features. The population of a census block varies greatly from zero to hundreds, but has an
average size of about 100 people.
SOURCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Census_block
The Planner’s Use of Information (2003); p. 87.
https://www.census.gov/content/dam/Census/data/developers/geoareaconcepts.pdf
https://www.census.gov/newsroom/blogs/random-samplings/2011/07/what-are-census-blocks.html
II. (54) The T6 Transect Zone represents the:
(A) Natural Zone
(B) Special District
(C) Central Business District
(D) Urban Core Zone
The correct answer is (D)
Standards were written for the first transect-based zoning codes, eventually to become the SmartCode
(released in 2003 by Duany Plater-Zyberk & Company). The six Transect Zones provide the basis for real
neighborhood structure, which requires walkable streets, mixed use, transportation options, and
housing diversity. The T-zones vary by the ratio and level of intensity of their natural, built, and social
components. To systemize the analysis and coding of traditional patterns, a prototypical American ruralto-urban SmartCode transect has been divided into six Transect Zones, or T-zones (below), for
application on zoning maps.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Transect-Based Code” pp. 602-603.
http://www.transect.org/transect.html
http://www.miami21.org/TheTransect.asp
II. (55) A process where citizens address themselves to proposals through workshop formats that
involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a conversation in full view of a
larger group of listeners?
(A) Fishbowl
(B) Drop in Centers
(C) Design in
(D) Delphi Technique
The correct answer is (A)
Fishbowls involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a conversation in full view
of a larger group of listeners. Fishbowl processes provide a creative way to include the “public” in a
small group discussion. They can be used in a wide variety of settings, including workshops, conferences,
organizational meetings and public assemblies. Fishbowls are useful for ventilating “hot topics” or
sharing ideas or information from a variety of perspectives. When the people in the middle are public
officials or other decision-makers, this technique can help bring transparency to the decision-making
process and increase trust and understanding about complex issues. In an open fishbowl, any member
of the audience can, at any time, occupy the empty chair and join the fishbowl. When this happens, an
existing member of the fishbowl must voluntarily leave the fishbowl and free a chair. The discussion
continues with participants frequently entering and leaving the fishbowl.
SOURCES:
http://www.kstoolkit.org/Fish+Bowl
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fishbowl_(conversation)
I. (56) The 1880’s saw the beginning of the cotton textile factories of the north move south, a trend
that continued into the 1950’s, primarily due to:
I. New Technology
II. African-American Labor
III. Cheap Power
IV. Child Labor
(A) I, II
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
After 1880, cotton production in the South began to grow and mills were opened in the South, some as
branches of Northern operations. African-Americans, many of whom were familiar with technology
unlike the Northern immigrants, staffed the cotton mills with cheap labor. The South’s mill owners not
only benefited from cheap labor, they also entered the textile industry at a time of unprecedented
technological advancement. The mill owners incorporated the most modern machines into their
factories which allowed them to increase production and cut labor costs. At the end of the nineteenth
century, however, railroads helped open up the nearby coalfields in West Virginia, Virginia, Kentucky,
Alabama, and Tennessee. As mining companies grew, they produced coal that allowed textile mill
owners to use steam engines. This increased the size of the mills and their level of production.
The Southern textile industry relied in large part on the labor of children. Between 1880 and 1910,
roughly a quarter of all textile workers were under the age of 16. Reformers eventually began to chip
away at the use of child labor. But early efforts to curb the practice failed. Children did not disappear
from the mills in the South until economic conditions and technological advancements made their labor
more expensive than that of adults. African-Americans, many of whom were familiar with technology
unlike the Northern immigrants, staffed the cotton mills with cheap labor.
SOURCES:
http://research.library.gsu.edu/c.php?g=115684&p=751981
https://historyengine.richmond.edu/episodes/view/246
III. (57) Metropolitan Planning Organizations (MPO), are typically responsible for all of the following
EXCEPT?
(A) Coordinating regional transportation planning
(B) Certifying that a project to be federally funded will be consistent with regional plans or regional
development goals.
(C) Regulating land use and the construction of freeways.
(D) Planning for air quality
The correct answer is (C).
Federal legislation passed in the early 1970s required the formation of a Metropolitan Planning
Organization (MPO) for any urbanized area (UA) with a population greater than 50,000. MPOs were
created in order to ensure that existing and future expenditures for transportation projects and
programs were based on a continuing, cooperative and comprehensive (3-C) planning process. Federal
funding for transportation projects and programs is channeled through the MPO. MPOs in air quality
nonattainment and maintenance areas are required to ensure that emissions from transportation
investments will not cause new violations or affect an area’s schedule to attain the air quality standards.
The Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1990 identifies the actions states and MPOs must take to reduce emissions
from on-road mobile sources in nonattainment and maintenance areas.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Metropolitan Planning Organizations”, p. 102
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metropolitan_planning_organization
http://www.ampo.org/resources-publications/ampo-work-groups/air-quality/
II. (58) The model for zoning to be undertaken “in accordance with a comprehensive plan” has its
national origins in:
(A) A Standard City Planning Enabling Act
(B) Model Land Development Code
(C) A Standard State Zoning Enabling Act
(D) New York City’s first comprehensive plan
The correct answer is (C)
The basic foundation for planning and zoning in the U.S. was laid by two standard state enabling acts
published by the U.S. Department of Commerce in the 1920s. The first of these, the Standard State
Zoning Enabling Act, was developed by an advisory committee on zoning appointed by Secretary of
Commerce (and later President) Herbert Hoover, with the first printed edition in May 1924, and a
revised edition in 1926. The SSZEA had nine sections, including a statement that zoning regulations must
be “in conformance with a comprehensive plan” but did not define the term.
SOURCES:
PAS QuickNote #52 (October, 2014): The Local Comprehensive Plan
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007647/
SSZEA - https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/enablingacts.htm
III. (59) Universal Design principals include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Designs usable by all
(B) Low physical effort
(C) Designs used exclusively by the disabled
(D) Flexible use
The correct answer is (C).
Universal design refers to broad-spectrum ideas meant to produce buildings, products and
environments that are inherently accessible to both people without disabilities and people with
disabilities. The term “Universal design” was coined by the architect Ronald L. Mace to describe the
concept of designing all products and the built environment to be aesthetic and usable to the greatest
extent possible by everyone, regardless of their age, ability, or status in life. Universal Design involves
making our homes and cities accessible to all people. Seven principles of Universal Design include:
1. Equitable use
2. Flexible use
3. Intuitive use
4. Perceptible information
5. Tolerance for error
6. Low physical effort
7. Size and space for approach and use
SOURCES:
PAS QuickNotes #28 (October, 2010); Universal Design
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007625/
Zoning Practice (April, 2006); Zoning for Universal Design and Visitability
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9027797/
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9148235/
II. (60) The term used to describe studies that convert the findings from basic research quickly and
efficiently into planning practice is known as:
(A) Bridging
(B) Translational research
(C) Conversion studies
(D) Applied research
The correct answer is (B)
Translational research is used to describe studies that quickly and efficiently translate findings from
basic research into practice. It is a third type of research that often bridges basic and applied research.
SOURCES:
https://www.planning.org/planning/2010/oct/research.htm
http://www.planning.org/planning/2010/dec/research.htm
II. (61) Jordantown desires to prepare a comprehensive plan in a Dillon’s Rule state that has state
statutes on zoning, but not comprehensive plans:
(A) The Town will need to seek approval of the plan from the Governor
(B) The Town can develop and approve the plan as they see fit (so long as they obey the state and
federal constitutions)
(C) The Town will need to seek explicit statutory authority from the state legislature in order to be
able to develop the plan
(D) The Town can develop and approve the plan as it’s simply the extension of zoning (i.e. a plan
that zoning must be consistent with)
The correct answer is (C)
The theory of state preeminence over local governments was expressed as Dillon’s Rule in an 1868 case:
“Municipal corporations owe their origin to, and derive their powers and rights wholly from, the
legislature. It breathes into them the breath of life, without which they cannot exist. As it creates, so
may it destroy. If it may destroy, it may abridge and control.” In other words, in a Dillon Rule state, local
governments are devoid of authority absent an explicit delegation of power from the state.
SOURCES:
Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices (2009); “Dillon’s Rule” pp. 66-67
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Forrest_Dillon
I. (62) The Mugler v Kansas Supreme Court case:
(A) Upheld the state’s use of “police power”
(B) Was the first case to find a “taking”
(C) Upheld the constitutionality of the Morrill Act
(D) Found an unconstitutional restriction on first amendment speech.
The correct answer is (A)
The Mugler v. Kansas (1887) Supreme Court decision held that a state’s legislation prohibiting the
manufacture of intoxicating liquor within its jurisdiction does not infringe on any right or privilege
secured by the Constitution of the United States, including the 14th amendment, was not a taking, and
found that the authority for the statute strictly relied upon Kansas’s police power.
SOURCES:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mugler_v._Kansas
https://www.oyez.org/cases/1850-1900/123us623
III. (63) Miami 21 is an example of a:
(A) Climate Action Plan
(B) Sustainable Neighborhood Plan
(C) Form-based zoning code
(D) LEED-ND neighborhoodIII. (65) Right-to-farm laws are typically about:
(A) Governmental takings
(B) Coming to the nuisance
(C) Combating urban sprawl
(D) Agricultural inverse condemnation
The correct answer is (C)
The Miami 21 Zoning Code is a Form-Based Code guided by tenets of New Urbanism and Smart Growth.
Miami 21 has all the provisions that would be found in a typical zoning ordinance but goes further,
addressing such important aspects as sustainability, view corridors, and solar access. Preservation of
historic districts is included. A public benefits program gives developers additional density for affordable
housing, meeting green building standards, or contributing to an open space trust fund.
SOURCES:
https://www.planning.org/planning/2011/apr/bestpractice.htm
http://www.miami21.org/zoning_code.asp
https://www.dpz.com/Projects/0425
III. (64) Superblock is a concept most often associated with:
I. Le Corbusier’s Radiant City
II. Clarence Perry’s “Neighborhood Unit”
III. Radburn, New Jersey
IV. Urban renewal public housing projects
(A) I, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
In 1929, Clarence Perry developed the neighborhood unit plan in response to the advent of the
automobile and was also an attempt to identify the local community as a separate entity with its own
qualities and needs. The neighborhood unit was to be distinct enclave, separate from the rest of the
city. Perry’s idea was to create homogeneous “superblocks” separating vehicular and pedestrian traffic;
providing ample open space; and developing community life around the neighborhood school. Perry’s
concept was the basis for the development of the widely acclaimed plan for Radburn, New Jersey, which
incorporated Perry’s concepts - the superblock, interior park, higher density clustering near the
parkland, and hierarchial traffic separation. Le Corbusier’s “The Radiant City” (1935) envisioned a city
laid out in a near perfect grid of superblocks, which became the basis for much of the public housing
projects later built in the United States.
SOURCES:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/City_block#Superblock
https://www.northernarchitecture.us/town-planning/the-radburn-superblock.html
III. (65) Right-to-farm laws are typically about:
(A) Governmental takings
(B) Coming to the nuisance
(C) Combating urban sprawl
(D) Agricultural inverse condemnation
The correct answer is (B)
Right-to-farm laws are designed to accomplish one or both of the following objectives: (1) to
strengthen the legal position of farmers when neighbors sue them for private nuisance; and (2)
to protect farmers from anti-nuisance ordinances and unreasonable controls on farming operations. In
most states, “coming to the nuisance” does not necessarily prevent farm neighbors from winning in
court, but a farmer usually has a stronger legal case if his or her operation was there before the plaintiff
moved to the area. Right-to-farm laws give farmers a legal defense against nuisance suits; the strength
of that defense depends on the provisions of the law and the circumstances of the case.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Farmland Preservation”, pp. 618-620
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right-to-farm_laws
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/farmlandprotection/
II. (66) Based on the 2010 Census, the U.S. population is projected to pass 400 million by:
(A) 2030
(B) 2040
(C) 2050
(D) 2060
The correct answer is (D)
Based on the latest Census data:
* The nation’s total population will cross the 400 million mark in 2058.
* In 2034, for the first time, the older population, age 65 and over, is projected to outnumber the
young under age 18
SOURCE:
https://www2.census.gov/news/press-kits/2019/so-demographers-assocmeeting/presentations/demographic-turning-points-for-the-us-population-projections.pdf?#
https://www.census.gov/content/dam/Census/library/publications/2020/demo/p25-1144.pdf
V. (67) A Certified Planner could lose their AICP for:
(A) Not paying special attention to the interrelatedness of decisions.
(B) Not giving people the opportunity to have a meaningful impact on the development of plans
and programs that may affect them
(C) Not dealing fairly with all participants in the planning process
(D) Not correctly stating your education, experience, or training
The correct answer is (D)
Rule of Conduct #12: We shall not misstate our education, experience, training, or any other facts which
are relevant to our professional qualifications. The other options are all Aspirational Principles.
SOURCE:
AICP Ethics Code - https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
II. (68) The Mayor asks the Planning Department to hold public workshops with the goal of improving
the look of the central business district. As planning director, the tools you’d likely use?
(A) Policy Delphi & Fishbowl
(B) Open Houses & Public Hearing
(C) Charrette & Visual Preference Survey
(D) Media releases & Brainstorming
The correct answer is (C)
A Charrette is an intensive, interactive problem solving process with meetings convened around
the development of specific visual plans (sometimes called a “Design In”). Participants work intensely to
reach a resolution during a 2-3 day or longer series of public workshops. The sponsoring agency typically
establishes the goals and time limit, announcing them ahead of time. A facilitator helps bring out all
points of view from concerned local residents as well as agency representatives and experts.
A visual preference survey is a technique often used in conjunction with a charrette to assist the
community in determining which components of a plan or project environment the public prefers
visually. The technique utilizes the development of visual concepts of a proposed plan or project. Typical
uses of visual preference surveys include helping the community define the preferences for architectural
style, signs, building setbacks, landscaping, parking areas, size/scope of transportation facilities, surfaces
finishes, and other design elements.
The use of the Delphi technique and Task Force meetings are typically not held as public workshops.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Charrettes”, pp. 57-58
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Visualization”, pp. 543-551
PAS Memo (November 2018); Crafting Charrettes That Transform Communities
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9161357/
III. (99) The street segment shown below is best described as:
[New Planner — Winter 2012]
(A) An Arterial
(B) A Parklet
(C) A Chicane
(D) A Pocket Park
The correct answer is (B)
Parklets are miniature parks, effectively sited on underused public pavement such as parking spaces and
serving as an extension of the sidewalk to provide amenities and green space for people using the
street. The basic parklet is a platform with benches, chairs, and planters. A pocket park is a small park
accessible to the general public, often created on a single vacant building lot or on small, irregular pieces
of land.
SOURCES:
PAS Memo (September 2016); Parklets: Best Practices for Design and Implementation
https://planning.org/publications/document/9110602/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parklet
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pocket_park
II. (113) Degree levels on Arnstein’s Ladder are all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Citizen Power
(B) Tokenism
(C) Non-participation
(D) Community Involvement
The correct answer is (D)
SOURCES:
http://citizenshandbook.org/arnsteinsladder.html
http://pages.uoregon.edu/rgp/PPPM613/class10theory.htm
Original article - https://lithgow-schmidt.dk/sherry-arnstein/ladder-of-citizen-participation.html
II. (131) The term “tokenism,” when used in urban planning, refers to which of the following?
(A) Transit planning
(B) Public participation
(C) Historic preservation
(D) Municipal governmental structure
The correct answer is (B)
The term “tokenism” refers to public participation that is insincere and may not have any bearing on the
work at hand. In tokenism, public participation is done simply for the sake of saying it was included in
the process, not for the purpose of influencing the process. Tokenism forms the middle three rungs of
Sherry Arnstein’s well-known “Ladder of Citizen Participation” (i.e. Informing, Consultation and
Placation).
SOURCES:
https://www.participatorymethods.org/sites/participatorymethods.org/files/Arnstein%20ladder%20196
9.pdf
https://www.planning.org/blog/9185753/building-that-well-known-ladder-of-citizen-participation/
http://citizenshandbook.org/arnsteinsladder.html
I. (163) A population growth curve that assumes growth begins slowly, then increases until it reaches
an “inflection point”, after which it slows to increments of continuously decreasing rates is known as
a(n):
(A) Exponential curve
(B) Gompertz curve
(C) Modified exponential curve
(D) Linear method
The correct answer is (B)
FIGURE FROM:
https://www.simiode.org/resources/4212/download/1-
066-S-USCensusModeling-StudentVersion.pdf
ALTERNATIVELY use the four figures on population
curves from page 505 of Planning and Urban Design
Standards
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Gompertz Curve”, p. 505
https://www.simiode.org/resources/4212/download/1-066-S-USCensusModeling-StudentVersion.pdf
III. (165) What land use has the highest traffic/trip peak in morning and late afternoon?
(A) Residential
(B) Office
(C) Retail
(D) Industrial
The correct answer is (A)
The morning and afternoon traffic peaks both have trip ends that are home-based for many of the trips,
even if they’re going and coming from work (i.e. office, retail, industrial). These are known as HomeBased Work (HBW) trips. BELOW: HBNW = Home-Based Non-Work trips. NHB = Non-Home-Based trips.
SOURCE:
FROM: http://media.tmiponline.org/clearinghouse/FHWA-HEP-10-042/ch8.htm
«HENRY NOTE – Link has disappeared since I created this question – I need a replacement figure from
another source or I will need to replace the question»
