H 2017 Flashcards
(1) Which of the following is a technique that uses a systematic comparison of two
money flows: A) the amount any one section of the community is paying into the local
treasury through taxes; B) the cost of services to the community?
(A) Cost-Benefit Analysis
(B) Goals Achievement Matrix
(C) Cost-Revenue Analysis
(D) Management by Objectives
The correct answer is “C”
Cost revenue analysis focuses on the costs and revenues associated with a specific form of
growth. The result of such an analysis is a statement of net governmental surplus or deficit
expressed in purely financial terms. Fiscal Impact Analysis is often used interchangeably with
“Cost-Revenue Analysis”.
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Manual, p. 161.
http://books.google.com/books?id=zH6lslEBF0oC&pg=PA3&lpg=PA3&dq=%22cost+revenue+a
nalysis%22+%22fiscal+impact+analysis%22+difference&source=bl&ots=ETw4QrkEjZ&sig=035
qK3DjxAZbsCsypAT2XVTL6Hg&hl=en&sa=X&ei=gStdVNmUOcKhgwT0wIEI&ved=0CCQQ6AE
wAQ#v=onepage&q=%22cost%20revenue%20analysis%22%20%22fiscal%20impact%20analy
sis%22%20difference&f=false
(2) Place the following generations in order from youngest to oldest:
I. Generation X
II. Millennials
III. Baby Boomers
IV. Silent Generation
(A) I, IV, II, III
(B) IV, III, I, II
(C) II, III, I, IV
(D) II, I, III, IV
The correct answer is “D”
Millennials, also known as the Millennial Generation, Echo/Shadow Boomers (i.e.
because they are the children of Baby Boomers), or Generation Y, is the demographic cohort
following Generation X. Commentators use birth dates ranging from the early 1980s to the early
2000s.
Generation X, commonly abbreviated to Gen X, is the generation born after the Western
Post–World War II baby boom. Demographers, historians and commentators use birth dates
ranging from the early 1960s to the early 1980s.
The Baby Boomers are the generation that was born following World War II, generally
from 1946 up to 1964, a time that was marked by an increase in birth rates. In the 1960s, as the
relatively large numbers of young people became teenagers and young adults, they, and those
around them, created a very specific rhetoric around their cohort, and the change they were
bringing about.
The Silent Generation, also known as the Lucky Few, were born from approximately
1925 until 1942. It includes some who fought in World War II, most of those who fought the
Korean War and many during the Vietnam War.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generation#Western_world
(3) Surveying by social media runs the risk of:
(A) Sampling error
(B) Sample bias
(C) Systematic bias
(D) Exclusion error
The correct answer is “B”
Bias is a term often confused with sampling error. Sampling error is the natural consequence
arising out of the fact that sample size is much less when compared to the population size. The
sampling error can thus be minimized by increasing the size of the sample. The inaccuracy
caused in the estimates of population parameters attributed to bias is more systematic.
Bias is the systematic error resulting in deviation in estimates of population parameters caused
by faulty design and/or deficient execution of sampling process. The bias is not a result of
sample size and hence increasing the sample size will not reduce bias in estimates. For
example, if you only share a link to your survey via social media, it’s very likely you are biasing
your results. Chances are, not all of your customers have social media accounts. Further, only a
fraction of those that do, will have liked or followed your company page. In survey methodology
terms, this is called Sampling Bias, which is introduced when some members of your intended
population are less likely to be surveyed than others.
https://help.surveygizmo.com/help/survey-bias
http://math.tutorvista.com/statistics/bias.html
(4) The capitalization rate may be computed using which of the following?
A) Net operating income and purchase price
B) Permanent loan amount and annual debt service
C) Purchase price and permanent loan amount
D) Maximum gross rent and operating expense
The correct answer is “A”
The overall capitalization rate is defined as an “income rate for a total property interest that reflects
the relationship between a single year’s net operating income and the total property price or value”.
(5) Riparian rights:
I. Right of access for swimming, boating and fishing
II. Principal western water right law
III. Right to make reasonable use of water as it flows through or over one’s property
IV. First in time, first in right
(A) I, III
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “A”
RIPARIAN water rights (or simply riparian rights) is a system for allocating water among those
who possess land along its path. Under the riparian principle, all landowners whose properties
adjoin a body of water have the right to make reasonable use of it as it flows through, under, or
over their properties. These rights cannot be sold or transferred other than with the adjoining
land and only in reasonable quantities associated with that land. Riparian rights include such
things as the right to access for swimming, boating and fishing; the right to wharf out to a point
of navigability; the right to erect structures such as docks, piers, and boat lifts; the right to use
the water for domestic purposes; the right to accretions caused by water level fluctuations; the
right to exclusive use if the waterbody is non-navigable. Riparian rights also depend upon
“reasonable use” as it relates to other riparian owners to ensure that the rights of one riparian
owner are weighed fairly and equitably with the rights of adjacent riparian owners.
PRIOR APPROPRIATION water rights is the legal doctrine that the first person to take a
quantity of water from a water source for “beneficial use”—agricultural, industrial or household
—has the right to continue to use that quantity of water for that purpose (i.e. “First in time, First
in Right”). Subsequent users can take the remaining water for their own beneficial use provided
that they do not impinge on the rights of previous users. This doctrine developed in the western
states of the United States. These water rights are different from riparian water rights, which are
applied in the rest of the United States.
ZONING PRACTICE (August 2009); Water Rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riparian_water_rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prior-appropriation_water_rights
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9131532/
(6) Real property includes:
I. Mineral Rights
II. Light fixtures
III. Easement
IV. Vegetation
(A) II
(B) I, II
(C) I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
Real property consists of all land, structures, firmly attached and integrated equipment (such as
light fixtures or a well pump), anything growing on the land, and all “interests” in the property
which may be the right to future ownership (remainder), right to occupy for a period of time
(tenancy or life estate) the right to drill for oil, the right to get the property back (a reversion) if it
is no longer used for its current purpose (such as use for a hospital, school or city hall), use of
airspace (condominium) or an easement across another’s property. Real property should be
thought of as a group of rights like a bundle of sticks which can be divided. It is distinguished
from the other type of property, “personal property”, which is made up of movable items.
http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/real+property
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_property#USA
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_property
(7) Oakland had a 2010 overall population of 445,000, and a Hispanic immigrant
population of 43,500 of which 3,050 were immigrants over the previous decade. In 2000,
Oakland’s population was 405,000. Which of the following (is)are true?
I. The current population increase is almost 9%
II. The Hispanic population represented almost 10% of the overall population in 2000
III. The Hispanic immigrant population increase represented 7.5% of the Hispanic immigrant
population and 7.6% of the overall population increase
IV. The Oakland population and Hispanic immigrant increases are approximately 0.1 and
0.08 percent, respectively
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) I, II
The correct answer is “B”
Percent increases are calculated based on the change between the original and the new
number, divided by the original number. Here, the original Hispanic immigrant population is
calculated by subtracting the increase from the current 2010 immigrant population (i.e. 43,500–
3,050 = 40,450 for the 2000 Hispanic immigrant population). The percent increase is then
calculated by dividing the increase by the original population (i.e. 3,050/40,450 = 0.0754 =
7.54% increase). Similarly, the calculation of the Hispanic immigrant percentage of the overall
population increase (i.e. 445,000-405,000 = 40,000) is done by taking the Hispanic immigrant
increase (3,050) and dividing by the overall increase (i.e. 3,050/40,000 = 7.63%). Answer II is
incorrect in that it addresses the total Hispanic population (for which we have no data) and not
just the smaller Hispanic immigrant population increase.
http://pages.uoregon.edu/rgp/PPPM613/class8a.htm
(8) Your fast growing county has just completed a major revision to your general plan,
including a new capital improvements program. The new CIP would likely address:
I. Land purchases, jails, tennis courts
II. Same timeframes as the budget
III. Pothole repairs, library books, fire hoses
IV. Concurrency
(A) II, III
(B) I, II, III
(C) I, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (C)
A capital improvements program (CIP) is typically a five-to-six year road map for planning and
funding public facilities and infrastructure. It typically incorporates both the construction of new
facilities and the rehabilitation or replacement of existing capital facilities. Best practices include
an economic analysis of the fiscal impact of new investments, including the life cycle costs of
maintaining and operating facilities or infrastructure. There is an essential linkage between
growth and the timing, phasing, or “concurrency” of capital investments. A local government
budget typically addresses one or two years; and addresses operational funding for issues such
as pothole repairs, new fire hoses, and new library book purchases, which are not considered
“capital” facility expenses.
SOURCES: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #25: Capital Improvements Programming (2010); APA’s
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 637-638
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capital_Improvement_Plan
(9) A 5th amendment taking may occur when:
I. Government seizes private property for a new highway
II. Private development seizes private property for a private purpose
III. When a regulation goes so far as to deny all economic use of a property
IV. The taking is permanent, but not temporary
(A) I, II, IV
(B) I, III
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B”
The Fifth Amendment provides that private property shall not be taken without just
compensation. While the Fifth Amendment by itself only applies to actions by the federal
government, the Fourteenth Amendment extends the Takings Clause to actions by state and
local government as well. When the government wishes to acquire property, for example, to
build a new courthouse, it first attempts to buy the property on the open market. However, if the
owner refuses to sell, the government can go to court and exercise the power of eminent
domain, by having the court condemn the property in favor of the government. The Takings
Clause imposes two requirements on government in order to exercise this power. First, the
property to be acquired must be “for public use,” and second, the government must pay “just
compensation” to the owner of the property that is taken, even in some cases where the taking
may be temporary in duration.
The difficult cases are generally those where government regulations, enacted to secure some
sort of public benefit, fall disproportionately on some property owners and cause significant
dimunition of property value. The Court has had a difficult time articulating a test to determine
when a regulation becomes a taking. It has said there is “no set formula” and that courts “must
look to the particular circumstances of the case.” The Court has identified some relevant factors
to consider: the economic impact of the regulation, the degree to which the regulation interferes
with investor-backed expectations, and the character of the government action. Until 1922, the
Supreme Court did not consider such diminution of the value of a particular person’s property
incidental to a general regulation as raising an issue under the Takings Clause. In that year,
however, in a celebrated opinion by Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes, the Court held that if a
regulation went “too far,” it could constitute a taking that would require just compensation by the
government. Since that time the question has remained, how far is too far.
http://law2.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/conlaw/takings.htm
http://www.progressivereform.org/persptakings.cfm
(10) The Elders of Concord desire to develop a new district plan centered around the
concept of sustainability. After extensive research, you decide to recommend using
APA’s definition that:
(A) Sustainability is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising
the ability of future generations to meet their own needs
(B) Sustainability means improving the quality of people’s lives while living within the
capacities of supporting natural and human systems
(C) Sustainable development is a dynamic process which enables people to realize their
potential and improve their quality of life in ways which simultaneously protect and
enhance the earth’s life support systems
(D) The three E’s of Sustainability are economy, ecology, and equity
The answer is “B”
APA’s definition comes from its new Sustainability Policy Framework that replaces the previous
2000 Policy Guide on Sustainability, and which recognizes that sustainability touches many
different areas of policy and planning and therefore APA laid out a broad framework to guide a
wide array of APA advocacy, programming, and policy development. All listed answer options
are definitions of sustainability:
(A) = Bruntland Report for the World Commission on Environment and Development (1992)
(C) = Forum for the Future
(D) = Well known reiteration of the attributes that comprise sustainability.
https://planning-org-uploaded-media.s3.amazonaws.com/document/Sustainability-PolicyFramework.pdf
(11) A landlocked property owner can obtain an easement in which of the following
ways?
(A) Expressed grant.
(B) Necessity.
(C) Prescription.
(D) Inverse condemnation
The correct answer is B)
The common law doctrine of easement by necessity has long been used to allow a landlocked
landowner to access a public highway over another’s private land when no other relief is
available.
(12) Tonasket is concerned about the potential of expansion of nearby Big Box retailers
and their potential to adversely affect their independent downtown merchants.
Determined to pass new regulations that will limit Big Box impacts to their small rural
community, among the regulation(s) that their planner will consider is (are):
I. Banning stores with a standardized façade & standardized décor and color schemes
II. Banning stores over 100,000 sq. ft. in size within ¼ mile of town limits
III. Requiring stores over 40,000 sq. ft. to be approved through a special permit process
IV. Banning stores over 50,000 sq. ft. with more than 5% space devoted to groceries
(A) II, III
(B) III
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”
Banning stores outside the town’s jurisdiction exceeds their authority. A formula business is
typically defined as one with more than a specified number of outlets in the United States that
share common (standardized) features such as merchandise, trademark, architecture,
employee uniforms, or decor. Growing concern for the homogenization of retail caused by the
proliferation of national chains (including big-box retailers) and the loss of local character makes
regulations prohibiting or addressing this issue more politically viable. Some jurisdictions require
big-box approval to occur through a special permit or conditional use process. Other
jurisdictions regulate the use of limits on the size of the grocery component of a store to ensure
two things: 1) that size limitations did not rule out department stores that are not big-boxes; and
2) that stores like Wal-Mart supercenters and SuperTargets do not destroy the existing grocery
store businesses in a region.
PAS 537: Meeting the Big-Box Challenge: Planning, Design, and Regulatory Strategies
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026865/
(13) The Visioning process allows for: early citizen involvement, impartial leadership, all
inclusive citizen participation, and:
I. Heavy media involvement
II. A long-range planning mentality
III. The saving of time and money
IV Ideal communities
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) III and IV
The correct answer is C)
Visioning is “planning at its boldest”, a participatory, collaborative, and consensus-driven
planning process that seeks to describe an agreed-upon long-range desired future for a
community on the issues that matter most to the community. Therefore, the most successful
visioning efforts involve all segments of the community. This often involves the use of major
multi-media strategies to both encourage public participation from all interest groups, and to
periodically publicize the success of ongoing efforts and maintain forward momentum and retain
continued interest and involvement in the process.
SOURCES: Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices; pp. 216-217; APA’s PAS
QuickNotes #15: Capital Improvements Programming (2008)
(14) Key issues of concern in waterfront planning include:
I. Gentrification
II. Industrial development
III. Sprawl
IV. Heavy metals
A) I, II, IV
B) I, III
C) II, IV
D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is A)
The loss of working waterfronts due to residential gentrification (and the continued retention of
major industrial areas that need to be on the water, such as boat repair facilities) is a significant
planning issue for many coastal areas, as is sediment contamination by heavy metals from such
industrial and marine activities.
See: http://www.wateraccessus.com/toolkit.html
http://www.washington-apa.org/assets/docs/new_efforts_with_working_waterfronts_and_public_access.pdf
(15) A Neighborhood plan:
I. Often propose a program of implementation shorter in duration than is proposed in the
general plan
II. Is intended to provide a more general inclusion of goals, policies and guidelines than in
the general plan
III. Focuses on a specific geographic area of a local jurisdiction that typically includes
substantial residential development, associated commercial uses, and institutional
services such as recreation and education
IV. The sole sponsors of neighborhood plans are government and the citizens of the
neighborhoods affected.
(A) I, III
(B) II, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “A”
The neighborhood plan is intended to provide more detailed goals, policies, and guidelines than
those in the general plan. The sponsors of neighborhood plans include cities, community
development organizations, foundations and private developers.
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Neighborhood Plans” pp. 16-
17; 12.
(16) Old Town is attempting to attract a major national grocer to the downtown area to
meet the needs of the increasing resident millennial population by:
I. Providing assistance to overcome higher land prices and land assembly issues
II. Convincing supermarket chains the area has sufficient market demand
III. Reassessing noise and odor standards and associated solutions to accommodate
grocers’ needs
IV. Convincing supermarket chains to provide fewer than traditional parking spaces
(A) I, IV
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “D”
All the listed options can potentially help attract supermarket chains back to the downtown
areas. Given that today’s average grocery store is more than 50,000 square feet in size,
and that national supermarket chains have become comfortable with their business models,
it is very difficult to find enough contiguous land available in a downtown area without either
great expense or demolition of buildings (sometimes of historic significance), or both. Most
supermarket chains need to be convinced that older downtowns and neighborhood commercial
corridors have enough market demand to support a supermarket. Zoning laws sometimes make
it difficult to build or operate downtown grocery stores – particularly as part of a mixed-use
project in which zoning officials fear that noise from a 24-hour or late-night grocery store or
smells from its trash area might disturb residents. Downtown development patterns - zerosetback, parking in the rear or in a parking lot elsewhere in the district – are unfamiliar, and
therefore perceived as risky, to the national chains (and to lending institutions). They are also
likely to believe that they will need the same number of parking spaces as for a comparably
sized suburban store, not knowing how many district residents are likely to reach the store on
foot, by bicycle, or using public transit, rather than by car.
http://plannersweb.com/wp-content/uploads/2006/07/118.pdf
https://www.idadowntown.org/eweb/docs/2011%20Speaker%20Pres/IDAGrocerypresentation.pdf
(17) Which of the following is out of order according to the Standard State Zoning
Enabling Act’s basic rezoning process?
I) Plan Commission recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
II) Notice is given of the governing body public hearing
III) The governing body hearing occurs
IV) The governing body takes action
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) They’re all in order
The correct answer is “D”
The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act states the following as the basic rezoning process:
1. Submittal of the zoning application
2. Application review by staff
3. Notice is given of the planning commission public hearing
4. The staff report is created
5. The planning commission hearing
6. The planning commission recommendation
7. The recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
8. Notice given of the governing body public hearing
9. The governing body hearing occurs
10. The governing body decision
Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the
American Institute of Certified Planners”, “Development Regulations” by Teresa Wilkinson,
AICP, pages 135-136.
(18) Environmental Justice:
I. Relates to those impacted adversely by environmental pollution
II. Requires mitigating the impacts of adverse federal environmental impacts on Native
American and minority populations
III. Refers to identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and
adverse human health or environmental effects of federal programs, policies, and
activities on minority populations and low-income populations
IV. Has its origins in the 1992 dumping of toxic wastes near minority communities in Morgan
County, Georgia
(A) II
(B) III
(C) II, IV
(D) I, III, IV
The correct answer is “B”
A major development in environmental justice policy occurred in 1994, when President Clinton
signed Executive Order 12898, directing all federal agencies to address environmental justice in
federal agency actions and to develop strategies for doing so by requiring that “each Federal
agency shall make achieving environmental justice part of its mission by identifying and
addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental
effects of its programs, policies, and activities on minority populations and low-income
populations in the United States.” In essence, it is an add-on to the NEPA process, and does
not require mitigation in and of itself, nor does it apply to all populations impacted by
environmental pollution. It covers both minority and low-income communities. Robert Bullard
published Dumping in Dixie: Race, Class and Environmental Quality in 1990, addressing the
protests against the siting of a landfill accepting polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) in primarily
African-American Warren County, North Carolina, in 1982.
PAS 549-550 Fair and Healthy Land Use: Environmental Justice and Planning
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026874/
(19) Carrying Capacity is a concept associated with:
(A) Andres Duany
(B) Ebenezer Howard
(C) Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr.
(D) Ian McHarg
The correct answer is “D”
Ian L. McHarg was a landscape architect and a renowned writer on regional planning using
natural systems. He was the founder of the department of landscape architecture at the
University of Pennsylvania in the United States. His 1969 book Design with Nature pioneered
the concept of ecological planning. The book was essentially a step-by-step graphic overlay
style instruction manual about how to assess a region (big or small), in physical planning terms,
and to determine appropriate land uses that would endure and have long term sustainability (i.e.
“intrinsic suitability”). This approach laid the basis for both GIS layers and the notion of carrying
capacity, which is basically the maximum population size that an environment or location can
sustain indefinitely, without adverse environmental changes. The term “carrying capacity” was
likely coined by Aldo Leopold (1933:50-51) in his work “Game management”, and is one of the
most common concepts in wildlife management.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3863853/
http://www.plannersnorth.com.au/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/Design_With_Nature.pdf
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ian_McHarg
(20) An Arterial street is best described as a:
A) Highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access and generally with grade
separations at intersections.
B) Street that provides through traffic movement on a continuous route joining major traffic
generators, where access to abutting properties may be controlled.
C) Major roadway with no access to adjacent properties.
D) Roadway that experiences up to 30% of all VMT in urban areas, and up to 20% of all
VMT in rural areas.
The correct answer is B)
Principal arterials serve longer trips, carry the highest traffic volumes, and carry a large
percentage of the VMT (vehicle miles traveled; 30%-55% of all roadway mileage) on minimum
roadway mileage (4%-12% of all roads) and provide minimal land access. Minor Arterials
interconnect the principal arterials, provide less mobility and slightly more land access, and
distribute travel to smaller geographic areas than principal arterials. Urban Collectors provide
both land access and traffic circulation with residential, commercial, and industrial areas by
collecting and distributing traffic to these areas. Local Streets provide direct access to adjacent
land and access to the higher classified streets (5-20% of all VMT; 65% - 75% of all roadway
mileage). Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP
Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”, page 149.
(21) In the following order, indicate the definitions for water table, aquifer, watershed and
recharge area:
I. The total area above a given point on a watercourse that contributes water to its flow;
the entire region drained by a waterway or watercourse that drains into a lake or
reservoir.
II. The upper limit of the portion of the soil that is completely saturated with water.
III. A geologic formation, group of formations, or part of a formation capable of yielding,
storing, or transmitting a usable amount of groundwater to wells or springs for domestic
or animal use.
IV. The natural process of infiltration and percolation of rainwater from land areas or
streams through permeable soils into water-holding rocks that provide underground
storage.
(A) II, III, I, IV
(B) IV, III, II, I
(C) II, I, III, IV
(D) IV, II, I, III
The correct answer is “A”
PAS 521/522 A Planners Dictionary
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026853/
(22) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co., 272 U.S. 365 (1926) dealt with which of the
following issues?
A) Adult Uses
B) Exactions
C) With the claim of a perceived taking
D) Sign Ordinance
The correct answer is C)
Ambler Realty sued the village, arguing that the zoning ordinance had substantially reduced the
value of the land by limiting its use, amounting to a deprivation of Ambler’s liberty and property
without due process (i.e., an unconstitutional “taking”).
(23) The roles of a State Historic Preservation Officer include:
I. Administering the State program of Federal assistance for historic preservation within
the State
II. Assisting Federal and State agencies and local governments in carrying out their historic
preservation responsibilities
III. Listing eligible properties on the National Register and otherwise administer applications
for listing historic properties on the National register
IV. Conducting a statewide survey of historic properties
(A) II, III
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”
Listing eligible properties on the National Register is the role of National Park Service, and
includes all National Historic Landmarks as well as all historic areas administered by the
National Park Service.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/State_historic_preservation_office
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Historic_Preservation_Act_of_1966
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Register_of_Historic_Places
(24) Which of the following planning movements was characterized by local management
and self-government without a need for intervention from the central state, and a
philosophy that planning should be designed for socioeconomic stratums just above the
poor?
A) Sanitary Movement
B) City Beautiful Movement
C) Garden City Movement
D) Housing Reform
The correct answer is C).
The garden city movement is an approach to urban planning that was founded in 1898 by Sir
Ebenezer Howard in the United Kingdom in his book, To-morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real
Reform, which offered a vision of towns free of slums and enjoying the benefits of both town
(such as opportunity, amusement and high wages) and country (such as beauty, fresh air and
low rents). Garden cities were to be planned, self-contained communities surrounded by
greenbelts, and containing carefully balanced areas of residences, industry, and agriculture
which avoided the downfalls of industrial cities of the time such as urban poverty, overcrowding,
low wages, dirty alleys with no drainage, poorly ventilated houses, toxic substances, dust,
carbon gases, infectious disease and lack of interaction with nature.
See the following links for more information:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ebenezer_Howard
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Garden_city_movement
(25) The three C’s of a good staff report are:
(A) Consistency, Compatibility, Comprehensive
(B) Compliance, Consistency, Compatibility
(C) Compliance, Consistency, Comprehensive
(D) Comprehensive, Consistency, Compatibility
The correct answer is (B)
Staff Report findings are typically related to the concepts of compliance, consistency, and
compatibility, which are often the factors considered should the case be litigated:
* Compliance. The report should identify which codes the application is subject to and,
generally, how it complies. It should specify sections of the code with which the project
does not comply and note whether there are any waivers, alternatives, or conditions to
be considered. The report should relay how the application complies with environmental,
utility, traffic, and other regulations in addition to zoning.
* Consistency. The staff report should describe not only the land-use map classification
but whether the proposed project is consistent with the goals and policies of the adopted
plan. Consistency in applying codes is also important to assure equal protection. The
report should identify prior decisions, if any, and indicate why this recommendation is
similar (or why it is not).
* Compatibility. This is probably the most subjective and debated of the parameters. The
staff report should evaluate the project’s compatibility with adjacent properties. Is the use
compatible with those around it? Is the height and scale of the building compatible with
those adjacent? Are the site improvements (e.g., parking) and operational features (e.g.,
hours of operation) in character with the surrounding uses?
SOURCE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #30: Getting the Most out of Staff Reports (2011)
(26) Which of the following is a Policy:
(A) Train the Chapter’s planners to pass the AICP Exam
(B) Develop a comprehensive Florida Chapter AICP Exam Prep training manual
(C) Increase the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate above the national average by 2015.
(D) Annually monitor the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate by Section.
The correct answer is “B”
Goals provide a long term result, or the long-term end toward which programs or activities are
ultimately directed. Objectives are more specific, measurable statements of desired or
intermediate ends that are achievable and mark progress toward a goal. Policies are courses of
action that indicate how the goals and objectives of a plan should be realized. Measures are
metrics used to assess progress toward meeting an objective, which can consist of an output or
an outcome. Above, “A” is a goal. “B” is a policy, “C” is an Objective, and “D” is a measure.
(27) The County Administrator tells you, the Planning Director, that he is concerned
about the potential environmental justice issues associated with the new proposed
landfill site in a residential area. Among the planning issues you direct your staff to
investigate are:
I. Whether Hispanics will experience a disproportionate environmental impact
II. Public participation
III. Housing gentrification
IV. Health risk assessment
(A) I, II
(B) I, II, IV
(C) I only
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B“
EPA defines environmental justice (EJ) as the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all
people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income with respect to the development,
implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies. Other
definitions include equitable distribution of environmental risks and benefits; fair and meaningful
participation in environmental decision-making; recognition of community ways of life, local
knowledge, and cultural difference; and the capability of communities and individuals to function
and flourish in society. Although its origins go back much earlier, in 1994, President Clinton
issued Executive Order 12898, “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority
Populations and Low-Income Populations.” Executive Order 12898 requires that achieving EJ
must be part of each federal agency’s mission and to identify and address the disproportionately
high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their actions on minority and lowincome populations.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Environmental_justice
https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-executive-order-12898-federal-actions-address-environmental-justice
(28) Which of the following is the most appropriate instrument for waiving the frontage
requirements for a lot located on an isolated hillside?
A) variance
B) special permit
C) cluster zoning
D) rezoning
The correct answer is A)
A variance would be appropriate in this case, provided the hillside represented a severe
topographic hardship, precluding the strict application of the ordinance.
(29) Early 20th century housing policies often had unintended consequences. One such
example involved the promotion of racial segregation and urban decay due to redlining:
(A) The 1901 Tenement Act
(B) The 1933 Emergency Banking Act
(C) The 1934 Housing Act
(D) The 1937 Housing Act
The correct answer is “C”
Created by the 1934 Housing Act, the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) revolutionized
home ownership by creating our current financial mortgaging system. In the process, it
produced a lending structure which helped to solidify the racial segregation that still exists
today. The Underwriting Handbook used by the FHA endorsed the practice of redlining, which
marked African-American neighborhoods as ineligible for FHA mortgages. Redlining is the
practice of refusing to back mortgages in neighborhoods based on racial and ethnic
composition. The FHA’s strict lending standards, contained in the FHA Underwriting Handbook,
determined which kinds of properties it would approve mortgages for. In addition to physical
quality standards, the FHA based its decisions on the location, and racial and ethnic
composition of the neighborhood where the property existed. For example, in 1934 the FHA
Underwriting Handbook incorporated “residential security maps” into their standards to
determine where to mortgages could or could not be issued. The implementation of this federal
policy aggravated the decay of minority inner city neighborhoods caused by the withholding of
mortgage capital, and made it even more difficult for neighborhoods to attract and retain families
able to purchase homes. The assumptions in redlining resulted in a large increase in residential
racial segregation and urban decay in the United States.
http://www.bostonfairhousing.org/timeline/1934-FHA.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Redlining#History
(30) What type of regulation includes impact fees, growth management controls, and land
recordation?
A) Subdivision Regulation
B) Zoning
C) Land Use
D) Comprehensive Planning
The correct answer is “A”
Subdivision regulations control and record the process of subdividing land. A result of
subdivision regulations is the preservation of land records by platting and mapping. Another
result is that developers design and construct developments properly. They include: 1) land
recordation, 2) local design and construction standards for improvements and lots, 3) dedication
requirements in the form of land or cash-in-lieu, 4) use of developer’s impact fees, 5) the
institution of growth management controls. Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council
Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”,
“Development Regulations” by Teresa Wilkinson, AICP, Gretna, LA, page 137.
(31) Your small town needs to undertake an extensive citizen involvement process to
help develop a vision for the community and lacks the needed in-house expertise to
know how to effectively accomplish this. In your role as the Planning Director, you
determine that the best option available is:
(A) Define required services and carry out a two-step RFQ-RFP process
(B) Seek advice from the regional planning council
(C) Assign your best senior planner to educate himself in citizen involvement techniques
(D) Ask your local citizen groups for advise
The best answer is (A)
Although the regional planning council may be able to provide “advice” on how to effectively
accomplish a visioning process, it is often best to augment staff expertise through the hiring of
expert consultants where detailed technical or subject matter knowledge on a specific planning
process is required. Consultants are typically skilled at facilitating the extensive public outreach
and involvement required in major planning projects. Outside experts can also bring credibility
and a sense of objectivity to planning processes.
SEE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #37: Hiring a Consultant: RFQs and RFPs (2012)
(32) In order, match the definition answers with the following terms: cost-revenue; costeffectiveness; cost-benefit; fiscal impact analysis.
I. Determines whether a particular project or scale of development within a community will
generate sufficient revenues to defray the necessary public service costs
II. Focuses on a single objective and a project’s effectiveness with respect to that objective
III. Focuses exclusively on the costs and revenues associated with a specific form of growth
IV. Compares both the tangible and intangible (externalities) costs and revenues of a
particular project or program compares what a community gains from the project benefits
to what the community must forego in order to achieve it
(A) I, IV, III, II
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, II, IV, I
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Manual, p. 161.
http://books.google.com/books?id=zH6lslEBF0oC&pg=PA3&lpg=PA3&dq=%22cost+revenue+a
nalysis%22+%22fiscal+impact+analysis%22+difference&source=bl&ots=ETw4QrkEjZ&sig=035
qK3DjxAZbsCsypAT2XVTL6Hg&hl=en&sa=X&ei=gStdVNmUOcKhgwT0wIEI&ved=0CCQQ6AE
wAQ#v=onepage&q=%22cost%20revenue%20analysis%22%20%22fiscal%20impact%20analy
sis%22%20difference&f=false
(33) Clarence Stein is best known for his work on which topic?
A) The New York State thruway
B) The Catskill preserve
C) The Greenbelt Towns
D) The Rural Electrification Administration
The correct answer is “C”
Stein was a major proponent of the Garden City movement in the United States, and involved in
the 1930’s development of the “Greenbelt towns” under the rural Resettlement Administration,
including Greenbelt, Maryland, Greendale, Wisconsin and Greenhills, Ohio. Earlier in 1923,
Stein and Henry Wright collaborated on the plan for Sunnyside Gardens, a neighborhood of the
New York City borough of Queens that took the garden city ideas of Sir Ebenezer Howard as a
model. Also, in 1929, Stein and Wright collaborated with Kenneth Weinberger on the plan for
the Radburn community in Fair Lawn, New Jersey, roughly double the area of Sunnyside. The
vision for Radburn was of an integrated self-sustaining community, surrounded by greenbelts,
specialized automotive thoroughfares (main linking roads, serviced lanes for direct access to
buildings, and express highways), and a complete separation of auto and pedestrian traffic.
These thoroughfares were called “superblocks”.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clarence_Stein
(34) The Planning Director of your large, metropolitan city desires to establish some
regulations to address the burgeoning public street markets and vendors that are
increasingly appearing on vacant spaces throughout the city. The Planning Director
wants to ensure that the new regulations improve community image, protect shops and
restaurants, avoid sidewalk congestion, and reduce the liability of adjacent businesses.
Among the many relevant issues the senior planner in charge of drafting the regulations
may decide to address is/are:
I. Restrictions on vending and market locations
II. Capping the total city number of allowed vendors
III. Restrictions/prohibitions on certain foods for sale
IV. Fees and Taxes
(A) I
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
Communities regulate markets and street merchants through zoning and business licensing or
through standards of behavior on public property in eight key areas:
1. Vending locations – e.g. sidewalk vending or street markets
2. Exemptions – e.g. obtaining waivers from neighboring businesses
3. Permit caps – e.g. vending permit caps
4. Vending area – e.g. brightline versus flexible locational standards
5. Space allocation – e.g. space allocation by governmental vs. designated authority
6. Restrictions on certain goods – e.g. food type restrictions (fruit/vegetable only)
7. Cart or display design – e.g. cart size, less often, cart appearance
8. Fees and taxes – e.g. license, permit costs (per sq. foot vs. flat fee)
SOURCE: APA’s Public Markets; “Zoning Practice” (February 2009)
(35) The City you work for is considering the installation of a pedestrian trail and
requiring dedication of property through the entitlement process to assemble the
property. Which takings case should you review?
(A) Dolan
(B) Nollan
(C) Lucas
(D) Mt. Laurel
The correct answer is “A”
Dolan, of a Plumbing & Electrical Supply store in the city of Tigard, Oregon, applied for a permit
to expand the store and pave the parking lot of her store. The city planning commission granted
conditional approval, dependent on Dolan dedicating land to a public greenway along an
adjacent creek, and developing a pedestrian and bicycle pathway in order to relieve traffic
congestion. The decision was appealed to the Oregon State Land Use Board of Appeals
(LUBA), alleging that the land dedication requirements were not related to the proposed
development, and thus constituted an uncompensated taking of her property. The Supreme
Court held that the requirement for a public greenway (as opposed to a private one, to which
Dolan would retain other rights of property owners, such as the right of exclusive access), was
excessive, and that the City failed to meet its burden of establishing that the proposed pathway
was necessary to offset the increased traffic which would be caused by the proposed expansion
(i.e. rough proportionality).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dolan_v._City_of_Tigard
(36) You are a Planner for Wainfleet, New York, and you are attending the Mayor’s Annual
Luncheon on the State of the City and you bump into a private developer that you went to
college with. She tells you about an exciting retail development and movie theater
complex that she wants to build in Wainfleet. She offers you the opportunity to invest in
the development. Which is the best option below for you to follow knowing that the
development will come before your department for review?
A) You should put the investment in your husband’s name and invest in the development.
B) You should disclose your investment with your boss, the director, and once they give
their approval you should invest.
C) Invest in the development and when it comes before your department for review,
exclude yourself from dealing with the project and have your staff make the
recommendations for or against the development.
D) Although it seems like an exciting opportunity you should decline the opportunity.
The correct answer is “D”
According to the APA Code of Ethics the best thing to do in this situation is to decline the
opportunity and say “no” to investing in this development. One of the main thoughts that the
APA is trying to make very clear to planners is to stay out of potentially unfavorable situations
that could be construed as being unethical. In answer A, you should remember that, as in this
example, your husband’s financial interests are also your own. In answer B, your Director or
boss should not give you permission to invest in this development. In answer C, your staff may
recommend the development or show some sort of favoritism because they know that you are
involved in its success or failure. Answer D, is the best on the four possible actions.
(37) Which economic development program would be most successful?
(A) Attracting big business with greater than 300 employees.
(B) Working with existing business owners to expand their businesses.
(C) Facilitating the location of state and/or federal government offices in your CBD.
(D) Working toward the development of a research and technology park.
The correct answer is “B”
The key objective of an economic development strategy is business development and job
growth, which comes from the creation of new firms, the expansion of existing firms, and the
attraction or retention of existing firms. Working to retain and expand your community’s existing
businesses would generally prove most successful in economic development. The job creation
efforts of an incubator can take more time to mature than those of a large existing employer,
and new firms may only be replacing existing businesses.
PAS 541 An Economic Development Toolbox: Strategies and Methods
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026868/
(38) A staff planner is responsible for preparing a report for a proposed General Plan
Amendment. If approved, the action would allow a multiple family use to be designated
near the Central Business District. There is moderate community protest over the
proposed change. The planner has been told by the City Administrator that the Council is
looking favorably toward approval of the request because the community needs
affordable housing. However, the Council is seeking compelling reasons to approve the
amendment to prevent bad press and political embarrassment. Understanding all this,
the planner decides to:
A) Recommend denial of the project to protect the Council from public outcry.
B) Include in the staff report a discussion about the need for affordable housing and the
requirements of state law to provide such housing and offer a recommendation for
approval.
C) Recommend approval based on the right of the property owner to develop his land as he
sees fit. .
D) Recommend a series of alternative choices and let the Council make the final decision.
The correct answer is “B”.
The general, multiple purposes of a good staff report:
1. To factually describe the issue
2. To objectively describe why the issue is before the board or commission
3. To anticipate and answer questions likely to be asked at the hearing
4. To provide a professional recommendation
5. To inform officials and stakeholders on the issues of compliance, consistency, and
compatibility with adopted plans and applicable regulations
6. To build a public record and a legally defensible foundation—should litigation arise.
SOURCE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #30: Getting the Most out of Staff Reports (2011)
(39) Which U.S. housing act or legislation has been most successful at encouraging
home ownership?
(A) Hope VI
(B) HOME
(C) Mortgage interest tax deduction
(D) LIHTC
The correct answer is “C“
The home mortgage interest deduction allows taxpayers who own their homes to reduce their
taxable income by the amount of interest paid on the loan which is secured by their principal
residence. Approximately half of all homeowners (~ 75 million) use this deduction, and the
standard justification for the deduction is that it gives an incentive for home ownership.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Home_mortgage_interest_deduction
http://www.investopedia.com/articles/pf/06/mortinttaxdeduct.asp
http://www.deseretnews.com/article/700200108/Eliminating-the-mother-of-all-tax-deductions.html?pg=all
(40) The original Oregon Model is framed by the following four questions of the steps to
undertake in the Visioning process, in the following order (from first to last):
I. Where Do We Want to Be?
II. Where Are We Going?
III. How Do We Get There?
IV. Where Are We Now?
(A) IV, II, III, I
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) IV, II, I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (C)
Oregon was one of the first places in the U.S. to undergo a proliferation of community-based
visioning, and the Oregon Model represents a comprehensive approach to visioning that has
since gained widespread acceptance around the country. The model is framed by four simple
questions:
1. Where are we now?
2. Where are we going?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
Some communities add a fifth step promoting action plan implementation (called the
“New” Oregon Model):
5. Are we getting there?
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 55
(41) President Clinton’s 1994 Executive Order 12898:
(A) Prohibited federal contracts from going to businesses that knowingly hire illegal workers
(B) Established a Commission To Study Capital Budgeting
(C) Directed federal agencies to identify and address the disproportionately high and
adverse human health or environmental effects of their actions on minority and lowincome populations
(D) Expanded the President’s Council on Sustainable Development
The correct answer is “C”
Clinton’s Executive Order 12898 addressing Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice
in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations was issued in 1994. The order also
directed each agency to develop a strategy for implementing environmental justice and
established an Interagency Working Group (IWG) on environmental justice chaired by the EPA
Administrator and comprised of the heads of 11 departments or agencies and several White
House offices. All the answers address Executive Orders issued by President Clinton
https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-executive-order-12898-federal-actions-addressenvironmental-justice
(42) The figure below best represents which transportation concept:
(A) New Urbanism
(B) One-way Street
(C) Skinny Streets
(D) Complete Streets
The best “transportation concept” answer is “C”
Skinny Streets, road narrowing and horizontal narrowing are all terms for a traffic calming
measure that require drivers to slow down for a moment to understand what is happening and
thread themselves through a reduced width. Wide traffic lanes encourage faster motor vehicle
speeds. The neighborhoods with narrow streets and on-street parking on both sides of the
street don’t really have more collisions than the wider streets where everyone has a four-car
driveway. That’s because of the greater attention required to navigate through the narrow street
with the unpredictable parking pattern.
http://www.useful-community-development.org/traffic-calming.html
https://safety.fhwa.dot.gov/ped_bike/univcourse/pdf/swless11.pdf
(43) The Johnson Air Force base in Levy County is being increasingly impacted by new
surrounding development that is quickly conflicting with the military base’s primary
training mission, and creating potential safety issues. The County, in conjunction with
the Air Force Base Commander, decides to immediately begin planning to address base
compatibility issues, and undertakes those efforts by utilizing the following tools in the
following order (from first to last):
I. AICUZ/JLUS
II. Amortization
III. Moratorium
IV. Military Overlay adoption
(A) I, IV, III, II
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) III, I, IV, II
(D) III, II, I, IV
The correct answer is (C)
This is a question about immediateness of action and order of action. In the military land-use
compatibility context, a moratorium might likely be used to serve a valid public purpose (i.e.
planning in progress) because it restricts development while local government prepares a
permanent plan to address public safety and military readiness—both vital public interests. The
planning could happen through either the airfield oriented Air Installation Compatible Use Zone
(AICUZ) process, or a Joint Land Use Study (JLUS) involving the military base, local
government, and the public. For example, a comprehensive plan’s land-use element might
address the issue of compatible use by calling for implementation of the AICUZ study or JLUS,
which might be codified through the adoption of a Military overlay addressing the height, noise,
and accident potential zones contained in the base’s AICUZ study, and imposing specific landuse regulations in addition to a property’s underlying zoning designation. Finally, a local
government might use amortization to provide a non-conforming use property owner a
reasonable time to phase out nonconforming uses and structures that interfere with military
operations, but once that time has expired, the nonconformity would have to be terminated.
SOURCE: APA’s Compatibility: Land-Use Compatibility Near Military Bases: A Planner’s
Perspective; “Zoning Practice” (May 2011)
(44) To help implement a program to counter man-made climate change impacts, the
major asks you, the planning director, to develop a local public/private partnership
parking cash out program. Among the tools you investigate are:
I. Encouraging business interests to have their employees utilize mass transit and car
pooling
II. Requiring employers who provide subsidized parking for their employees to offer a
cash allowance, partly subsidized by the city, in lieu of a parking space
III. Encouraging business interests to subsidize their employees to utilize nearby, vacant
public parking in lieu of an onsite parking space
IV. Providing free downtown mass transit
(A) I, III
(B) II
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B”
Giving commuters the choice between a parking subsidy or its cash equivalent shows even free
parking has an opportunity cost—the forgone cash. The option to cash out thus raises the
effective price of commuter parking without charging for it. The cash option converts employerpaid parking from a matching grant for driving to work into a cash grant for commuting.
Commuters can continue to park free at work, but the cash option also rewards commuters who
carpool, walk, bike, or ride public transit to work.
California enacted a parking cash-out requirement in 1992. The law requires many
employers to offer a parking cash-out program: “Parking cash-out program” means an
employer-funded program, under which an employer offers to provide a cash allowance to
an employee equivalent to the parking subsidy that the employer would otherwise pay to
provide the employee with a parking space. . . . “Parking subsidy” means the
difference between the out-of-pocket amount paid by an employer on a regular basis in
order to secure the availability of an employee parking space not owned by the employer and
the price, if any, charged to an employee for the use of that space.
http://shoup.bol.ucla.edu/Parking%20Cash%20Out%20Report.pdf
https://www.arb.ca.gov/planning/tsaq/cashout/cashout.htm
(45) Adverse possession:
(A) Requires access to a public way over adjacent land if crossing that land is absolutely
necessary to reach a landlocked parcel and there has been some original intent to
provide the lot with access, and the grant was never completed or recorded but is
thought to exist
(B) Is a situation when a person who does not have legal title to land occupies the land
without the permission of the legal owner
(C) Is an implied easement granted after the dominant estate has used the property in a
hostile, continuous and open manner for a statutorily prescribed number of years.
(D) Is a power invested in a qualified private land conservation organization (often called a
“land trust”) or government (municipal, county, state or federal) to constrain, as to a
specified land area, the exercise of rights otherwise held by a landowner so as to
achieve certain conservation purposes
The correct answer is “B”
Adverse possession is a situation when a person who does not have legal title to land (or real
property) occupies the land without the permission of the legal owner. The permission of the
owner may be reflected in the entering into a lease or granting a licence, typically associated
with the payment of some rent. The laws of many countries allow the adverse possessor (in law
also called the disseisor) to acquire title to the land after a prescribed statutory period, which
varies between jurisdictions, and depend on the type of land and other circumstances. The laws
of most jurisdictions do not permit claims of adverse possession against public land. Squatting
(aka Squatter’s Rights) is a form of adverse possession. The adverse possessor is usually
required to prove non-permissive use which is actual, open and notorious, exclusive, adverse,
and continuous for the statutory period. If a claim to title by adverse possession is successful,
title is acquired without compensation.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adverse_possession
(46) According to Aristotle, the proper design of Greek cities should:
A) Emphasize aesthetics, to promote beauty
B) Be functionally situated to shade from summer heat and provide access to winter sun
C) Preserve the haphazard arrangement of earlier times to make it more difficult for
invaders to fight their way in
D) Incorporate a grid pattern to encourage commerce and ease of movement
The correct answer is C)
Aristotle was a critic of Hippodamus’ idea of straight streets and a gridded layout. He argued
that, while a town planned in a grid is certainly more visually appealing than a haphazardly
planned urban area, the latter is better for deterring invaders. If a city is infiltrated, the
trespassers would easily be able to navigate through the streets if they are planned out in an
orderly way. However, poorly planned streets are much easier to get lost in, and intruders not
familiar with the city would be at a loss in such a place. Basically, orderly planning is good for
beauty, haphazard planning (or lack thereof) is better for security.
See: http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/CityPlan.htm
http://www.academia.edu/4378826/Centenary_Paper_Plan_and_constitution_Aristotle_s
_Hippodamus_towards_an_ostensive_definition_of_spatial_planning_2009
From: https://desktopexplorer.wordpress.com/tag/hippodamus-of-miletus/
(47) A planning director appointed by a mayor (as opposed to one hired by a City
Manager):
I. The planner appointed by the mayor will be the best planner available
II. The planner appointed by the mayor serves at the pleasure of the mayor
III. The planner appointed by the mayor will be someone who supported the mayor
politically
IV. The planner appointed by the mayor may be fired by the City Manager
(A) I, II, IV
(B) II
(C) I, IV
(D) II, III
The best answer is “B”
Planning Directors hired by a Council, Commission or Mayor typically report directly to the
Council, Commission or Mayor hiring them, and serve “at will”.
(48) Prescriptive Easement:
(A) Requires access to a public way over adjacent land if crossing that land is absolutely
necessary to reach a landlocked parcel and there has been some original intent to
provide the lot with access, and the grant was never completed or recorded but is
thought to exist
(B) Is a situation when a person who does not have legal title to land occupies the land
without the permission of the legal owner
(C) Is an implied easement granted after the dominant estate has used the property in a
hostile, continuous and open manner for a statutorily prescribed number of years.
(D) Is a power invested in a qualified private land conservation organization (often called a
“land trust”) or government (municipal, county, state or federal) to constrain, as to a
specified land area, the exercise of rights otherwise held by a landowner so as to
achieve certain conservation purposes
The correct answer is “C”
Easements by prescription, also called prescriptive easements, are implied easements granted
after the dominant estate has used the property in a hostile, continuous and open manner for a
statutorily prescribed number of years (e.g. school children cutting across my backyard for 20
years). Prescriptive easements differ from adverse possession by not requiring exclusivity. Laws
and regulations vary among local and national governments, but some traits are common to
most prescription laws:
* open and notorious (i.e. obvious to anyone)
* actual, continuous (i.e., uninterrupted for the entire required time period); this does not
necessarily require use daily, weekly, etc.
* adverse to the rights of the true property owner
* hostile (i.e. in opposition to the claim of another; this can be accidental, not “hostile” in
the common sense)
* continuous for a period of time defined by statute or appellate case law
Answer “A” is easement by necessity; “B” is adverse possession; “D” is a conservation
easement.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Easement#Express_easement
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conservation_easement
(49) For many years, a dispute has ensued between leaders of a federally recognized
American Indian Tribe and the Governor’s office and state legislature regarding activities
on Tribal property. The Governor and members of the legislature seek to regulate land
uses occurring on the reservation, particularly those relating to minimum lot sizes. The
Tribe maintains that the state has no jurisdiction. In an action to enforce zoning
regulations on Tribal property, the state will:
(A) Likely win if it can prove a link between health, safety, and welfare and zoning
enactments
(B) Likely win regardless of the linkage under a state supremacy argument
(C) Likely lose under a federal supremacy argument
(D) Likely lose unless the state can prove all Tribes are similarly treated under the state’s
mandated provisions
The correct answer is C)
While state governments have the right and responsibility to regulate and/or protect the health,
safety, and welfare of all persons within its borders, there is one important exception: Indian
affairs. The regulation and management of Tribal property is delegated to Congress by the
United States Constitution, article I, section 8. No state (or local) government can exert
regulatory jurisdiction without consent by the Tribe. Interesting land use problems arise where
the state or abutting local government seeks to protect natural resource systems that lie within
Tribal property, or vice-versa. As the Tribe has no jurisdiction over lands outside their
Reservation properties, seemingly endless land use conflicts can arise, particularly with respect
to wetlands, groundwater, and surface water management
(50) The Telecommunications Act of 1996:
I. Preempts local regulation of cell tower radio frequency emission effects
II. Requires zoning decisions be in writing and supported by substantial evidence
III. Preempts the state regulation of cell towers
IV. Requires local decisions be based on expert testimony
(A) I, II
(B) III, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (A)
The Telecommunications Act does not preempt ALL state or local regulation of cell towers, but
only preempts the regulation of the “environmental effects of radio frequency emissions”. The
Act requires that decisions be based on “substantial evidence” supporting a municipality’s cell
tower zoning decisions, and does not “require” expert testimony.
SOURCE: APA’s Telecommunications: Federal Cell Tower Zoning - Key Points and Practical
Suggestions; “Zoning Practice” (August 2011)
(51) A Complete Street is best described as:
A) A street that promotes New Urbanism principles and has on-street parking
B) A street that incorporates green infrastructure, TOD and walkability
C) A street that ensures safe, healthy, convenient and comfortable travel and access for all
users
D) A street that uses green infrastructure, TOD, walkability, Woonerfs and Wayfinding.
The correct answer is “C”
Complete Streets is a transportation policy and design approach that requires streets to be
planned, designed, operated, and maintained to enable safe, convenient and comfortable travel
and access for users of all ages and abilities regardless of their mode of transportation.
APA Planning Advisory Service (PAS) Report 559: Complete Streets: Best Policy and
Implementation Practices (March 2010).
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Complete_streets
https://www.planning.org/media/document/9006906/
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026883/
(52) Economic base analysis evaluates local government development conditions to
determine future development options. Which of the following elements are included?
I. An assessment of local economic growth potential in relation to evolving regional,
national, and international economic and demo-graphic trends.
II. An inventory of existing real estate market conditions.
III. A projection of future trends in job growth, personal income, and other relevant
economic variable.
IV. A study of unemployment and ethnicity.
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I, II, and III
(D) I, III and IV
The correct answer is “C”
Economic base analysis is the study of cities and regions which focuses on basic service
(export) ratios, the ratio of employment in basic activities to employment in non-basic activities
which utilizes economic multipliers. Basic industries are defined as local or regional industries
with an industry employment / total employment ratio higher than the national ratio for the
industry (note: this can include industries such as “Finance, insurance, and real estate”). Non
basic industries have a lower industry employment total employment ratio than the nation.
Varies with the size of community: the larger the community, the larger the multiplier (more
places to spend money). Service economies can export knowledge/service. Once basic
employment is identified, the outlook for future basic employment is investigated sector by
sector and future projections are made sector by sector. In turn, this permits the projection of
future total employment in the region. For example: If there is one export job which creates
three total jobs in the community, then a multiplier of three says that for every export job
created, a total of three jobs are created. This would be an economic base multiplier of 1:3.
Helps to show areas of specialization within a community.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economic_base_analysis
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Guide, Quantitative Methods, p. 161.
APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); pp. 507-508.
(53) What is the smallest census geographic unit with 100% tabulation of data?
(A) Consolidated MSA
(B) Census Tract
(C) Census Block
(D) Place
The correct answer is “C”
A census block is the smallest geographic unit used by the United States Census Bureau for
tabulation of 100-percent data (data collected from all houses, rather than a sample of houses).
Census blocks are grouped into block groups, which are grouped into census tracts. There are
on average about 39 blocks per block group. Blocks are typically bounded by streets, roads or
creeks. In cities, a census block may correspond to a city block, but in rural areas where there
are fewer roads, blocks may be limited by other features. The population of a census block
varies greatly from zero to hundreds, but has an average size of about 100 people.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Census_block
(54) This 1915 U.S. Supreme Court case first upheld the use of Police Power for
regulating the location of land uses:
(A) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co.
(B) Hadacheck v. Sebastian
(C) Eubank v. City of Richmond
(D) Welch v. Swasey
The correct answer is “B”
In HADACHECK v. SEBASTIAN (1915), the court first approved regulating the location of land
uses. City of Los Angeles passed an ordinance barring brick manufacturing within the
residential section of city. The Petitioner, Hadacheck, owned land that was annexed into the city
and which contained valuable clay deposits. After erecting expensive machinery for the
manufacture of bricks of fine quality which were being used for building purposes in and about
the City, he was convicted of a misdemeanor violation of the ordinance prohibiting the
establishment or operation of a brick kiln within the City Limits. The court ruled that under the
police power, a state may validly declare a particular business to be a nuisance under the facts
and circumstances (i.e. brickmaking within a designated area), as it relates to public health.
Supreme Court Justice McKenna, writing for a unanimous court, upheld that the ordinance was
a legitimate use of the police power. He analogized this case to an earlier one, Reinman v. Little
Rock, 237 U.S. 171 (1915), which dealt with a similar ordinance banning livery stables.
Reinman was distinguishable on the grounds that a livery stable could be moved and operated
anywhere, while bricks can only be manufactured where suitable clay is found. Hadacheck
contended that the removal of clay from his land was not physically impossible, but was
prohibitively expensive. The Court held that even though relocating the brick factory would be
costly, the ordinance did not amount to a complete denial of the use of Hadacheck’s property,
because the ordinance did not completely deny Hadacheck the use of the clay on his land.
In WELCH v. SWASEY (1909), the court first approved building height controls. In EUBANK v.
CITY OF RICHMOND (1912), the court first approved setback regulations, although it
overturned the particular setback scheme in this case. In VILLAGE OF EUCLID v. AMBLER
REALTY CO. (1926), the Court stated that modern zoning is a proper use of the police power.
In doing so, the court brought together all the other cases mentioned in this question. Alfred
Bettman filed a brief with the court that largely changed its mind over Euclid.
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Manual, p. 62.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadacheck_v._Sebastian
https://www.txplanning.org/media/files/page/Planning_Case_Law.pdf
(55) A process where citizens address themselves to proposals through workshop
formats that involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a
conversation in full view of a larger group of listeners?
(A) Fishbowl
(B) Drop in Centers
(C) Design in
(D) Delphi Technique
The correct answer is “A“
Fishbowls involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a conversation
in full view of a larger group of listeners. Fishbowl processes provide a creative way to include
the “public” in a small group discussion. They can be used in a wide variety of settings, including
workshops, conferences, organizational meetings and public assemblies. Fishbowls are useful
for ventilating “hot topics” or sharing ideas or information from a variety of perspectives. When
the people in the middle are public officials or other decision-makers, this technique can help
bring transparency to the decision-making process and increase trust and understanding about
complex issues. In an open fishbowl, any member of the audience can, at any time, occupy the
empty chair and join the fishbowl. When this happens, an existing member of the fishbowl must
voluntarily leave the fishbowl and free a chair. The discussion continues with participants
frequently entering and leaving the fishbowl.
http://www.kstoolkit.org/Fish+Bowl
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fishbowl_(conversation)
2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 122
(56) The City Beautiful movement spurred the development of:
(A) Multi-modal infrastructure
(B) Civic structures
(C) Skyscrapers/Skylines
(D) Sprawling city cores
The correct answer is “B”
The City Beautiful Movement was a reform philosophy of North American architecture and
urban planning that flourished during the 1890s and 1900s with the intent of introducing
beautification and monumental grandeur in cities. The movement first gained ground in 1893
with the World’s Columbian Exposition in Chicago. Daniel H. Burnham headed the construction
of the fair’s temporary city, known to those who attended as the “White City,” a semi-utopia in
which visitors were meant to be shielded from poverty and crime. Burnham’s plans for the site
incorporated the designs of architects trained at the École des Beaux-Arts in Paris, who paired
the balance and harmony of Neoclassical and Baroque architecture with the aesthetic of
Chicago’s buildings and cityscape. City Beautiful was characterized by the belief that if you
improved form, function would follow. In other words, an attractive city would perform better than
an unattractive one. Beauty came from what Burnham called “municipal art” – magnificent
parks, elaborately designed civic buildings, wide boulevards, and public gathering places
adorned with fountains and monuments.
An early use of the City Beautiful ideal with the intent of creating social order through
beautification was the McMillan Plan, (1902) named for Michigan Senator James McMillan. The
plan emerged from the Senate Park Commission’s redesigning of the monumental core of
Washington, D.C. to commemorate the city’s centennial and to fulfill unrealized aspects of the
city plan of Pierre Charles L’Enfant a century earlier. The Washington planners, who included
Burnham, Saint-Gaudens, Charles McKim of McKim, Mead, and White, and Frederick Law
Olmsted, Jr., visited many of the great cities of Europe. They hoped to make Washington
monumental and green like the European capitals of the era; they believed that state-organized
beautification could lend legitimacy to government during a time of social disturbance in the
United States. The essence of the plan surrounded the United States Capitol with monumental
government buildings to replace “notorious slum communities”. At the heart of the design was
the creation of the National Mall and eventually included Burnham’s Union Station.
https://www.britannica.com/topic/City-Beautiful-movement
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/City_Beautiful_movement
http://www.encyclopedia.chicagohistory.org/pages/61.html
http://science.howstuffworks.com/environmental/green-science/urban-planning1.htm
(57) Metropolitan Planning Organizations (MPO), are typically responsible for which of
the following?
I. Coordinating regional transportation planning
II. Certifying that a project to be federally funded will be consistent with regional plans or
regional development goals.
III. Regulating land use and the construction of freeways.
IV Planning for air quality
A) I, IV
B) II, III
C) I, II, IV
D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”.
Federal legislation passed in the early 1970s required the formation of a Metropolitan Planning
Organization (MPO) for any urbanized area (UA) with a population greater than 50,000. MPOs
were created in order to ensure that existing and future expenditures for transportation projects
and programs were based on a continuing, cooperative and comprehensive (3-C) planning
process. Federal funding for transportation projects and programs is channeled through the
MPO. MPOs in air quality nonattainment and maintenance areas are required to ensure that
emissions from transportation investments will not cause new violations or affect an area’s
schedule to attain the air quality standards. The Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1990 identifies the
actions states and MPOs must take to reduce emissions from on-road mobile sources in
nonattainment and maintenance areas.
http://www.planning.dot.gov/documents/briefingbook/bbook.htm#4BB
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metropolitan_planning_organization
http://www.h-gac.com/taq/airquality/faq/
(58) Which of the following federal programs was enacted to resuscitate impoverished
neighborhoods by providing new housing and decent jobs for the unemployed?
A) Block Grant Program.
B) Section 8 Housing Program.
C) Empowerment Zones: Enterprise Communities Program.
D) Social Security Program.
The correct answer is C)
Introduced in 1993, the Empowerment Zone (EZ), Enterprise Community (EC), and Renewal
Community (RC) Initiatives sought to reduce unemployment and generate economic growth
through the designation of Federal tax incentives and award of grants to distressed
communities. The monies for the first round of Empowerment Zones and Enterprise
Communities have been criticized for undertaking more community development activities in
areas such as education, housing, and infrastructure than they did economic opportunity
activities such as job training and assistance to businesses.
http://portal.hud.gov/hudportal/HUD?src=/program_offices/comm_planning/economicdevelopment/programs/rc
http://www.gao.gov/new.items/d06727.pdf
(59) Universal Design involves:
I. The design of the built environment and products usable by all persons
II. Without the need for specialized adaptations or design
III. Striving to make the design of places and products equally appealing to all
IV. The creation of products only to be used by the disabled.
A) I, IV
B) I, II, III, IV
C) II, III, IV
D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “D”.
Universal design refers to broad-spectrum ideas meant to produce buildings, products and
environments that are inherently accessible to both people without disabilities and people with
disabilities. The term “Universal design” was coined by the architect Ronald L. Mace to describe
the concept of designing all products and the built environment to be aesthetic and usable to the
greatest extent possible by everyone, regardless of their age, ability, or status in life. Universal
Design involves making our homes and cities accessible to all people. Source: APA Planning
Magazine April 2002, “What Difference has the ADA Made?” by Terry S. Szold, page 12.
(60) Early 20th century zoning focused on:
(A) Providing affordable housing
(B) Creating jobs and employment
(C) Preventing sprawl
(D) Protecting home values
The correct answer is “D”
The primary purpose of zoning is to segregate uses that are thought to be incompatible. In
practice, zoning also is used to prevent new development from interfering with (or being a
nuisance to) existing uses and/or to preserve the “character” of a community, especially
residential property values. The introduction of zoning in the early 1900s launched a revolution
in American land use regulation and planning. Beginning with height regulations in Washington,
D.C., in 1899, efforts to control the type and intensity of land use spread to many cities. In 1908,
Los Angeles adopted the nation’s first use of a zoning ordinance to protect its expanding
residential areas from industrial nuisances. Over the next two decades, state legislatures nation
wide granted to cities the power “to regulate the height, area, location, and use of buildings in
any designated part or parts of their corporation limits.” The U.S. Supreme Court’s sanction of
this exercise of a city’s police power over land use came first in Hadacheck v. Sebastian
(1915), which involved the Los Angeles ordinance, and culminated in the definitive Village of
Euclid v. Ambler Realty Corporation case in 1926.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zoning
https://www.dartmouth.edu/~wfischel/Papers/WAF-zoning%20ELEpdf.pdf
https://www.asu.edu/courses/aph294/total-readings/silver%20–%20racialoriginsofzoning.pdf
(61) Republican Senator George Norris of Nebraska is notable for ensuring Congress
pass:
(A) The 1964 Civil Rights Act
(B) The 1954 Housing Act
(C) The 1933 Tennessee Valley Authority charter
(D) The 1901 plan for the mall of Washington, D.C.
The correct answer is “C”
Nebraska’s Republican George Norris, the man many consider history’s “greatest United States
senator,” served in the Senate for 30 years, and throughout the New Deal era, he regularly
collaborated with President Franklin Roosevelt. His greatest legislative monument was passage
of the Tennessee Valley Authority charter, to establish a federally owned corporation to provide
navigation, flood control, electricity generation, fertilizer manufacturing, and economic
development to the Tennessee Valley, a region particularly affected by the Great Depression,
but which did not include Nebraska.
https://www.senate.gov/artandhistory/history/minute/George_Norris.htm
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_W._Norris#Senator
(62) The Mugler v Kansas Supreme Court case:
A) Upheld the state’s use of “police power”
B) Was the first case to find a “taking”
C) Upheld the constitutionality of the Morrill Act
D) Found an unconstitutional restriction on first amendment speech.
The correct answer is “A”
The Mugler v. Kansas (1887) Supreme Court decision held that a state’s legislation prohibiting
the manufacture of intoxicating liquor within its jurisdiction does not infringe on any right or
privilege secured by the Constitution of the United States, including the 14th amendment, was
not a taking, and found that the authority for the statute strictly relied upon Kansas’s police
power.
See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mugler_v._Kansas
http://www.oyez.org/cases/1851-1900/1887/1887_0
(63) The hallmarks of a Third Place:
I. Maximizes the amount of residential, business and leisure space within walking distance
of public transport
II. Are open and readily accessible to those who occupy them
III. Involves regulars
IV. Typically located within a radius of ¼ to ½ mile (400 to 800 m) around a central transit
stop
(A) II, III
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “A”
In community building, the third place (or third space) is the social surroundings separate from
the two usual social environments of home (“first place”) and the office (“second place”).
Examples of third places would be environments such as cafes, clubs, public libraries, or parks.
In his influential book The Great Good Place, Ray Oldenburg argues that third places are
important for civil society, democracy, civic engagement, and establishing feelings of a sense of
place, and have the following hallmarks:
* Free or inexpensive
* Food and drink, while not essential, are important
* Highly accessible: proximate for many (walking distance)
* Involve regulars – those who habitually congregate there
* Welcoming and comfortable
* Both new friends and old should be found there
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_place
https://www.planetizen.com/node/90616/third-space-first
(64) Superblock is a concept most often associated with:
I. Le Corbusier’s Radiant City
II. Clarence Perry’s “Neighborhood Unit”
III. Radburn, New Jersey
IV. Urban renewal public housing projects
(A) I, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
In 1929, Clarence Perry developed the neighborhood unit plan in response to the advent of the
automobile and was also an attempt to identify the local community as a separate entity with its
own qualities and needs. The neighborhood unit was to be distinct enclave, separate from the
rest of the city. Perry’s idea was to create homogeneous “superblocks” separating vehicular and
pedestrian traffic; providing ample open space; and developing community life around the
neighborhood school. Perry’s concept was the basis for the development of the widely
acclaimed plan for Radburn, New Jersey, which incorporated Perry’s concepts - the superblock,
interior park, higher density clustering near the parkland, and hierarchial traffic separation. Le
Corbusier’s “The Radiant City” (1935) envisioned a city laid out in a near perfect grid of
superblocks, which became the basis for much of the public housing projects later built in the
United States
(65) Right-to-farm laws are typically about:
(A) Governmental takings
(B) Coming to the nuisance
(C) Combating urban sprawl
(D) Agricultural inverse condemnation
The correct answer is (B)
Right-to-farm laws are designed to accomplish one or both of the following objectives: (1) to
strengthen the legal position of farmers when neighbors sue them for private nuisance; and (2)
to protect farmers from anti-nuisance ordinances and unreasonable controls on farming
operations. In most states, “coming to the nuisance” does not necessarily prevent farm
neighbors from winning in court, but a farmer usually has a stronger legal case if his or her
operation was there before the plaintiff moved to the area. Right-to-farm laws give farmers a
legal defense against nuisance suits; the strength of that defense depends on the provisions of
the law and the circumstances of the case.
http://www.farmland.org/programs/states/wa/documents/APPENDIXI-Righttofarmlaws.pdf
(66) Which of the following is an alternative to optimization for cases where there are
multiple and competing objectives in which one gives up the idea of obtaining a “best”
solution?
A) Satisficing
B) Correlation
C) LOS
D) Brainstorming
The correct answer is “A”
Satisficing is a method for making a choice from a set of alternatives encountered sequentially
when one does not know much about the possibilities ahead of time. In such instances, there
may be no optimal solution for when to stop searching for further alternatives. Satisficing takes
the shortcut of setting an adjustable aspiration level and ending the search for alternatives as
soon as one is encountered that exceeds the aspiration level. Source: www.argospress.com
(67) St. Louis, Pittsburgh, and Louisville have interesting histories, dating back to the
late 1700s and the Treaties of Fontainbleau and Paris. Among other commonalties, these
three cities:
A) all were built on rivers
B) all were ceded to the United States by Spain
C) all were industrial cities
D) all of the above
The correct answer is A)
All three cities were built on rivers. St. Louis on the Mississippi River, Pittsburgh on the
Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers, and Louisville on the Ohio River.
(68) When a bill is first introduced in Congress, it:
(A) Is sent to both houses
(B) Undergoes its initial vote
(C) Is referred to committee
(D) Is routed to the Congressional Budget Office
The correct answer is “C”
Upon reading the introduced bill, if no objection heard, the bill is considered read twice, and
Is referred to the appropriate committee. Bills may be referred to more than one committee and
it may be split so that parts are sent to different committees. Once passed in one house of
Congress, the bill is sent to the other house for consideration. If the other house passes a
different version of the bill, the bill may be subject to a conference committee to develop a
compromise before going back to both houses for a vote.
https://votesmart.org/education/how-a-bill-becomes-law#.WdL-hjCQzIU
https://www.senate.gov/reference/resources/pdf/legprocessflowchart.pdf
(99) The street segment shown below is best described as:
[sourcethestation.com]
A) An Arterial
B) A Parklet
C) A Chicane
D) A Pocket Park
The correct answer is “D”
A pocket park is a small park accessible to the general public, often created on a single vacant
building lot or on small, irregular pieces of land. Pocket parks can be urban, suburban or rural,
and can be on public or private land. Although they are too small for physical activities, pocket
parks provide greenery, a place to sit outdoors, and sometimes a children’s playground. They
may be created around a monument, historic marker or art project.
Parklets are miniature parks, effectively sited on underused public pavement such as parking
spaces and serving as an extension of the sidewalk to provide amenities and green space for
people using the street. The basic parklet is a platform with benches, chairs, and planters.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pocket_park
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parklet
(105) The mayor asks you, as Planning Director, to undertake a survey of the voting age
residents in Metropolis (i.e. 200,000) to ascertain their support for a new $10 million
Parks and Recreation bond issue. Using a random sampling technique, the reasonable
number of residents to be surveyed, in order to obtain 95% confidence in a small margin
of error (i.e. 2-4%), would be approximately:
(A) 200
(B) 1,000
(C) 10,000
(D) 20,000
The correct answer is “B”
How large should your sample be? Should you survey 1%, 5%, or 10% of your population?
Well, this depends largely on how accurate you want your survey data to be. In other words,
how closely you want your results to match those of the entire population. There are two
measures that affect the accurateness of the data.
* First of all there is the margin of error (or confidence intervals). In short, this is the
positive and negative deviation you allow on your survey results for the sample. Or, in
other words, the deviation between the opinions of your respondents and the opinion of
the entire population. An example will shed some light on this statistical explanation.
Suppose you set your margin of error on 5%. If 60% of your survey respondents like the
bond issue, a 5% margin of error means that you can be ‘sure’ that between 55% (60%-
5) and 65% (60%+5) of the entire population actually likes the bond issue.
* Second there is the confidence level. This tells you how often the percentage of the
population that likes the Parks and Recreation bond issue actually lies within the
boundaries of the margin of error. Here it would tell you how sure you can be that
between 55% and 65% of the population likes the bond issue campaign. Suppose you
chose the 95% confidence level – which is pretty much the standard in quantitative
research – then in 95% of the time between 55% and 65% of the population likes the
Parks and Recreation bond issue.
Both of these issues affect the needed sample size. As a general rule of thumb, a good
maximum sample size is usually around 10% of the population, as long as this does not exceed
1000. For example, in a population of 200,000, 10% would be 20,000. This exceeds 1000, so in
this case the maximum would be 1000. Even in a population of 200,000, sampling 1000 people
will normally give a fairly accurate result. Sampling more than 1000 people won’t add much to
the accuracy given the extra time and money it would cost (see figure below to understand how
margin of error varies with sample size to better understand this concept).
http://www.tools4dev.org/resources/how-to-choose-a-sample-size/
https://www.surveymonkey.com/mp/sample-size-calculator/
https://onlinecourses.science.psu.edu/stat100/node/17
https://www.checkmarket.com/blog/how-to-estimate-your-population-and-survey-sample-size/
https://onlinecourses.science.psu.edu/stat100/node/17
(108) A new planner is undertaking a work and non-work travel behavior study in a
metropolitan area of 2 million population for the month of July. When he charts the
results of this study on an X and Y chart for presentation to the Planning Director, the
dependent variable would consist of:
(A) The month of July
(B) Number of trips per hour
(C) Number of trips per day
(D) Time of Day
The correct answer is “B”
The dependent variable is exactly what it sounds like. It is something that depends on other
factors. For example, a test score could be a dependent variable because it could change
depending on several factors such as how much you studied, how much sleep you got the night
before you took the test, or even how hungry you were when you took it. Usually when you are
looking for a relationship between two things you are trying to find out what makes the
dependent variable change the way it does. Here, the number of work vs. non-work trips per
hour is dependent on the time of day (the independent variable - see chart below), and the
dependent variable is plotted on the Y-axis (north-south), and the independent variable is
plotted on the X-axis (east-west):
https://nces.ed.gov/nceskids/help/user_guide/graph/variables.asp
https://mynasadata.larc.nasa.gov/glossary/dependent-variable-2/
(113) Degree levels on Arnstein’s Ladder are:
I. Citizen Power
II. Tokenism
III. Non-participation
IV. Community Involvement
(A) II, III
(B) I, II, IV
(C) III, IV
(D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “D”
http://pages.uoregon.edu/rgp/PPPM613/class10theory.htm
(165) What land use has the highest traffic/trip peak in morning and late afternoon?
(A) Residential
(B) Office
(C) Retail
(D) Industrial
The correct answer is “A”
The morning and afternoon traffic peaks both have trip ends that are home-based for many of
the trips, even if they’re going and coming from work (i.e. office, retail, industrial). These are
known as Home-Based Work (HBW) trips.
http://media.tmiponline.org/clearinghouse/FHWA-HEP-10-042/ch8.htm
