H 2023 Flashcards
(1) The LEAST predictable type of zoning approach for comprehensive plan implementation is:
(A) Euclidian
(B) Performance
(C) SmartCode
(D) Form-based code
The correct answer is (A)
“Euclidian and conditional zoning are both highly unpredictable for plan implementation. From its
inception in 1973, performance zoning was based on a philosophy and process of writing standards to
implement comprehensive plan elements. When a new planning problem or element arises, the
performance approach requires new standards be written to solve it. Form-based zoning is an
improvement over Euclidean and conditional zoning, but it is less efficient, certain, and flexible than
performance zoning. “
SOURCES:
The Effect of Zoning Systems on Plan Implementation Zoning Practice 2018-08 by Lane Kendig.
(2) A shadow study would be BEST utilized to:
(A) Illustrate urban design
(B) Analyze solar access
(C) Learn about an area’s homeless population
(D) Study Smart City digital twin
The correct answer is (B)
The shadow analysis allows a designer to study the amount of solar access to different parts of the site
and building design. In new construction or renovation, it is important to assess the impact of physical
obstructions and their effect on the access to direct solar radiation in not just the current conditions but
also future conditions. Many zoning requirements include having a shadow study to show how a new
building has an impact on the existing conditions. Here are 5 ways designers can use shadow analysis to
inform design:
* Assessing impact from neighboring buildings, trees, etc.
* Understanding self-shading
* Addressing impacts on outdoor patio and swimming pool locations
* Maintaining access to sun and healthy trees in urban green spaces
* Addressing impacts on landscaping plant selection
SOURCES:
https://www.cove.tools/5-ways-shadow-studies-can-impact-your-design
(3) The first New Urbanist town in the U.S. is considered to be:
(A) Greenbelt
(B) Columbia
(C) Seaside
(D) Riverside
The correct answer is (C)
Seaside, Fla., became the first new urbanist town in the United States when it began development on an
80-acre parcel of land in northwest Florida in 1981. New urbanist towns and communities quickly
followed Seaside’s lead, sprouting up throughout the United States in places like Kentlands, Md. and
Celebration, Fla. The Congress for New Urbanism (CNU) promotes the principles of CNU’s Charter and
the hallmarks of New Urbanism, including:
* Livable streets arranged in compact, walkable blocks.
* A range of housing choices to serve people of diverse ages and income levels.
* Schools, stores and other nearby destinations reachable by walking, bicycling or transit service.
* An affirming, human-scaled public realm where appropriately designed buildings define and
enliven streets and other public spaces.
SOURCES:
https://www.hgtv.com/lifestyle/real-estate/new-urbanist-neighborhoods-a-return-to-tradition
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Urbanism#Prospect_New_Town
(4) The first step in the plan making process is:
(A) State Goals, Objectives and Priorities
(B) Collect and Interpret Data
(C) Identify Issues and Options
(D) Evaluate Impact of Plans and Implementation
The correct answer is (C)
APA considers the initial steps in the Plan Making process to be:
1. Identify Issues and Options
2. State Goals, Objectives and Priorities
3. Collect and Interpret Data
4. Prepare Plans
5. Draft Programs for Plan Implementation
6. Evaluate Impacts of Plans and Implementation Programs
7. Review and Adopt Plans
8. Review and Adopt Implementation Programs
9. Administer Implementation Programs
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards, p.3 “Plan Making”
(5) Planned Unit Developments are BEST described as:
(A) Mixed use master planned communities, excluding industrial development, that cover
thousands of acres.
(B) Mixed use master planned communities, including industrial development, that cover thousands
of acres that are an exception to the land uses allowed by the General Plan.
(C) Modest, clustered residential developments to mixed-use master planned communities,
approved exclusively as a conditional use.
(D) Modest, clustered residential developments to mixed-use master planned communities, often
approved through the use of overlays, as conditional uses or as a separate zoning category
The correct answer is (D).
A planned unit development (PUD) is a large, integrated development adhering to a comprehensive
plan and located on a single tract of land or on two or more tracts of land that may be separated only
by a street or other right-of-way. A PUD is a type of flexible, non-Euclidean zoning device that redefines
the land uses allowed within a stated land area. PUDs consist of master site planned areas that promote
the creation of open spaces, mixed-use housing and land uses, environmental preservation and
sustainability, and development flexibility. Planned unit developments can take many forms, ranging
from modest residential developments where housing units are clustered and open space is provided, to
mixed use master planned communities, including industrial development, that cover thousands of
acres. In most states a PUD provision can be made part of the zoning ordinance, even as a separate land
use category; other communities permit a PUD through a discretionary review process, such as a
conditional or special use permit or overlay.
SOURCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planned_unit_development
PAS QuickNote 22: “Understanding Planned Unit Development”
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007619/
(6) Environmental scanning would BEST be used to:
(A) Identify the critical habitats of threatened and endangered species subject to the Endangered
Species Act.
(B) Survey and interpret data to identify external opportunities and threats that could influence
future decisions.
(C) Analyze contamination at a brownfield site to determine whether it is significant enough to
qualify the site as a Superfund site.
(D) Field verify data used to quantify Total Maximum Daily Load (TMDL) targets for a watershed.
The correct answer is (B)
The practice of environmental scanning is often a first step in the strategic planning process. Typically,
planning teams engage in an exhaustive analysis of the internal and external forces acting on the
institution to set the planning context. Environmental scanning is a process that systematically surveys
and interprets relevant data to identify external opportunities and threats that could influence future
decisions. It is closely related to a S.W.O.T. (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) analysis and
should be used as part of the strategic planning process.
SOURCES:
https://www.shrm.org/resourcesandtools/tools-and-samples/hr-qa/pages/basics-of-environmentalscanning.aspx
https://www.scup.org/resource/5-ways-to-use-environmental-scanning/
(7) The mission of the Bureau of Reclamation is BEST stated as:
(A) To manage, develop, and protect water and related resources in an environmentally and
economically sound manner in the interest of the American public
(B) To protect human health and the environment.
(C) To deliver vital engineering solutions, in collaboration with our partners, to secure our Nation,
energize our economy, and reduce disaster risk.
(D) To enhance the safety, health, and environmental impact of mining and processing of minerals
and materials
The correct answer is (A)
Answer (B) is the mission statement for the Environmental Protection Agency; answer (C) is the mission
statement for the Army Corps of Engineers; answer (D) is the mission statement for the now defunct
U.S. Bureau of Mines (abolished 1996).
Established in 1902, the Bureau of Reclamation is best known for the dams, powerplants, and canals it
constructed in the 17 western states. These water projects led to homesteading and promoted the
economic development of the West. Reclamation has constructed more than 600 dams and reservoirs
including Hoover Dam on the Colorado River and Grand Coulee on the Columbia River. Today, the
Bureau is the largest wholesaler of water in the country, bringing water to more than 31 million people,
and provide one out of five Western farmers (140,000) with irrigation water for 10 million acres of
farmland.
SOURCES:
https://www.usbr.gov/main/about/mission.html
(8) The second step in traditional four-step transportation forecasting model:
(A) Mode Choice
(B) Route Assignment
(C) Trip Distribution
(D) Trip Generation
The correct answer is (C)
Trip distribution is the second component in the traditional four-step transportation forecasting model.
Trip distribution matches origins with destinations, often using a gravity model function, equivalent to
an entropy maximizing model.
The four steps of the classical urban transportation planning system model are:
1. Trip generation determines the frequency of origins or destinations of trips in each zone by trip
purpose, as a function of land uses and household demographics, and other socio-economic
factors.
2. Trip distribution matches origins with destinations, often using a gravity model function,
equivalent to an entropy maximizing model.
3. Mode choice computes the proportion of trips between each origin and destination that use a
particular transportation mode (e.g. walking, bicycles, cars, bus, train).
4. Route assignment allocates trips between an origin and destination by a particular mode to a
route, wherein each driver chooses the shortest (travel time) path, subject to every other driver
doing the same.
SOURCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transportation_forecasting
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trip_distribution
(9) The American Petroleum Institute’s position on greenhouse gas production and climate change
could BEST be described as:
(A) Being a party to the 2015 Paris Climate Accords
(B) Reducing greenhouse gas emissions through industry-led solutions
(C) Reducing reliance in petroleum products once scientists prove that climate change is
demonstrated to be largely man-made and creating significant worldwide impacts
(D) Embracing the U.S. transition over the next two decades to all electric vehicles
The correct answer is (B)
The American Petroleum Institute’s position on greenhouse emissions and climate change is that it will
lead by providing platforms for industry action to:
* Reduce greenhouse gas emissions through industry-led solutions, and
* Actively work on policies that address the risks of climate change while meeting the global
need for a�ordable, reliable and sustainable energy.
The Paris Climate Accords are a legally binding international treaty between nations, not NGOs. The
science consensus for over a decade has been that “Observations throughout the world make it clear
that climate change is occurring, and rigorous scientific research demonstrates that the greenhouse
gases emitted by human activities are the primary driver.”
SOURCES:
https://www.api.org/oil-and-natural-gas/environment/climate-change
https://climate.nasa.gov/scientific-consensus/
(10) A central Florida public sector Senior Planner, AICP, takes a fulltime position with a private
consulting firm to develop a PUD application for a mixed-use development in north Florida Leon
County adjacent to his uncle’s home. The Senior Planner’s BEST course of action would be:
(A) To inform his employer that he must recuse himself from the project to ensure he doesn’t
violate AICP Ethics code conflict of interest rules.
(B) To speak to his employer about the situation.
(C) To proceed with the application as there’s no potential conflict as he’s now a private, not public
planner.
(D) To seek written consent from his employer to proceed with the project after providing written
disclosure about his uncle’s home.
The correct answer is (D)
Rule of Conduct 6 states “We shall not perform work on a project for a client or employer if, in addition
to the agreed upon compensation from our client or employer, there is a possibility for direct personal or
financial gain to us, our family members, or persons living in our household, unless our client or
employer, after full written disclosure from us, consents in writing to the arrangement.” This rule applies
to both public and private planners, and requires both written disclosure and consent.
(11) A linear population projection method is generally BEST used for a:
(A) Slow growing rural area
(B) New suburban area
(C) Expanding Central Business District
(D) Major City
The correct answer is (A)
The linear model assumes that population growth is growing at absolute equal increments per year,
decade, or other unit of time. It also assumes that growth will follow a similar pattern in future years.
When best to use: Use when the pattern of growth is similar to a straight line; it is especially useful
when projecting areas experiencing slow growth.
SOURCES:
https://www.measureevaluation.org/resources/training/online-courses-and-resources/non-certificatecourses-and-mini-tutorials/population-analysis-for-planners/lesson-6.html
(12) A Health Impact Assessment would BEST be used to:
(A) Record the known results of a clinical trial.
(B) Assess the epidemiological state of a community and project its future health outcomes.
(C) Develop the equitable costs for new medicines.
(D) Plan a new regional public hospital in the community.
The correct answer is (B)
A HIA (Health Impact Assessment) is a systematic, six-step process that determines the potential health
effects of a proposed action, such as a plan, policy, or project on neighborhoods and communities.
Epidemiology addresses the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors
relating to health of a community. A HIA is a practical approach used to judge the potential health
effects of a policy, program or project on a population, particularly on vulnerable or disadvantaged
groups. Usually, HIA utilizes knowledge gathered by basic disciplines of public health, such as
epidemiology, to outline potential health impacts and quantify them. However, HIA can work in the
opposite way as well; HIA often identifies areas where we know little about the interaction of hosts and
agents in a specific environment. In other words, HIA cannot be done without substantial contributions
from epidemiologists but can help to identify concrete relationships where we lack quantitative
knowledge and provide epidemiology with new research themes.
SOURCES:
https://www.planning.org/nationalcenters/health/planninghia/
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9148443/
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9148434/
https://www.who.int/tools/health-impact-assessments
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4340993/
(13) The techniques that best assist the visually impaired participate in the planning meeting process
include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Making online web registration and meeting materials accessible using alt-text
(B) Providing loud background audio of the meeting
(C) Having all participants introduce themselves
(D) Describing all visual materials
The correct answer is “B”
Some of the techniques that improve access for visually-impaired persons in meetings include:
1. Make any online web registration and meeting materials accessible, including ensuring that all
images are described with alt-text (which tells the computer what’s in a picture so this
information can be read by a screen reader or other assistive technology).
2. Having all meeting participants introduce themselves, which lets people who are blind know
who’s in the room with them.
3. Describing all meeting visual materials; ensuring that stand-alone visual presentations like slides,
charts, posters or photographs, are verbally describes them by each presenter.
Loud background audio may actually make it more difficult for the visually impaired to follow the
meeting proceedings, especially for those using screen readers where background noises may interfere
with their functioning.
SOURCES:
https://www.perkins.org/resource/make-your-meeting-accessible/
https://archive.ada.gov/business/accessiblemtg.htm
https://www.perkins.org/resource/seven-factors-make-websites-accessible-visually-impaired/
https://blog.zoom.us/host-more-accessible-meetings/
(14) The first step in the planning process typically involves:
(A) Stating goals, objectives and priorities
(B) Preparing plans
(C) Identifying the issues and options
(D) Collecting and interpretating data
The correct answer is “C”.
According to APA, the typical steps in the plan making process involve:
1. Identifying the issues and options
2. Stating goals, objectives and priorities
3. Collecting and interpretating data
4. Preparing plans
5. Drafting plans for program implementation
6. Evaluating impacts of plans and implementing programs
7. Reviewing and adopting plans
8. Reviewing and adopting implementation programs
9. Administering implementation programs
SOURCES:
http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/00/04717609/0471760900.pdf
http://surjonopwkub.lecture.ub.ac.id/files/2019/01/Basic_Methods_of_Policy_Analysis_and_Planing.pdf
(15) The first step in the CIP process involves:
the community’s capital facility needs, timing, costs, and project financing
The correct answer is “D”
APA considers identifying capital facility needs the first step in the Capital Improvements Program (CIP)
process. The CIP steps involve:
1. Identifying the needs for facilities, and the timing, costs, and means of financing for each project
2. Presenting the relationship of the CIP to the comprehensive plan
3. Preparing a financial analysis of the jurisdiction’s capacity to pay for new facilities
4. Setting priorities among the proposals
5. Seeking review and comment by the public on the recommended projects and priorities
6. Preparing a final capital facilities program showing projects, priorities, schedule of completion,
and methods of funding each project
7. Adopting the capital facility program by the governing body and adopting first year projects as a
capital budget as part of the annual budget
8. Reviewing the capital improvements program annually
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards, pp. 637-638; “CAPITAL IMPROVEMENTS PROGRAM”
https://planning-org-uploaded-media.s3.amazonaws.com/publication/download_pdf/PAS-MEMO-2018-
09-10.pdf
