H 2018 Flashcards
V. (1) A county planner (FAICP) pleads nolo contendere to a charge of perjury with the
judge then withholding adjudication, resulting in:
I. Revocation of their membership
II. No ethics issue, as a plea of nolo contendere is not addressed by the code and
adjudication was withheld by the judge in the case
III. A duty to immediately notify the Ethics Officer by both receipted Certified and Regular
First Class Mail of being convicted of a “serious crime”
IV. No issue, as the Ethics code applies only to AICP planners
(A) II
(B) IV
(C) I, III
(D) III
The correct answer is “C”
A FAICP member is a Fellow of the American Institute of Certified Planners and subject to the
Code of Ethics. Rule of Conduct #26 requires that “We shall not fail to immediately notify the
Ethics Officer by both receipted Certified and Regular First Class Mail if we are convicted of a
“serious crime” as defined in Section E of the Code; nor immediately following such conviction
shall we represent ourselves as Certified Planners or Members of AICP until our membership is
reinstated by the AICP Ethics Committee pursuant to the procedures in Section E of the Code.”
Part E.3. of the Ethics Code directs that perjury (i.e. false swearing under oath) is considered to
be a serious crime and that “The membership of a Certified Planner shall be revoked if the
Planner has been convicted of a “serious crime”. Membership shall be revoked whether the
conviction resulted from a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, from a verdict after trial, or
otherwise. Membership shall be revoked even if the Planner is appealing a conviction, but it will
be reinstated if the conviction is overturned upon appeal.” It doesn’t matter that adjudication was
withheld by the judge; the planner still entered a plea of nolo contendere covered by the code.
https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
https://www.planning.org/ethics/report/
I. (2) Place the following generations in order from youngest to oldest:
I. Generation X
II. Millennials
III. Baby Boomers
IV. Silent Generation
(A) I, IV, II, III
(B) IV, III, I, II
(C) II, III, I, IV
(D) II, I, III, IV
The correct answer is “D”
Millennials, also known as the Millennial Generation, Echo/Shadow Boomers (i.e.
because they are the children of Baby Boomers), or Generation Y, is the demographic cohort
following Generation X. Commentators use birth dates ranging from the early 1980s to the early
2000s.
Generation X, commonly abbreviated to Gen X, is the generation born after the Western
Post–World War II baby boom. Demographers, historians and commentators use birth dates
ranging from the early 1960s to the early 1980s.
The Baby Boomers are the generation that was born following World War II, generally
from 1946 up to 1964, a time that was marked by an increase in birth rates. In the 1960s, as the
relatively large numbers of young people became teenagers and young adults, they, and those
around them, created a very specific rhetoric around their cohort, and the change they were
bringing about.
The Silent Generation, also known as the Lucky Few, were born from approximately
1925 until 1942. It includes some who fought in World War II, most of those who fought the
Korean War and many during the Vietnam War.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generation#Western_world
III. (3) Zombie subdivisions:
I. Pose threats to safety and health
II. Commit communities to significant, long-term service costs
III. Were predominately developed illegally
IV. Are prime targets for new development planning
(A) I, III
(B) I, II, IV
(C) II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B”
Zombie subdivisions are unfinished housing developments with at least some infrastructure in
place that were left unfinished after the housing bubble burst. Some are empty, but others are
partially inhabited, requiring the delivery of public services to remote neighborhoods that
generate very little tax revenue. Such lots can also pose health and safety issues from wildfires,
flooding, erosion, water contamination, and poor emergency access. They are prime candidates
for additional planning efforts for communities seeking to regulate unfinished subdivisions; take
advantage of the already built, under-utilized, infrastructure; or to support rezoning lands to limit
the number of potential residential development entitlements.
Zoning Practice (May 2014), Zombie Slaying
I. (4) Digital billboards have become all the rage in your municipality. As Planning
Director you ask your senior staff to revise your existing sign ordinances to address:
I. Message control
II. Amortization
III. Illumination
IV. No net increase policies
(A) I, II
(B) III, IV
(C) II, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (B)
Ordinances addressing message control will likely run into significant first amendment
challenges, and the billboard industry has been highly successful at restricting the use of
amortization through both state and federal legislation (e.g. the federal Highway Beautification
Act, which was modified many years ago under industry pressure to prohibit amortization and
requires cash compensation for billboard removal).
SOURCES: APA’s Smart Sign Codes; “Zoning Practice” (April 2008); and APA’s PAS
QuickNotes #18: Regulating On-Premise Signage (2009)
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/billboards.htm
III. (5) Riparian rights:
I. Right of access for swimming, boating and fishing
II. Principal western water right law
III. Right to make reasonable use of water as it flows through or over one’s property
IV. First in time, first in right
(A) I, III
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “A”
RIPARIAN water rights (or simply riparian rights) is a system for allocating water among those
who possess land along its path. Under the riparian principle, all landowners whose properties
adjoin a body of water have the right to make reasonable use of it as it flows through, under, or
over their properties. These rights cannot be sold or transferred other than with the adjoining
land and only in reasonable quantities associated with that land. Riparian rights include such
things as the right to access for swimming, boating and fishing; the right to wharf out to a point
of navigability; the right to erect structures such as docks, piers, and boat lifts; the right to use
the water for domestic purposes; the right to accretions caused by water level fluctuations; the
right to exclusive use if the waterbody is non-navigable. Riparian rights also depend upon
“reasonable use” as it relates to other riparian owners to ensure that the rights of one riparian
owner are weighed fairly and equitably with the rights of adjacent riparian owners.
PRIOR APPROPRIATION water rights is the legal doctrine that the first person to take a
quantity of water from a water source for “beneficial use”—agricultural, industrial or household
—has the right to continue to use that quantity of water for that purpose (i.e. “First in time, First
in Right”). Subsequent users can take the remaining water for their own beneficial use provided
that they do not impinge on the rights of previous users. This doctrine developed in the western
states of the United States. These water rights are different from riparian water rights, which are
applied in the rest of the United States.
ZONING PRACTICE (August 2009); Water Rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riparian_water_rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prior-appropriation_water_rights
I. (6) Real property includes:
I. Mineral Rights
II. Light fixtures
III. Easement
IV. Vegetation
(A) II
(B) I, II
(C) I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
Real property consists of all land, structures, firmly attached and integrated equipment (such as
light fixtures or a well pump), anything growing on the land, and all “interests” in the property
which may be the right to future ownership (remainder), right to occupy for a period of time
(tenancy or life estate) the right to drill for oil, the right to get the property back (a reversion) if it
is no longer used for its current purpose (such as use for a hospital, school or city hall), use of
airspace (condominium) or an easement across another’s property. Real property should be
thought of as a group of rights like a bundle of sticks which can be divided. It is distinguished
from the other type of property, “personal property”, which is made up of movable items.
http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/real+property
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_property#USA
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_property
I. (7) The dissimilarity index:
(A) Measures the genetic diversity between two species used to determine whether two
species constitute one or two discrete species.
(B) Is a census-related term that measures the relative separation or integration of groups
across all neighborhoods of a city or metropolitan area
(C) Is a statistical term that measures the degree of separation between two data sets
(D) Is the inverse of the correlation coefficient
The correct answer is “B”
The index of dissimilarity is a demographic measure of the evenness with which two groups are
distributed across component geographic areas that make up a larger area. The index score
can also be interpreted as the percentage of one of the two groups included in the calculation
that would have to move to different geographic areas in order to produce a distribution that
matches that of the larger area.
For example, the dissimilarity index measures the relative separation or integration of groups
across the census tracts of all neighborhoods of a city or metropolitan area. A high value
indicates that the two groups tend to live in different tracts. D ranges from 0 to 100. A value of
60 (or above) is considered very high. It means that 60% (or more) of the members of one
group would need to move to a different tract in order for the two groups to be equally
distributed. Values of 40 or 50 are usually considered a moderate level of segregation, and
values of 30 or below are considered to be fairly low.
http://www.censusscope.org/us/s40/p75000/chart_dissimilarity.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Index_of_dissimilarity
http://www.s4.brown.edu/us2010/segregation2010/Default.aspx
II. (8) This type of survey is inexpensive, but does not work well with the disabled or the
poorly educated:
(A) Telephone survey
(B) Charrette
(C) Mailed-in survey
(D) In-person survey
The correct answer is “C”
The costs for mail surveys tend to be lower than those for telephone surveys, and mail surveys
are a good strategy for obtaining feedback from people who are dissatisfied with a service or
have strong concerns. However, return rate are low and mail surveys face the possibility of bias
due to these low response rates, especially for some of the following groups:
1. Very young children
2. People with illnesses or disabilities that preclude reading or responding in writing
3. People who do not speak or understand the language(s) in which the questions are
written, who cannot write in that language, or who are marginally literate or illiterate
4. Homeless adolescents and adult
5. People in institutional settings, such as hospitals or jails
http://marketstreetresearch.com/research-methods/mail-surveys/
I. (9) A 5th amendment taking may occur when:
I. Government seizes private property for a new highway
II. Private development seizes private property for a private purpose
III. When a regulation goes so far as to deny all economic use of a property
IV. The taking is permanent, but not temporary
(A) I, II, IV
(B) I, III
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B”
The Fifth Amendment provides that private property shall not be taken without just
compensation. While the Fifth Amendment by itself only applies to actions by the federal
government, the Fourteenth Amendment extends the Takings Clause to actions by state and
local government as well. When the government wishes to acquire property, for example, to
build a new courthouse, it first attempts to buy the property on the open market. However, if the
owner refuses to sell, the government can go to court and exercise the power of eminent
domain, by having the court condemn the property in favor of the government. The Takings
Clause imposes two requirements on government in order to exercise this power. First, the
property to be acquired must be “for public use,” and second, the government must pay “just
compensation” to the owner of the property that is taken, even in some cases where the taking
may be temporary in duration.
The difficult cases are generally those where government regulations, enacted to secure some
sort of public benefit, fall disproportionately on some property owners and cause significant
dimunition of property value. The Court has had a difficult time articulating a test to determine
when a regulation becomes a taking. It has said there is “no set formula” and that courts “must
look to the particular circumstances of the case.” The Court has identified some relevant factors
to consider: the economic impact of the regulation, the degree to which the regulation interferes
with investor-backed expectations, and the character of the government action. Until 1922, the
Supreme Court did not consider such diminution of the value of a particular person’s property
incidental to a general regulation as raising an issue under the Takings Clause. In that year,
however, in a celebrated opinion by Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes, the Court held that if a
regulation went “too far,” it could constitute a taking that would require just compensation by the
government. Since that time the question has remained, how far is too far.
http://law2.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/conlaw/takings.htm
http://www.progressivereform.org/persptakings.cfm
II. (10) The Mayor directs you, the Planning Director, to undertake a community visioning
exercise. To ensure this effort is successful, you focus on the following important
aspects, except:
(A) Ensuring that key community institutions and opinion leaders are involved with the
process.
(B) Engaging elected officials and city managers to gain their support of the effort
(C) Empowering the community to design and manage the visioning effort without
assistance.
(D) Planning to follow-through and implement the resulting vision and action plan
The correct answer is “C”
One of the key reasons community visioning may fail is that the process may be poorly
designed or managed or inadequately resourced. Planning staff or outside expert assistance is
typically required to assist in ensuring the effort is successful. Other typical reasons why
community visioning may be un-successful include:
* The community is too polarized to engage in a civilized dialogue
* Key community institutions or opinion leaders are not involved in the process
* Elected officials or city managers are unsupportive of the process
* There is no follow-through in implementing the vision and action plan
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Community Visioning” pp. 55
I. (11) A landlocked property owner can obtain an easement in which of the following
ways?
(A) Expressed grant.
(B) Necessity.
(C) Prescription.
(D) Inverse condemnation
The correct answer is B)
The common law doctrine of easement by necessity has long been used to allow a landlocked
landowner to access a public highway over another’s private land when no other relief is
available.
II. (12) Impact fees
I. Are usually collected when building permits are issued
II. Are subject to the dual rational nexus standard
III. Cover all infrastructure and service costs
IV. Funds can be used anywhere within the city
(A) II, IV
(B) II
(C) I, II
(D) I, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”
An impact fee is a fee that is imposed by a local government on a new or proposed
development project to pay for all or, more typically, a portion of the costs of providing specific
public services to the new development. Most often covered are impacts to roads, sewer, and
public water utilities; sometimes impacts on schools, libraries, parks and fire protection are also
covered. Impacts fees should not be used to address existing deficiencies. Impact fees are
either authorized by state enabling acts or by local government home rule. The courts have
derived two major tests for impact fees—the “rational nexus” test (i.e. impact connected to the
new development) and the “rough proportionality” test (i.e. cost roughly equal to impact caused),
more commonly known together as the Dual Rational Nexus test or standard.
APA Quick Notes #35 – Development impact Fees
https://www.planning.org/media/document/9007632/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impact_fee
II. (13) The Visioning process allows for: early citizen involvement, impartial leadership,
all inclusive citizen participation, and:
I. Heavy media involvement
II. A long-range planning mentality
III. The saving of time and money
IV Ideal communities
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) III and IV
The correct answer is C)
Visioning is “planning at its boldest”, a participatory, collaborative, and consensus-driven
planning process that seeks to describe an agreed-upon long-range desired future for a
community on the issues that matter most to the community. Therefore, the most successful
visioning efforts involve all segments of the community. This often involves the use of major
multi-media strategies to both encourage public participation from all interest groups, and to
periodically publicize the success of ongoing efforts and maintain forward momentum and retain
continued interest and involvement in the process.
SOURCES: Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices; pp. 216-217; APA’s PAS
QuickNotes #15: Capital Improvements Programming (2008)
III. (14) Key issues of concern in waterfront planning include:
I. Gentrification
II. Industrial development
III. Sprawl
IV. Heavy metals
A) I, II, IV
B) I, III
C) II, IV
D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is A)
The loss of working waterfronts due to residential gentrification (and the continued retention of
major industrial areas that need to be on the water, such as boat repair facilities) is a significant
planning issue for many coastal areas, as is sediment contamination by heavy metals from such
industrial and marine activities.
See: http://www.wateraccessus.com/toolkit.html
http://www.washington-apa.org/assets/docs/new_efforts_with_working_waterfronts_and_public_access.pdf
III. (15) A Neighborhood plan:
I. Often propose a program of implementation shorter in duration than is proposed in the
general plan
II. Is intended to provide a more general inclusion of goals, policies and guidelines than in
the general plan
III. Focuses on a specific geographic area of a local jurisdiction that typically includes
substantial residential development, associated commercial uses, and institutional
services such as recreation and education
IV. The sole sponsors of neighborhood plans are government and the citizens of the
neighborhoods affected.
(A) I, III
(B) II, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “A”
The neighborhood plan is intended to provide more detailed goals, policies, and guidelines than
those in the general plan. The sponsors of neighborhood plans include cities, community
development organizations, foundations and private developers.
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Neighborhood Plans” pp. 16-
17; 12.
I. (16) The American Greenbelt towns were built in the 1930s by:
A) the City Housing Corporation
B) the Resettlement Administration of the US Department of Agriculture
C) the US Department of Housing and Urban Development
D) the PWA Housing Division
The correct answer is B)
Greenbelt, which provided affordable housing for federal government workers, was one of three
“green” towns planned in 1935 by Rexford Guy Tugwell, head of the United States Resettlement
Administration, under authority of the Emergency Relief Appropriation Act. Greendale,
Wisconsin (near Milwaukee) and Greenhills, Ohio (near Cincinnati) are the other two
“Greenbelt” towns.
III. (17) Which of the following is out of order according to the Standard State Zoning
Enabling Act’s basic rezoning process?
I) Plan Commission recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
II) Notice is given of the governing body public hearing
III) The governing body hearing occurs
IV) The governing body takes action
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) They’re all in order
The correct answer is “D”
The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act states the following as the basic rezoning process:
1. Submittal of the zoning application
2. Application review by staff
3. Notice is given of the planning commission public hearing
4. The staff report is created
5. The planning commission hearing
6. The planning commission recommendation
7. The recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
8. Notice given of the governing body public hearing
9. The governing body hearing occurs
10. The governing body decision
Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the
American Institute of Certified Planners”, “Development Regulations” by Teresa Wilkinson,
AICP, pages 135-136.
I. (18) “We conclude therefore that under Belle Terre and Los Altos Hills the concept of the
public welfare is sufficiently broad to uphold . . .’s desire to preserve its small town character, its
open spaces and low density of population, and to grow at an orderly and deliberate pace” is a
finding from which famous law case”:
(A) Golden v. Town of Ramapo
(B) Associated Homes v. Livermore
(C) Southern Burlington NAACP v. Town of Mt. Laurel
(D) Construction Industry Association of Sonoma County v. the City of Petaluma
The correct answer is “D“
Alarmed by the accelerated rate of growth in 1970 and 1971, the demand for even more
housing, and the sprawl of the City eastward, the City of adopted a temporary freeze on
development in early 1971. To correct the imbalance between single-family and multi-family
dwellings, curb the sprawl of the City on the east, and retard the accelerating growth of the City,
the Council in 1972 adopted several resolutions, which collectively are called the “Petaluma
Plan” (the Plan). The Plan, on its face limited to a five-year period (1972-1977), fixes a housing
development growth rate not to exceed 500 dwelling units per year. The controversial 500-unit
limitation on residential development-units was adopted by the City in order to protect its small
town character and surrounding open space. The Construction Industry Association of Sonoma
County filed suit in federal district court, challenging the Plan as: (1) arbitrary; (2) in violation of
the right to travel; and (3) an unreasonable burden on interstate commerce. The final verdict
came from the U.S. District Court of Appeals which determined that the plan did not
unconstitutionally restrict the right to travel and found that:
1. the concept of the public welfare is sufficiently broad to uphold Petaluma’s desire to
preserve its small town character, its open spaces and low density of population, and to
grow at an orderly and deliberate pace
2. the local regulation here is rationally related to the social and environmental welfare of
the community and does not discriminate against interstate commerce or operate to
disrupt its required uniformity, appellees’ claim that the Plan unreasonably burdens
commerce must fail
https://law.justia.com/cases/federal/appellate-courts/F2/522/897/184274/
II. (19) Stratified sampling:
(A) Divides a given population into mutually exclusive sub-groups
(B) Divides a given population into strata that are then selected from by the tester
(C) Selects every nth person from a list
(D) None of the above
The correct answer is “A”
Stratification is the process of dividing members of the population into homogeneous subgroups before sampling.
The sub-populations (or strata) should be mutually exclusive: every element in the population must be assigned to
only one sub-population. The sub-population should also be collectively exhaustive: no population element can be
excluded. Then simple random sampling or systematic sampling is applied within each sub-population.
(B) = non-probabilistic quota sampling
(C) = probabilistic systematic sampling
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stratified_sampling
https://baselinesupport.campuslabs.com/hc/en-us/articles/204305705-Sampling-Methods
III. (20) An Arterial street is best described as a:
A) Highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access and generally with grade
separations at intersections.
B) Street that provides through traffic movement on a continuous route joining major traffic
generators, where access to abutting properties may be controlled.
C) Major roadway with no access to adjacent properties.
D) Roadway that experiences up to 30% of all VMT in urban areas, and up to 20% of all
VMT in rural areas.
The correct answer is B)
Principal arterials serve longer trips, carry the highest traffic volumes, and carry a large
percentage of the VMT (vehicle miles traveled; 30%-55% of all roadway mileage) on minimum
roadway mileage (4%-12% of all roads) and provide minimal land access. Minor Arterials
interconnect the principal arterials, provide less mobility and slightly more land access, and
distribute travel to smaller geographic areas than principal arterials. Urban Collectors provide
both land access and traffic circulation with residential, commercial, and industrial areas by
collecting and distributing traffic to these areas. Local Streets provide direct access to adjacent
land and access to the higher classified streets (5-20% of all VMT; 65% - 75% of all roadway
mileage). Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP
Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”, page 149.
I. (21) Which of the following happened in 1909?
A) The San Francisco Plan is completed by Burnham
B) Yellowstone Park was designated
C) The first National Conference on City Planning
D) All of the above
The correct answer is “C”
APA traces its roots back to 1909 and the First National Conference on City Planning that was
held in Washington, D.C., organized by Benjamin Marsh and attended by professionals such as
Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr., John Nolan, Lawrence Veiller, and Jane Addams,
I. (22) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co., 272 U.S. 365 (1926) dealt with which of the
following issues?
A) Adult Uses
B) Exactions
C) With the claim of a perceived taking
D) Sign Ordinance
The correct answer is C)
Ambler Realty sued the village, arguing that the zoning ordinance had substantially reduced the
value of the land by limiting its use, amounting to a deprivation of Ambler’s liberty and property
without due process (i.e., an unconstitutional “taking”).
III. (23) According to Richard Florida, the types of urban areas that attract the “Creative
Class” possess:
I. Low taxes
II. Highly talented/educated/skilled population
III. A diverse community
IV. Technological infrastructure necessary to fuel an entrepreneurial culture
A) II, IV
B) I, III, IV
C) II, III, IV
D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is C)
In Cities and the Creative Class (2004), Richard Florida devotes several chapters to discussion
of the three main prerequisites of creative cities (though there are many additional qualities
which distinguish creative magnets). For a city to attract the Creative Class, he argues, it must
possess “the three ‘T’s”: Talent (a highly talented/educated/skilled population), Tolerance (a
diverse community, which has a ‘live and let live’ ethos), and Technology (the technological
infrastructure necessary to fuel an entrepreneurial culture). In Rise of the Creative Class, Florida
argues that members of the Creative Class value meritocracy, diversity and individuality, and
look for these characteristics when they relocate (2002).
I. (24) Which of the following planning movements was characterized by local
management and self-government without a need for intervention from the central state,
and a philosophy that planning should be designed for socioeconomic stratums just
above the poor?
A) Sanitary Movement
B) City Beautiful Movement
C) Garden City Movement
D) Housing Reform
The correct answer is C).
The garden city movement is an approach to urban planning that was founded in 1898 by Sir
Ebenezer Howard in the United Kingdom in his book, To-morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real
Reform, which offered a vision of towns free of slums and enjoying the benefits of both town
(such as opportunity, amusement and high wages) and country (such as beauty, fresh air and
low rents). Garden cities were to be planned, self-contained communities surrounded by
greenbelts, and containing carefully balanced areas of residences, industry, and agriculture
which avoided the downfalls of industrial cities of the time such as urban poverty, overcrowding,
low wages, dirty alleys with no drainage, poorly ventilated houses, toxic substances, dust,
carbon gases, infectious disease and lack of interaction with nature.
See the following links for more information:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ebenezer_Howard
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Garden_city_movement
IV. (25) The three C’s of a good staff report are:
(A) Consistency, Compatibility, Comprehensive
(B) Compliance, Consistency, Compatibility
(C) Compliance, Consistency, Comprehensive
(D) Comprehensive, Consistency, Compatibility
The correct answer is (B)
Staff Report findings are typically related to the concepts of compliance, consistency, and
compatibility, which are often the factors considered should the case be litigated:
* Compliance. The report should identify which codes the application is subject to and,
generally, how it complies. It should specify sections of the code with which the project
does not comply and note whether there are any waivers, alternatives, or conditions to
be considered. The report should relay how the application complies with environmental,
utility, traffic, and other regulations in addition to zoning.
* Consistency. The staff report should describe not only the land-use map classification
but whether the proposed project is consistent with the goals and policies of the adopted
plan. Consistency in applying codes is also important to assure equal protection. The
report should identify prior decisions, if any, and indicate why this recommendation is
similar (or why it is not).
* Compatibility. This is probably the most subjective and debated of the parameters. The
staff report should evaluate the project’s compatibility with adjacent properties. Is the use
compatible with those around it? Is the height and scale of the building compatible with
those adjacent? Are the site improvements (e.g., parking) and operational features (e.g.,
hours of operation) in character with the surrounding uses?
SOURCE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #30: Getting the Most out of Staff Reports (2011)
II. (26) Which of the following is an Objective:
(A) Train the Chapter’s planners to pass the AICP Exam
(B) Develop a comprehensive Florida Chapter AICP Exam Prep training manual
(C) Increase the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate above the national average by 2015.
(D) Annually monitor the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate by Section.
The correct answer is “C”
Goals provide a long term result, or the long-term end toward which programs or activities are
ultimately directed. Objectives are more specific, measurable statements of desired or
intermediate ends that are achievable and mark progress toward a goal. Policies are courses of
action that indicate how the goals and objectives of a plan should be realized. Measures are
metrics used to assess progress toward meeting an objective, which can consist of an output or
an outcome. Above, “A” is a goal. “B” is a policy, “C” is an Objective, and “D” is a measure.
III. (27) The County Administrator tells you, the Planning Director, that he is concerned
about the potential environmental justice issues associated with the new proposed
landfill site in a residential area. Among the planning issues you direct your staff to
investigate are:
I. Whether Hispanics will experience a disproportionate environmental impact
II. Public participation
III. Housing gentrification
IV. Health risk assessment
(A) I, II
(B) I, II, IV
(C) I only
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B“
EPA defines environmental justice (EJ) as the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all
people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income with respect to the development,
implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies. Other
definitions include equitable distribution of environmental risks and benefits; fair and meaningful
participation in environmental decision-making; recognition of community ways of life, local
knowledge, and cultural difference; and the capability of communities and individuals to function
and flourish in society. Although its origins go back much earlier, in 1994, President Clinton
issued Executive Order 12898, “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority
Populations and Low-Income Populations.” Executive Order 12898 requires that achieving EJ
must be part of each federal agency’s mission and to identify and address the disproportionately
high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their actions on minority and lowincome populations.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Environmental_justice
https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-executive-order-12898-federal-actions-address-environmental-justice
II. (28) Who among the following would encourage neighbors concerned about a
proposal resulting in the potential destruction of their neighborhood to oppose the
proposal, to organize, and to use their collective power to disrupt a public hearing:
I. Jane Jacobs
II. Saul Alinsky
III. Norm Krumholtz
IV. Paul Davidoff
(A) II
(B) I, II
(C) III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B”
If you had to choose only one name, the best fit would be Saul Alinsky, who is best known as
the founder of modern community organizing and his book “Rules for Radicals” indicated that
“The job of the organizer is to maneuver and bait the establishment so that it will publicly attack
him as a ‘dangerous enemy.’ [According to Alinsky], the hysterical instant reaction of the
establishment [will] not only validate [the organizer’s] credentials of competency but also ensure
automatic popular invitation.” Alinsky encouraged over-the-top public demonstrations throughout
Rules for Radicals that could not be ignored, and these tactics enabled his organization to
progress their goals faster than through normal bureaucratic processes.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Saul_Alinsky#Community_organizing_and_politics
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rules_for_Radicals
However, Jane Jacobs also utilized such tactics. The Federal Housing Act of 1949 approved
federal funds to cities for the demolition or rehabilitation of blighted areas, and throughout the
1950’s, Robert Moses utilized these funds to demolish entire New York neighborhoods in the
name of urban renewal. Jane Jacobs opposed Moses and believed that such urban planners
were destroying America’s cities. She blamed the influence of the Swiss architect Le Corbusier,
and his vision of an automobile oriented Radiant City, with skyscrapers surrounded by parkland
on superblocks. In early 1961, Mayor Robert Wagner announced the latest New York City
neighborhood to be designated as blighted: the 14 blocks bounded by 11th, Hudson,
Christopher, Washington, Morton and West Streets (Greenwich Village) where Jane Jacobs
lived. Shorty thereafter, she and other protesters were removed from a City Planning
Commission hearing after they left their seats and marched on the podium. After she was
removed from the city council hearing, her own words underlined her position: “We had been
ladies and gentlemen and only got pushed around.” Subsequently in 1968, she was arrested on
charges of second-degree riot and criminal mischief in disrupting a public meeting on the
proposed construction of Robert Moses’ Lower Manhattan Expressway (LOMEX), which would
have sliced across Lower Manhattan and displaced hundreds of families and businesses. Her
best known book, “The Death and Life of Great American Cities” began by stating “This book is
an attack on current city planning and rebuilding”, highlighted the damage that freeways and
housing projects did to the urban environment and made four recommendations for creating
municipal diversity: 1. A street or district must serve several primary functions. 2. Blocks must
be short. 3. Buildings must vary in age, condition, use and rentals. 4. Population must be dense.
The book attack the works of Sir Patrick Geddes and Ebenezer Howard, as well as the modern
city, Radiant City proposals of Le Corbusier, who championed the ideal of graceful urban towers
rising over exquisite open spaces on superblocks. In later years, with her promotion of sidewalk
walkability, mixed-use diverse neighborhoods and short blocks, she became an inspiration to
architects and planners who espoused “New Urbanism.
http://www.nydailynews.com/new-york/jane-jacobs-fought-urban-renewal-west-village-article1.2962679
https://www.vanityfair.com/culture/2017/04/jane-jacobs-citizen-jane-documentary
https://www.theguardian.com/cities/2016/may/04/jane-jacobs-100th-birthday-saskia-sassen
http://www.nytimes.com/2006/04/25/books/jane-jacobs-urban-activist-is-dead-at-89.html
https://www.cnu.org/publicsquare/progressive-roots-new-urbanism
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Death_and_Life_of_Great_American_Cities
III. (29) The ability to prepare and plan for, absorb, recover from, and more successfully
adapt to adverse events is known as:
(A) Hurricane preparedness
(B) Post-disaster planning
(C) Risk Assessment
(D) Resilience
The correct answer is “D”
The National Academy of Sciences defines resilience to be — “the ability to prepare and plan
for, absorb, recover from, and more successfully adapt to adverse events”. The risk
assessment process provides a factual basis for the activities proposed in the mitigation
strategy, based on community historical experience, estimating the potential frequency and
magnitude of disasters, and assessing the potential losses to life and property.
https://www.planning.org/planning/2015/aug/nextbigone.htm
III. (30) What type of regulation includes impact fees, growth management controls, and
land recordation?
A) Subdivision Regulation
B) Zoning
C) Land Use
D) Comprehensive Planning
The correct answer is “A”
Subdivision regulations control and record the process of subdividing land. A result of
subdivision regulations is the preservation of land records by platting and mapping. Another
result is that developers design and construct developments properly. They include: 1) land
recordation, 2) local design and construction standards for improvements and lots, 3) dedication
requirements in the form of land or cash-in-lieu, 4) use of developer’s impact fees, 5) the
institution of growth management controls. Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council
Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”,
“Development Regulations” by Teresa Wilkinson, AICP, Gretna, LA, page 137.
II. (31) Your small town needs to undertake an extensive citizen involvement process to
help develop a vision for the community and lacks the needed in-house expertise to
know how to effectively accomplish this. In your role as the Planning Director, you
determine that the best option available is:
(A) Define required services and carry out a two-step RFQ-RFP process
(B) Seek advice from the regional planning council
(C) Assign your best senior planner to educate himself in citizen involvement techniques
(D) Ask your local citizen groups for advise
The best answer is (A)
Although the regional planning council may be able to provide “advice” on how to effectively
accomplish a visioning process, it is often best to augment staff expertise through the hiring of
expert consultants where detailed technical or subject matter knowledge on a specific planning
process is required. Consultants are typically skilled at facilitating the extensive public outreach
and involvement required in major planning projects. Outside experts can also bring credibility
and a sense of objectivity to planning processes.
SEE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #37: Hiring a Consultant: RFQs and RFPs (2012)
II. (32) The Department of Community Affairs is asked by the Lt. Governor to assist the
state’s three water management districts, DEP, DACS and the five counties involved to
help resolve the emerging water wars of central Florida through collaborative rationality
planning. Collaborative rationality involves:
I. Authentic dialogue
II. Diversity of interests
III. Independent learning
IV. Interdependence of interests
A) I, II, IV
B) II, III
C) I, III
D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “A”
Collaborative rationality is a stool that rests on three legs — diversity, interdependence, and
authentic dialogue (DIAD). Collaboratively rational processes are about engaging with other
members of a community to jointly learn and work out how to get better together in the face of
conflict, complex changing conditions and multiple conflicting sources of information.
DIVERSITY: The inclusion of all agents (i.e. full participation of all relevant stakeholders) is
required for coherent and novel patterns of action to emerge. INTERDEPENDENCE: The
condition of interdependence holds that agents must depend to a significant degree on other
agents. That is, as is true in all successful negotiations, each agent (or stakeholder) has
something that the others want. AUTHENIC DIALOGUE: Deliberations must be characterized
by direct engagement so that the parties can test to be sure that claims are accurate,
comprehensible, and sincere, and everyone involved must have equal access to all the relevant
information and an equal ability to speak and be listened to.
http://www.planning.org/planning/2011/feb/research.htm
http://theconsensusbuildingapproach.blogspot.com/2010/02/collaborative-rationality.html
I. (33) Clarence Stein is best known for his work on which topic?
A) The New York State thruway
B) The Catskill preserve
C) The Greenbelt Towns
D) The Rural Electrification Administration
The correct answer is “C”
Stein was a major proponent of the Garden City movement in the United States, and involved in
the 1930’s development of the “Greenbelt towns” under the rural Resettlement Administration,
including Greenbelt, Maryland, Greendale, Wisconsin and Greenhills, Ohio. Earlier in 1923,
Stein and Henry Wright collaborated on the plan for Sunnyside Gardens, a neighborhood of the
New York City borough of Queens that took the garden city ideas of Sir Ebenezer Howard as a
model. Also, in 1929, Stein and Wright collaborated with Kenneth Weinberger on the plan for
the Radburn community in Fair Lawn, New Jersey, roughly double the area of Sunnyside. The
vision for Radburn was of an integrated self-sustaining community, surrounded by greenbelts,
specialized automotive thoroughfares (main linking roads, serviced lanes for direct access to
buildings, and express highways), and a complete separation of auto and pedestrian traffic.
These thoroughfares were called “superblocks”.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clarence_Stein
III. (34) The Planning Director of your large, metropolitan city desires to establish some
regulations to address the burgeoning public street markets and vendors that are
increasingly appearing on vacant spaces throughout the city. The Planning Director
wants to ensure that the new regulations improve community image, protect shops and
restaurants, avoid sidewalk congestion, and reduce the liability of adjacent businesses.
Among the many relevant issues the senior planner in charge of drafting the regulations
may decide to address is/are:
I. Restrictions on vending and market locations
II. Capping the total city number of allowed vendors
III. Restrictions/prohibitions on certain foods for sale
IV. Fees and Taxes
(A) I
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
Communities regulate markets and street merchants through zoning and business licensing or
through standards of behavior on public property in eight key areas:
1. Vending locations – e.g. sidewalk vending or street markets
2. Exemptions – e.g. obtaining waivers from neighboring businesses
3. Permit caps – e.g. vending permit caps
4. Vending area – e.g. brightline versus flexible locational standards
5. Space allocation – e.g. space allocation by governmental vs. designated authority
6. Restrictions on certain goods – e.g. food type restrictions (fruit/vegetable only)
7. Cart or display design – e.g. cart size, less often, cart appearance
8. Fees and taxes – e.g. license, permit costs (per sq. foot vs. flat fee)
SOURCE: APA’s Public Markets; “Zoning Practice” (February 2009)
II. (35) This question focuses on techniques to address articulated goals and policies of
a suburban town of 35,000 inhabitants.
Which program is likely to be used to address the goal of increasing affordable housing?
A) capital improvement program
B) inclusionary housing program
C) impact fee program
D) growth phasing program
The correct answer is B)
An inclusionary housing program will likely address the community’s affordable housing needs.
V. (36) You are a Planner for Wainfleet, New York, and you are attending the Mayor’s
Annual Luncheon on the State of the City and you bump into a private developer that you
went to college with. She tells you about an exciting retail development and movie
theater complex that she wants to build in Wainfleet. She offers you the opportunity to
invest in the development. Which is the best option below for you to follow knowing that
the development will come before your department for review?
A) You should put the investment in your husband’s name and invest in the development.
B) You should disclose your investment with your boss, the director, and once they give
their approval you should invest.
C) Invest in the development and when it comes before your department for review,
exclude yourself from dealing with the project and have your staff make the
recommendations for or against the development.
D) Although it seems like an exciting opportunity you should decline the opportunity.
The correct answer is “D”
According to the APA Code of Ethics the best thing to do in this situation is to decline the
opportunity and say “no” to investing in this development. One of the main thoughts that the
APA is trying to make very clear to planners is to stay out of potentially unfavorable situations
that could be construed as being unethical. In answer A, you should remember that, as in this
example, your husband’s financial interests are also your own. In answer B, your Director or
boss should not give you permission to invest in this development. In answer C, your staff may
recommend the development or show some sort of favoritism because they know that you are
involved in its success or failure. Answer D, is the best on the four possible actions.
IV. (37) It was determined that all work activities of the departments would be examined
from the perspective of the client to determine if current procedures may be intimidating,
confrontational or otherwise impose unnecessary constraints on the customer. From this
research it became clear that a number of current practices and procedures could
generate a negative response from customers. Which of the following might create a
negative response from customers?
I. Prompt return of telephone calls.
II. Offering a Development Review Committee process.
III. Conducting personal business at the public counter.
IV. Asking customers to wait up to five minutes for service.
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) III only
The correct answer is “D”.
A five minute wait for governmental service is not considered an unreasonable wait; conducting
personal business while serving at the public counter is inappropriate behavior by a
governmental employee.
II. (38) This budget model involves starting from “scratch” every year and approval of
decision packages:
(A) The Dayton System
(B) Zero-based budgeting
(C) Planning and Programming Budgeting System
(D) Cost-Benefit Analysis
The correct answer is “B”
Zero Base Budgeting starts from “scratch” every year. All programs have to justify their
existence through analyses called decision packages. Since zero-based budgeting items
require a new approval for budgeting, this means that budgets are started from a zero-base,
with a fresh justification and decision on everything being made every year, regardless of
whether the resulting budget item is funded at a higher or lower amount than in the previous
year’s budget.
2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council (CPC) AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 160
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero-based_budgeting
III. (39) Which U.S. housing act or legislation has been most successful at encouraging
home ownership?
(A) Hope VI
(B) HOME
(C) Mortgage interest tax deduction
(D) LIHTC
The correct answer is “C“
The home mortgage interest deduction allows taxpayers who own their homes to reduce their
taxable income by the amount of interest paid on the loan which is secured by their principal
residence. Approximately half of all homeowners (~ 75 million) use this deduction, and the
standard justification for the deduction is that it gives an incentive for home ownership.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Home_mortgage_interest_deduction
http://www.investopedia.com/articles/pf/06/mortinttaxdeduct.asp
http://www.deseretnews.com/article/700200108/Eliminating-the-mother-of-all-tax-deductions.html?pg=all
II. (40) The original Oregon Model is framed by the following four questions of the steps
to undertake in the Visioning process, in the following order (from first to last):
I. Where Do We Want to Be?
II. Where Are We Going?
III. How Do We Get There?
IV. Where Are We Now?
(A) IV, II, III, I
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) IV, II, I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (C)
Oregon was one of the first places in the U.S. to undergo a proliferation of community-based
visioning, and the Oregon Model represents a comprehensive approach to visioning that has
since gained widespread acceptance around the country. The model is framed by four simple
questions:
1. Where are we now?
2. Where are we going?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
Some communities add a fifth step promoting action plan implementation (called the
“New” Oregon Model):
5. Are we getting there?
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 55
I. (41) In 1915, Patrick Geddes wrote which of the following books that created the
foundation for regional planning theory in America?
(A) The Culture of Cities
(B) Cities in Evolution
(C) Regional Survey of New York and Its Environs
(D) Tomorrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform
The correct answer is “B”
In his 1915 book, Cities in Evolution: An introduction to Town Planning Movement and the Study
of Civics, Patrick Geddes set out his idea of the city as an instrument of evolution, and began to
formulate his broader philosophy of regional planning. He proposed that the development of the
city was just one part of a wider network and that city planning therefore was not just the
relationship between streets and public spaces, but also the city and the surrounding
countryside, the drama of human history being as important as geography. Urban planning
therefore needed to take the past and geography in context. He was the first to develop the
concept of ‘conurbations’, ever-expanding urban communities, estimating that the east coast of
America could turn into one vast city stretching for 500 miles. Geddes himself was a poor
communicator of his own ideas and he found the perfect disciple in Lewis Mumford, an
American writer who would later become the most influential architecture critics of his
generation. As a leading member of the Regional Planning Association of America, Mumford
transformed and popularized Geddes’s theories, that allowing cities to grow unchecked was
intolerable, promoting the idea that people, industry and land were an integrated network that
needed to be planned.
https://citiesaregoodforyou.com/2011/09/27/evolution-and-planning-why-has-everyone-forgotten-geddes/
II. (42) An image is not aligning properly with your other data themes or layers. This is
most likely due to:
A) the image file is not compatible with your data files
B) your GIS software does not support that image file type
C) the image file has not been registered correctly or is not registered
D) vector data cannot be displayed with raster or image data
The correct answer is C)
There is a very good possibility that the image file has not been registered in the same
projection and/or coordinate system as your other data files. GIS places data layers where they
belong on the earth’s surface. In this manner, data that belongs in Wisconsin appears in
Wisconsin and data that belongs in Massachusetts appears in Massachusetts. If an image has
not been registered correctly or is in a different coordinate system, it will not appear with the rest
of your data. Instead, it will be positioned on a different part of the globe.
III. (43) The Johnson Air Force base in Levy County is being increasingly impacted by
new surrounding development that is quickly conflicting with the military base’s primary
training mission, and creating potential safety issues. The County, in conjunction with
the Air Force Base Commander, decides to immediately begin planning to address base
compatibility issues, and undertakes those efforts by utilizing the following tools in the
following order (from first to last):
I. AICUZ/JLUS
II. Amortization
III. Moratorium
IV. Military Overlay adoption
(A) I, IV, III, II
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) III, I, IV, II
(D) III, II, I, IV
The correct answer is (C)
This is a question about immediateness of action and order of action. In the military land-use
compatibility context, a moratorium might likely be used to serve a valid public purpose (i.e.
planning in progress) because it restricts development while local government prepares a
permanent plan to address public safety and military readiness—both vital public interests. The
planning could happen through either the airfield oriented Air Installation Compatible Use Zone
(AICUZ) process, or a Joint Land Use Study (JLUS) involving the military base, local
government, and the public. For example, a comprehensive plan’s land-use element might
address the issue of compatible use by calling for implementation of the AICUZ study or JLUS,
which might be codified through the adoption of a Military overlay addressing the height, noise,
and accident potential zones contained in the base’s AICUZ study, and imposing specific landuse regulations in addition to a property’s underlying zoning designation. Finally, a local
government might use amortization to provide a non-conforming use property owner a
reasonable time to phase out nonconforming uses and structures that interfere with military
operations, but once that time has expired, the nonconformity would have to be terminated.
SOURCE: APA’s Compatibility: Land-Use Compatibility Near Military Bases: A Planner’s
Perspective; “Zoning Practice” (May 2011)
V. (44) The principal of a one-man consulting firm has been asked to submit a proposal
to assist the development service staff of a rural city with the preparation of a new
Community Plan. The planning consultant is currently overbooked with projects and
does not know how he will handle the additional work if he is selected. He is concerned
that he may be unable to carry out his responsibilities on time and worries about the
quality of work he would produce in-between other contractual obligations. The contract
is eventually awarded to his firm. Which of the following is the best course of action for
the consultant?
A) Agree to execute the work assuming that his schedule will look better next month when
several projects are scheduled to be completed.
B) Hire a temporary assistant to work on existing projects to free up time to take on the new
assignment.
C) Determine that he cannot provide diligent service to any of his clients if he assumes
more work and respectfully refuse the offer.
D) Ask the planning director if the project can wait until he has time to work on it.
The correct answer is C).
Although the consultant may be able to temporarily employ an assistant to help out, typically,
clients feel they have hired the consultant’s expertise (not the firm’s). It is not reasonable to
expect a client to accept the late entry of a new person. Likewise, the consultant should not
expect a project to be delayed while he/she finishes other projects. If the consultant can not
perform the work the contract must be turned down.
II. (45) The department heads jointly organized and executed a citizen’s survey to solicit
input about customer satisfaction at city hall. To reach the maximum number of citizens
a one page survey was included in the water bills of several thousand homeowners
residing in the city. Over 1000 response cards were returned. Which of the following
improvements to customer service did the majority of these everyday citizens select?
I. A faster processing time for entitlements.
II. Setting up a public information desk.
III. Establishment of a central permitting system.
IV. Development of informational flyers about city hall, the function of various departments,
and a layperson’s guide to public meetings.
A) I and III
B) II and IV
C) I and IV
D) III and IV
The correct answer is “B”.
General citizen customer satisfaction is more likely tied to citizen-oriented actions such as
improving general access to information (e.g. public information desk and a layman’s guide),
rather than actions focusing on development interest related actions such as faster entitlements
or internal staff oriented actions such as the establishment of a centralized permitting system.
I. (46) According to Aristotle, the proper design of Greek cities should:
A) Emphasize aesthetics, to promote beauty
B) Be functionally situated to shade from summer heat and provide access to winter sun
C) Preserve the haphazard arrangement of earlier times to make it more difficult for
invaders to fight their way in
D) Incorporate a grid pattern to encourage commerce and ease of movement
The correct answer is C)
Aristotle was a critic of Hippodamus’ idea of straight streets and a gridded layout. He argued
that, while a town planned in a grid is certainly more visually appealing than a haphazardly
planned urban area, the latter is better for deterring invaders. If a city is infiltrated, the
trespassers would easily be able to navigate through the streets if they are planned out in an
orderly way. However, poorly planned streets are much easier to get lost in, and intruders not
familiar with the city would be at a loss in such a place. Basically, orderly planning is good for
beauty, haphazard planning (or lack thereof) is better for security.
See: http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/CityPlan.htm
http://www.academia.edu/4378826/Centenary_Paper_Plan_and_constitution_Aristotle_s
_Hippodamus_towards_an_ostensive_definition_of_spatial_planning_2009
From: https://desktopexplorer.wordpress.com/tag/hippodamus-of-miletus/
IV. (47) A planning director appointed by a mayor (as opposed to one hired by a City
Manager):
I. The planner appointed by the mayor will be the best planner available
II. The planner appointed by the mayor serves at the pleasure of the mayor
III. The planner appointed by the mayor will be someone who supported the mayor
politically
IV. The planner appointed by the mayor may be fired by the City Manager
(A) I, II, IV
(B) II
(C) I, IV
(D) II, III
The best answer is “B”
Planning Directors hired by a Council, Commission or Mayor typically report directly to the
Council, Commission or Mayor hiring them, and serve “at will”.
V. (48) You are a newly hired planner involved in the process of preparing a new
recreation plan for your community. Your supervisor, an AICP planner, learns that the
City Council is anxious to take action on a recreation plan, and therefore, you are
instructed to prepare the plan without scheduling any time for public participation or
public comment. Suppose you learn that there is a regulation in place and that this is
clearly a violation of the regulation. What might you do next?
A) Discuss the situation with your Supervisor.
B) Schedule a public workshop to discuss the recreation plan.
C) Report the situation to the Planning Director.
D) File a charge of misconduct with AICP.
The correct answer is A)
When you learn that a violation has occurred, bring it to the attention of your director or
supervisor. If you learn that the violation has occurred unintentionally, suggest remedies, such
as delaying action on the plan until there is adequate time for a participatory process,
scheduling a number of participatory events quickly, publicizing the events well, and revising the
plan accordingly. It might be a good idea to discuss the situation with a more experienced
planner. If the violation has occurred and you discover that the violation has occurred
intentionally, this is a very serious situation because as planners we shall not accept an
assignment from an employer when the service to be performed involves conduct that we know
to be illegal (Rules of Conduct #2).
III. (49) A new wave of criminal activity is sweeping the community and costing the taxpayers millions in police services, court fees, and long term housing of criminals in jails.
The Board of Supervisors has decided to spend money on public education programs to
educate the citizenry in crime prevention, the evils of drug and alcohol abuse, and the
advantages of living clean. In addition, the Board has allocated a large portion of the
budget for drug addict and alcoholic rehabilitation.
Weighting all things, the Board is gambling that over time, the great expenditure of monies to
prevent crime will not only improve the quality of life in the community, but will also save the taxpayers millions in the long run since less crimes will take place and fewer persons will be
warehoused in prisons. Which cost analysis technique did the Board utilize in making this
decision?
A) Cost-effectiveness Analysis
B) Cost-benefit Analysis
C) Cost-revenue Analysis
D) Fiscal Impact Analysis
The correct answer is B)
Cost benefit analysis compares both the tangible and intangible (externalities) costs and
revenues of a particular project or program compares what a community gains from the project
benefits to what the community must forego in order to achieve it. Any project with a ratio higher
than one provides more benefits than it costs.
2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 161
II. (50) The greatest number of building floors result from the implementation of which
Floor Area Ratio (FAR):
(A) FAR of 6 covering an entire lot
(B) FAR of 5 built on 1/3 of a lot
(C) FAR of 6 built on half of a lot
(D) FAR of 5 built on 1/4 of a lot
The correct answer is “D”
FAR = floor area ratio = building area / lot area. A two story building built over an entire lot has
a FAR of 2; if that Floor Area Ratio of 2 were to be totally built on only ½ of the site, it would still
contain the same square footage, but now be 4 stories high. For the examples given: (A) = 6
story building; (B) = 15 story building; (C) = 12 story building; (D) = 20 story building.
III. (51) A Complete Street is best described as:
A) A street that promotes New Urbanism principles and has on-street parking
B) A street that incorporates green infrastructure, TOD and walkability
C) A street that ensures safe, healthy, convenient and comfortable travel and access for all
users
D) A street that uses green infrastructure, TOD, walkability, Woonerfs and Wayfinding.
The correct answer is “C”
Complete Streets is a transportation policy and design approach that requires streets to be
planned, designed, operated, and maintained to enable safe, convenient and comfortable travel
and access for users of all ages and abilities regardless of their mode of transportation.
APA Planning Advisory Service (PAS) Report 559: Complete Streets: Best Policy and
Implementation Practices (March 2010).
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Complete_streets
http://www.planning.org/pas/quicknotes/pdf/QN5.pdf
http://www.planning.org/planning/2005/may/completestreets.htm
III. (52) Economic base analysis evaluates local government development conditions to
determine future development options. Which of the following elements are included?
I. An assessment of local economic growth potential in relation to evolving regional,
national, and international economic and demo-graphic trends.
II. An inventory of existing real estate market conditions.
III. A projection of future trends in job growth, personal income, and other relevant
economic variable.
IV. A study of unemployment and ethnicity.
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I, II, and III
(D) I, III and IV
The correct answer is “C”
Economic base analysis is the study of cities and regions which focuses on basic service
(export) ratios, the ratio of employment in basic activities to employment in non-basic activities
which utilizes economic multipliers. Basic industries are defined as local or regional industries
with an industry employment / total employment ratio higher than the national ratio for the
industry (note: this can include industries such as “Finance, insurance, and real estate”). Non
basic industries have a lower industry employment total employment ratio than the nation.
Varies with the size of community: the larger the community, the larger the multiplier (more
places to spend money). Service economies can export knowledge/service. Once basic
employment is identified, the outlook for future basic employment is investigated sector by
sector and future projections are made sector by sector. In turn, this permits the projection of
future total employment in the region.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economic_base_analysis
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Guide, Quantitative Methods, p. 161.
APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); pp. 507-508.
I. (53) What is the smallest census geographic unit with 100% tabulation of data?
(A) Consolidated MSA
(B) Census Tract
(C) Census Block
(D) Place
The correct answer is “C”
A census block is the smallest geographic unit used by the United States Census Bureau for
tabulation of 100-percent data (data collected from all houses, rather than a sample of houses).
Census blocks are grouped into block groups, which are grouped into census tracts. There are
on average about 39 blocks per block group. Blocks are typically bounded by streets, roads or
creeks. In cities, a census block may correspond to a city block, but in rural areas where there
are fewer roads, blocks may be limited by other features. The population of a census block
varies greatly from zero to hundreds, but has an average size of about 100 people.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Census_block
II. (54) The T6 Transect Zone represents the:
(A) Natural Zone
(B) Special District
(C) Central Business District
(D) Urban Core Zone
The correct answer is “D”
Standards were written for the first transect-based zoning codes, eventually to become the
SmartCode (released in 2003 by Duany Plater-Zyberk & Company). The six Transect Zones
provide the basis for real neighborhood structure, which requires walkable streets, mixed use,
transportation options, and housing diversity. The T-zones vary by the ratio and level of intensity
of their natural, built, and social components. To systemize the analysis and coding of traditional
patterns, a prototypical American rural-to-urban SmartCode transect has been divided into six
Transect Zones, or T-zones (below), for application on zoning maps.
SEE: http://www.transect.org/transect.html & http://www.miami21.org/TheTransect.asp
II. (55) A process where citizens address themselves to proposals through workshop
formats that involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a
conversation in full view of a larger group of listeners?
(A) Fishbowl
(B) Drop in Centers
(C) Design in
(D) Delphi Technique
The correct answer is “A“
Fishbowls involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a conversation
in full view of a larger group of listeners. Fishbowl processes provide a creative way to include
the “public” in a small group discussion. They can be used in a wide variety of settings, including
workshops, conferences, organizational meetings and public assemblies. Fishbowls are useful
for ventilating “hot topics” or sharing ideas or information from a variety of perspectives. When
the people in the middle are public officials or other decision-makers, this technique can help
bring transparency to the decision-making process and increase trust and understanding about
complex issues. In an open fishbowl, any member of the audience can, at any time, occupy the
empty chair and join the fishbowl. When this happens, an existing member of the fishbowl must
voluntarily leave the fishbowl and free a chair. The discussion continues with participants
frequently entering and leaving the fishbowl.
http://www.kstoolkit.org/Fish+Bowl
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fishbowl_(conversation)
2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 122
I. (56) The 1880’s saw the beginning of the cotton textile factories of the north move
south, a trend that continued into the 1950’s, primarily due to:
I. New Technology
II. Black Labor
III. Cheap Power
IV. Child Labor
(A) I, II
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “D”
After 1880, cotton production in the South began to grow and mills were opened in the South,
some as branches of Northern operations. African-Americans, many of whom were familiar with
technology unlike the Northern immigrants, staffed the cotton mills with cheap labor. The
South’s mill owners not only benefited from cheap labor, they also entered the textile industry at
a time of unprecedented technological advancement. The mill owners incorporated the most
modern machines into their factories which allowed them to increase production and cut labor
costs. At the end of the nineteenth century, however, railroads helped open up the nearby
coalfields in West Virginia, Virginia, Kentucky, Alabama, and Tennessee. As mining companies
grew, they produced coal that allowed textile mill owners to use steam engines. This increased
the size of the mills and their level of production.
The Southern textile industry relied in large part on the labor of children. Between 1880 and
1910, roughly a quarter of all textile workers were under the age of 16. Reformers eventually
began to chip away at the use of child labor. But early efforts to curb the practice failed. Children
did not disappear from the mills in the South until economic conditions and technological
advancements made their labor more expensive than that of adults. African-Americans, many of
whom were familiar with technology unlike the Northern immigrants, staffed the cotton mills with
cheap labor.
http://research.library.gsu.edu/c.php?g=115684&p=751981
https://historyengine.richmond.edu/episodes/view/246
III. (57) Metropolitan Planning Organizations (MPO), are typically responsible for which of
the following?
I. Coordinating regional transportation planning
II. Certifying that a project to be federally funded will be consistent with regional plans or
regional development goals.
III. Regulating land use and the construction of freeways.
IV Planning for air quality
A) I, II
B) II, III
C) I, II, III
D) I, II, IV
The correct answer is “D”.
Federal legislation passed in the early 1970s required the formation of a Metropolitan Planning
Organization (MPO) for any urbanized area (UA) with a population greater than 50,000. MPOs
were created in order to ensure that existing and future expenditures for transportation projects
and programs were based on a continuing, cooperative and comprehensive (3-C) planning
process. Federal funding for transportation projects and programs is channeled through the
MPO. MPOs in air quality nonattainment and maintenance areas are required to ensure that
emissions from transportation investments will not cause new violations or affect an area’s
schedule to attain the air quality standards. The Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1990 identifies the
actions states and MPOs must take to reduce emissions from on-road mobile sources in
nonattainment and maintenance areas.
http://www.planning.dot.gov/documents/briefingbook/bbook.htm#4BB
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metropolitan_planning_organization
http://www.h-gac.com/taq/airquality/faq/
II. (58) The model for zoning to be undertaken “in accordance with a comprehensive
plan” has its national origins in:
(A) A Standard City Planning Enabling Act
(B) Model Land Development Code
(C) A Standard State Zoning Enabling Act
(D) New York City’s first comprehensive plan
The correct answer is “C“
The basic foundation for planning and zoning in the U.S. was laid by two standard state
enabling acts published by the U.S. Department of Commerce in the 1920s. The first of these,
the Standard State Zone Enabling Act, was developed by an advisory committee on zoning
appointed by Secretary of Commerce (and later President) Herbert Hoover, with the first printed
edition in May 1924, and a revised edition in 1926. The SSZEA had nine sections, including a
statement that zoning regulations must be “in conformance with a comprehensive
plan” but did not define the term.
PAS Quick Note 52: Local Comprehensive Plan
https://www.planning.org/media/document/9007647/
https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/enablingacts.htm
III. (59) Universal Design involves:
I. The design of the built environment and products usable by all persons
II. Without the need for specialized adaptations or design
III. Striving to make the design of places and products equally appealing to all
IV. The creation of products only to be used by the disabled.
A) I, IV
B) I, II, III, IV
C) II, III, IV
D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “D”.
Universal design refers to broad-spectrum ideas meant to produce buildings, products and
environments that are inherently accessible to both people without disabilities and people with
disabilities. The term “Universal design” was coined by the architect Ronald L. Mace to describe
the concept of designing all products and the built environment to be aesthetic and usable to the
greatest extent possible by everyone, regardless of their age, ability, or status in life. Universal
Design involves making our homes and cities accessible to all people. Source: APA Planning
Magazine April 2002, “What Difference has the ADA Made?” by Terry S. Szold, page 12.
II. (60) A properly selected statistical sample of a large population will always?
A) Reduce the amount of effort required to ascertain characteristics of the population.
B) Provide a mathematical estimate of the accuracy of the calculated population
characteristics.
C) Be the unbiased sample of the entire population.
D) Be of adequate size to satisfy confidence criteria if a pre-sample was used to determine
the required sample size.
The correct answer is “B”.
II. (61) Jordantown desires to prepare a comprehensive plan in a Dillon’s Rule state that
has state statutes on zoning, but not comprehensive plans:
(A) The Town will need to seek approval of the plan from the Governor
(B) The Town can develop and approve the plan as they see fit (so long as they obey the
state and federal constitutions)
(C) The Town will need to seek explicit statutory authority from the state legislature in order
to be able to develop the plan
(D) The Town can develop and approve the plan as it’s simply the extension of zoning (i.e. a
plan that zoning must be consistent with)
The correct answer is “C “
The theory of state preeminence over local governments was expressed as Dillon’s Rule in an
1868 case: “Municipal corporations owe their origin to, and derive their powers and rights wholly
from, the legislature. It breathes into them the breath of life, without which they cannot exist. As
it creates, so may it destroy. If it may destroy, it may abridge and control.” In other words, in a
Dillon Rule state, local governments are devoid of authority absent an explicit delegation of
power from the state.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Forrest_Dillon
I. (62) The Mugler v Kansas Supreme Court case:
A) Upheld the state’s use of “police power”
B) Was the first case to find a “taking”
C) Upheld the constitutionality of the Morrill Act
D) Found an unconstitutional restriction on first amendment speech.
The correct answer is “A”
The Mugler v. Kansas (1887) Supreme Court decision held that a state’s legislation prohibiting
the manufacture of intoxicating liquor within its jurisdiction does not infringe on any right or
privilege secured by the Constitution of the United States, including the 14th amendment, was
not a taking, and found that the authority for the statute strictly relied upon Kansas’s police
power.
See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mugler_v._Kansas
http://www.oyez.org/cases/1851-1900/1887/1887_0
III. (63) In many ways, ____________looks a great deal like orthodox planning. Its goals
include environmental protection, economic vitality, social equity, and a high quality of
life including pedestrian- and transit-oriented development, controls on sprawl, diverse
housing choices, a compact mix of uses, protection of agricultural and environmental
resources, high-quality public services, and adequate infrastructure.
A) Rational Planning
B) Brownfield Planning
C) New Urbanism
D) Smart Growth Planning
The correct answer is “D”
By the mid 1990’s, there was concern about growth management, and a national movement
sometimes called “smart growth” has grown. This growth management effort raised questions of
regional planning, since because there was an absence of regional coordination, initiatives by
local jurisdictions could be undercut by neighboring communities. Source, JAPA, Summer
2002, “The New Regionalism” by Stephen Wheeler, page 269.
III. (64) Superblock is a concept most often associated with:
I. Le Corbusier’s Radiant City
II. Clarence Perry’s “Neighborhood Unit”
III. Radburn, New Jersey
IV. Urban renewal public housing projects
(A) I, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
In 1929, Clarence Perry developed the neighborhood unit plan in response to the advent of the
automobile and was also an attempt to identify the local community as a separate entity with its
own qualities and needs. The neighborhood unit was to be distinct enclave, separate from the
rest of the city. Perry’s idea was to create homogeneous “superblocks” separating vehicular and
pedestrian traffic; providing ample open space; and developing community life around the
neighborhood school. Perry’s concept was the basis for the development of the widely
acclaimed plan for Radburn, New Jersey, which incorporated Perry’s concepts - the superblock,
interior park, higher density clustering near the parkland, and hierarchial traffic separation. Le
Corbusier’s “The Radiant City” (1935) envisioned a city laid out in a near perfect grid of
superblocks, which became the basis for much of the public housing projects later built in the
United States.
III. (65) Right-to-farm laws are typically about:
(A) Governmental takings
(B) Coming to the nuisance
(C) Combating urban sprawl
(D) Agricultural inverse condemnation
The correct answer is (B)
Right-to-farm laws are designed to accomplish one or both of the following objectives: (1) to
strengthen the legal position of farmers when neighbors sue them for private nuisance; and (2)
to protect farmers from anti-nuisance ordinances and unreasonable controls on farming
operations. In most states, “coming to the nuisance” does not necessarily prevent farm
neighbors from winning in court, but a farmer usually has a stronger legal case if his or her
operation was there before the plaintiff moved to the area. Right-to-farm laws give farmers a
legal defense against nuisance suits; the strength of that defense depends on the provisions of
the law and the circumstances of the case.
http://www.farmland.org/programs/states/wa/documents/APPENDIXI-Righttofarmlaws.pdf
II. (66) Which of the following is an alternative to optimization for cases where there are
multiple and competing objectives in which one gives up the idea of obtaining a “best”
solution?
A) Satisficing
B) Correlation
C) LOS
D) Brainstorming
The correct answer is “A”
Satisficing is a method for making a choice from a set of alternatives encountered sequentially
when one does not know much about the possibilities ahead of time. In such instances, there
may be no optimal solution for when to stop searching for further alternatives. Satisficing takes
the shortcut of setting an adjustable aspiration level and ending the search for alternatives as
soon as one is encountered that exceeds the aspiration level. Source: www.argospress.com
V. (67) A Certified Planner could lose their AICP for:
I. Not paying special attention to the interrelatedness of decisions.
II. Not giving people the opportunity to have a meaningful impact on the development of
plans and programs that may affect them
III. Not dealing fairly with all participants in the planning process
IV. Not correctly stating your education, experience, or training
(A) IV
(B) I, III
(C) III, IV
(D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “A”
Rule of Conduct #12: We shall not misstate our education, experience, training, or any other
facts which are relevant to our professional qualifications. The other options are all Aspirational
Principles.
II. (68) The Mayor asks the Planning Department to hold public workshops with the goal
of improving the look of the central business district. As planning director, the tool(s)
you’d likely use?
I. Policy Delphi
II. Task Force
III. Charrette
IV. Visual Preference Survey
(A) III
(B) I, II
(C) III, IV
(D) I, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”
A Charrette is an intensive, interactive problem solving process with meetings convened around
the development of specific plans, also sometimes called a “Design In”. Within a specified time
limit, participants work together intensely to reach a resolution. The sponsoring agency usually
sets the goals and time limit and announces them ahead of time. A leader’s responsibility is to
bring out all points of view from concerned local residents as well as agency representatives
and experts.
A visual preference survey is a technique that assists the community in determining which
components of a plan or project environment contributes positively to a community’s overall
image or features. As the name implies, the technique is based on the development of one or
more visual concepts of a proposed plan or project. Once the visual concepts are developed,
they are used in a public forum or other specialized public gathering to provide the public with
an opportunity to review, study, and comment on their preferences for the features depicted by
the visual representations. Typical uses of visual preference surveys include helping the
community define the preferences for architectural style, signs, building setbacks, landscaping,
parking areas, size/scope of transportation facilities, surfaces finishes, and other design
elements. Visual preference surveys can complement other survey techniques. It can also be
used as part of a wider set of techniques to help educate the public about key features of a
project or plan and to assist in the development of ideas or concepts. Consequently, visual
preference surveys can be used in conjunction with public meetings or hearings, activities
involving vision development, design charrettes, and focus group discussions or small group
meetings. The use of the Delphi technique and Task Force meetings are typically not held as
public workshops.
https://www.planning.dot.gov/publicinvolvement/pi_documents/2b-b.asp#toc2b-b
https://www.planning.dot.gov/publicinvolvement/pi_documents/4c-g.asp
2014-2015 Chapter Presidents Council AICP Exam Prep guide; pp. 121-126
III. (99) The street segment shown below is best described as:
[New Planner — Winter 2012]
A) An Arterial
B) A Parklet
C) A Chicane
D) A Pocket Park
The correct answer is “B”
Parklets are miniature parks, effectively sited on underused public pavement such as parking
spaces and serving as an extension of the sidewalk to provide amenities and green space for
people using the street. The basic parklet is a platform with benches, chairs, and planters. A
pocket park is a small park accessible to the general public, often created on a single vacant
building lot or on small, irregular pieces of land.
http://www.planning.org/thenewplanner/2012/win/parklets.htm
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parklet
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pocket_park
II. (113) Degree levels on Arnstein’s Ladder are:
I. Citizen Power
II. Tokenism
III. Non-participation
IV. Community Involvement
(A) II, III
(B) I, II, IV
(C) III, IV
(D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “D”
http://pages.uoregon.edu/rgp/PPPM613/class10theory.htm
III. (165) What land use has the highest traffic/trip peak in morning and late afternoon?
(A) Residential
(B) Office
(C) Retail
(D) Industrial
The correct answer is “A”
The morning and afternoon traffic peaks both have trip ends that are home-based for many of
the trips, even if they’re going and coming from work (i.e. office, retail, industrial). These are
known as Home-Based Work (HBW) trips.
