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Question 1

(1) Which of the following statements “BEST” summarizes the concept embodied in “Dillon’s Rule”?
(A) local governments are devoid of authority absent an express delegation of power from the state
(B) state governments are devoid of authority absent an express delegation of power from the
federal government
(C) local governments have broad powers to protect the environment
(D) local governments have broad powers to regulate the subdivision of land

Answer 1

The correct answer is (A)
In 1872, Judge Dillon ruled that local governments were treated as subordinate instruments of the state
and were authorized to perform only those functions permitted by state legislation.

Question 2

(2) What is the “BEST” way to describe eminent domain?
A) a seizure of private property in accordance with a comprehensive plan
B) a seizure of private property not in accordance with a comprehensive plan
C) a seizure of private property for public purposes
D) a seizure of private property for private purposes

Answer 2

The correct answer is C)
Eminent domain procedures require payment of fair compensation for the damages to the property
owner.

Question 3

(3) Which of the following provides the “BEST” description of the National Environmental Policy Act
of 1969?
A) Required both the private and public sectors to conform to certain environmental standards
B) Required the public sector to enforce penalties on the private sector for violations of the Act
C) Required state and local governments to conform to certain environmental standards
D) Established the Environmental Protection Agency and granted broad regulatory powers to enforce
the Act

Answer 3

The correct answer is A)
In addition to the requirement that both sectors conform to specific environmental standards, the Act
also brought the federal court system into the review process for violations of NEPA standards.

Question 4

(4) The largest interest an owner can have in real property is “BEST” referred to as which of the
following?
A) fee simple estate
B) restricted estate
C) equity estate
D) easement estate

Answer 4

The correct answer is A)
A fee simple estate gives the owner the right to dispose of the interest in the land or pass it on to his
heirs. Fee simple estates can be taxed and/or taken by eminent domain by the government.

Question 5

(5) The Town of Hilton recently completed a comprehensive mapping program of the Town’s wetland
resources. Which of the following management techniques are “BEST” suited for insuring that golf
courses constructed near wetlands will not denigrate the resource?
A) subdivision drainage standards
B) health regulations governing pesticide application
C) special permit/performance standard requirements
D) downzoning

Answer 5

The correct answer is C)
Special permits can be a valuable tool to judge the impact or performance of certain land uses on
natural resources such as wetlands. The permit is issued under certain conditions, i.e., the golf course
limits its application of fertilizers and pesticides to areas outside the wetland boundaries as well as
outside of appropriate buffer areas to the wetland.

Question 6

(6) The City of Lancaster recently completed a comprehensive inventory of the vegetative resources
within its corporate boundaries. The inventory uncovered the presence of three rare and endangered
plant species, according to the state office of natural resources. Which of the following techniques
would be “BEST” suited for protecting these species from encroaching development?
A) overlay zoning district
B) prohibition of various uses and structures
C) subdivision road construction standards
D) downzoning

Answer 6

The correct answer is A)
Of the four choices, the most appropriate technique for protecting the rare and endangered species is
the adoption of an overlay zoning district. The district would overlay the Town’s existing zoning map
and regulate specific areas for the protection of the plant species. The overlay approach is more
refined, and thus more appropriate than simply prohibiting specific uses in the zoning ordinance without
benefit of an overlay map.

Question 7

(7) The City of Rangely is experiencing rapid development within the zones of contribution to their
public supply wells. Which of the following management techniques is “LEAST” suited for offering an
alternative to locate septic systems outside the zones of contribution?
A) transfer of development rights
B) cluster development
C) planned unit development
D) building permit moratorium

Answer 7

The correct answer is D)
Moratoriums do not offer development alternatives, but rather place restrictions on the timing and
location of future development.

Question 8

(8) The City of Westchester is experiencing rapid division of its undeveloped parcels. As planning
director, you have been asked to determine the “MOST” appropriate technique for reducing the
number of lots that are built upon within any 12-month period. You will most likely recommend
which of the following techniques?
A) transfer of development rights
B) cluster development
C) subdivision phasing
D) building permit moratorium

Answer 8

The correct answer is C)
Subdivision phasing allows Westchester to limit the number of lots within a subdivision that are built
upon in any specified period of time. This is a useful technique within specific areas of a community in
that it allows the city time to prepare for the impacts/needs of future growth.

Question 9

(9) The City of Lee is experiencing rapid development within the watershed of the City’s drinking
water supply. Which of the following management techniques is “MOST” effective for protecting
water quality?
A) purchase of development rights by the City within the watershed
B) requiring new development to be clustered outside of the watershed
C) imposition of a building permit cap
D) twelve month moratorium on new residential development

Answer 9

The correct answer is A)
While all four techniques offer some degree of watershed protection, the most effective is the
acquisition of development rights within the watershed.

Question 10

(10) The City of Marysville is experiencing rapid development within the zones of contribution to their
public supply wells. Which of the following management techniques are “BEST” suited for reducing
the number of lots that are built upon within any 12-month period?
A) transfer of development rights
B) cluster development
C) subdivision phasing
D) building permit moratorium

Answer 10

The correct answer is C)
Subdivision phasing allows a community to limit the number of lots within a subdivision that are built
upon in any specified period of time. This is a useful technique within zones of contribution, for
example, to allow the community time to implement other management measures such as development
of a monitoring plan, contingency plan or acquisition of land.

Question 11

(11) The City of Fernley is experiencing rapid development within the zones of contribution to their
public supply wells. Which of the following management techniques are “BEST” suited for offering
development options outside the zones of contribution?
A) transfer of development rights
B) cluster development
C) subdivision phasing
D) building permit moratorium

Answer 11

The correct answer is A)
Transfer of development rights allows land owners to transfer their development rights to land owned
within one part of the community to another location. It is a useful, although cumbersome, technique
to lure development away from sensitive resource areas.

Question 12

(12) The Town of Warm Springs is experiencing rapid development within the zones of contribution to
their public supply wells. Which of the following management techniques are “BEST” suited for
limiting the overall construction of dwellings within the zones of contribution?
A) transfer of development rights
B) cluster development
C) subdivision phasing
D) building permit moratorium

Answer 12

The correct answer is D)
A moratorium on the issuance of building permits is a useful, short term technique to allow the
community time to adopt or implement other management techniques to protect water quality.

Question 13

(13) Which of the following “BEST” describes a harbor management plan?
A) identifies issues associated with the harbor area and waterways
B) suggests goals, objectives and policies
C) provides an inventory of coastal and water resources of the community
D) all of the above

Answer 13

The correct answer is D)
Ideally, a harbor management plan addresses all major issues pertaining to land-side and water-side
uses, the relationship among them and options for land and water management for the future.

Question 14

(14) How do you “BEST” define a private sewage treatment facility (PSTF)?
A) a wastewater treatment facility owned by a private entity processing between 10,000 and
250,000 gallons of sanitary waste
B) a wastewater treatment facililty owned by a private entity processing between 250,000 and
1,000,000 gallons of sanitary waste
C) a wastewater treatment facility owned by a private entity designed to remove a percentage of
solids from the waste flow and provide anaerobic treatment of the wastewater
D) a wastewater treatment facility owned by a private entity designed to remove biochemical
oxygen demand (BOD) by approximately 30%

Answer 14

The correct answer is A)
A PSTF is a small scale sewage treatment facility currently being used for residential subdivision and
smaller commercial and industrial developments. PSTFs use a combination of a bio-mechanical
treatment unit and, in most circumstances, subsurface discharge

Question 15

(15) A New England town believes it may be losing tax revenues due to old and possibly inaccurate lot
size information. With a limited budget, what is the “BEST” alternative available to the town to
recalculate their lot sizes relatively quickly and inexpensively?
A) deed research combined with a lot-by-lot survey producing a new base tax map
B) regeneration of the base tax map through deed research and GIS
C) recalculation of lot sizes from existing tax maps
D) none of the above

Answer 15

The correct answer is B)
Many firms will perform deed research, and, combined with an aerial photography fly-over, redraw tax
maps. While this undertaking is not inexpensive, it can be done in a reasonable amount of time and the
cost of the project should be recouped in a few years through increased tax revenues, depending on the
level of error in the original tax maps. A lot-by-lot survey, arguably the most accurate method to
recalculate lot sizes, would be very time consuming and expensive. Recalculation of lot sizes, the least
expensive of the three methods, may catch original errors in calculations but will not catch the
dimension errors that may be inherent in the existing tax maps

Question 16

(16) An image is not aligning properly with your other data themes or layers. This is “MOST” likely
due to:
A) the image file is not compatible with your data files
B) your GIS software does not support that image file type
C) the image file has not been registered correctly or is not registered
D) vector data cannot be displayed with raster or image data

Answer 16

The correct answer is C)
There is a very good possibility that the image file has not been registered in the same projection and/or
coordinate system as your other data files. GIS places datalayers where they belong on the earth’s
surface. In this manner, data that belongs in Wisconsin appears in Wisconsin and data that belongs in
Massachusetts appears in Massachusetts. If an image has not been registered correctly or is in a
different coordinate system, it will not appear with the rest of your data. Instead, it will be positioned
on a different part of the globe

Question 17

(17) The City of Westchester is experiencing rapid division of its undeveloped parcels. As planning
director, you have been asked to draft revisions to the comprehensive plan that would lay the
foundation for slowing the city’s growth. The Mayor has asked you to determine the most appropriate
technique for reducing the number of lots that can be built upon within any 12 month period. You
would “MOST LIKELY” recommend the following growth management technique:
A) Transfer of development rights
B) Cluster development
C) Subdivision phasing
D) Building permit moratorium

Answer 17

The correct answer is C)
Subdivision phasing allows Westchester to limit the number of lots within a subdivision that are built
upon in any specified period of time. This is a useful technique within specific areas of a community in
that it allows the city time to prepare for the impacts/needs of future growth. Note that subdivision
phasing regulations do not necessarily limit the total number of lots built upon city-wide. Rather, this
technique focuses on particular regions or areas of the City where growth control is desired. For
example, if development within certain roadway corridors is exceeding the goals of the comprehensive
plan, subdivision phasing may be an appropriate technique for slowing growth patterns along those
corridors.
Suggested reading: “Growth Management Principles and Practices”, A. Nelson and J. Duncan, APA
Planners Press, 1995.

Question 18

(18) As planning director, you have been asked to prepare a detailed analysis of the groundwater
resources in your community. What would be the “BEST” source for this report?
A) US Environmental Protection Agency
B) US Geological Survey
C) National Marine Fisheries
D) Bureau of Land Management

Answer 18

The correct answer is B)
The US Geological Survey is an excellent source of information regarding geology, hydrology and
hydrogeology for your community.

Question 19

(19) The Town of Smithtown recently completed a delineation of the wellhead protection areas (zones
of contribution) for their six public water supply wells. Which of the following management
techniques are “BEST” suited for translating the zone of contribution delineation onto the Smithtown
zoning map?
A) overlay zoning district
B) prohibition of various uses and structures
C) special permit requirements
D) downzoning

Answer 19

The correct answer is A)
An overlay zoning district “maps” the delineated area onto the zoning map. It is often considered the
most important step linking the scientific delineation to the management of the resource.

Question 20

(20) The Town of Smithtown recently completed a delineation of the wellhead protection areas (zones
of contribution) for their six public water supply wells. Which of the following management
techniques are “BEST” suited for reducing, but not eliminating, residential development in the R-40
zoning district?
A) building permit moratorium
B) prohibition of various uses and structures
C) special permit requirements
D) downzoning

Answer 20

The correct answer is D)
Downzoning, or raising the minimum lot size requirements has limited effectiveness in protecting water
quality, but can be successful in reducing overall density within a specific district.

Question 21

(21) The Town of Smithtown recently completed a delineation of the wellhead protection areas (zones
of contribution) for their six public water supply wells. Which of the following management
techniques is “BEST” suited for insuring that golf courses will not contaminate public water supplies?
A) overlay zoning district
B) prohibition of various uses and structures
C) special permit requirements
D) downzoning

Answer 21

The correct answer is C)
Special permits can be a valuable tool to judge the impact of certain land uses on water quality. The
permit issued under certain conditions, i.e., the golf course, limits its application of fertilizers and
pesticides to areas outside the zone of contribution to public supply wells.

Question 22

(22) The Town of Smithtown recently completed a delineation of the wellhead protection areas (zones
of contribution) for their six public water supply wells. The City Council recently heard a rumor that a
large regional landfill was about to be proposed in town by a large waste management company.
Which of the following management techniques is “BEST” suited for insuring that the landfill will not
be allowed within the wellhead protection areas?
A) building permit moratoria
B) prohibition of various uses and structures
C) special permit requirements
D) downzoning

Answer 22

The correct answer is B)
An appropriate regulatory tool to ensure that the landfill will not be sited within the designated zones of
contribution is to prohibit landfills and associated uses.

Question 23

(23) The City of Portsmouth is experiencing rapid development within the zones of contribution to
their public supply wells. Which of the following management techniques are “BEST” suited for
offering a subdivision design alternative to locate septic systems outside the zones of contribution?
A) transfer of development rights
B) cluster development
C) subdivision phasing
D) building permit moratorium

Answer 23

The correct answer is B)
A cluster development provides an alternative to the standard grid-style subdivision. It provides
tremendous flexibility for both the developer and municipality, and often allows for greater creativity
and environmental sensitivity in the division of large land parcels.

Question 24

(24) The protection of a wet meadow is “BEST” accomplished by which of the following regulatory
techniques?
A) Health ordinance
B) Subdivision regulation
C) Wetlands regulation
D) Zoning ordinance

Answer 24

The correct answer is C)
A wet meadow is a wetland and best protected by a wetlands protection regulation. Some communities
have attempted to use zoning ordinances to protect wetlands, but have found in many cases, that
zoning is too inflexible to protect a resource such as wetlands that have variable habitats and
boundaries

Question 25

(25) Wetzel, R.G. 1983. Limnology, (2nd ed.). Saunders College Publishing. Philadelphia, PA. is a
reference “BEST” described by which of the following?
A) most useful for groundwater/drinking water protection study
B) most useful for surface water protection study
C) most useful for coastal water protection study
D) not useful for any of the above

Answer 25

The correct answer is B)
While this book would be helpful for an analysis of coastal waters, it is most useful for preparing a study
of a surface water system.

Question 26

(26) Hesketh, E.S. 1986 The efficiency of nitrogen use by Kentucky bluegrass turf as influenced by
nitrogen rate, fertilizer ratio and nitrification inhibitors. M.S. Thesis, Univ. of Rhode Island, Kingston,
RI. is a reference “BEST” described by which of the following?
A) most useful for groundwater/drinking water protection study
B) most useful for surface water protection study
C) most useful for coastal water protection study
D) not useful for any of the above

Answer 26

The correct answer is B)
While this book may be helpful for an analysis of coastal waters, it is most useful for preparing a study of
a surface water system.

Question 27

(27) Guswa, J.H., and D.R. LeBlanc. 1981. Digital models of ground-water flow in the Cape Cod aquifer
system, Massachusetts. USGS, Water Resource Investigations Open File Report 80-67, 1981, is a
reference “BEST” described by which of the following?
A) most useful for groundwater/drinking water protection study
B) most useful for surface water protection study
C) most useful for coastal water protection study
D) not useful for any of the above

Answer 27

The correct answer is A)
This report would be useful for a groundwater/drinking water protection study.

Question 28

(28) Cooke, D.G., and R.E. Carlson. 1989. Reservoir management for water quality and THM precursor
control published by the American Water Works Association is a reference “BEST” described by which
of the following?
A) most useful for groundwater/drinking water protection study
B) most useful for surface water protection study
C) most useful for coastal water protection study
D) not useful for any of the above

Answer 28

The correct answer is “A”

Question 29

(29) Bennett, G.D., M.J. Mundorff, and S.A. Hussain. 1968. Electric-analog studies of brine coning
beneath fresh-water wells in the Punjab Region, West Pakistan: U.S. Geological Survey Water-Supply
Paper 1608-J., 31p is a reference “BEST” described by which of the following?
A) most useful for groundwater/drinking water protection study
B) most useful for surface water protection study
C) most useful for coastal protection study
D) not useful for any of the above

Answer 29

The correct answer is A)
Salt water intrusion is a concern with groundwater systems used for drinking water purposes. This
report would be useful for a groundwater protection study.

Question 30

(30) Dobratz, W.R., et al. 1986. Protection and management of Spokane’s sole source aquifer.
AWWAU, 78, 9 is a reference “BEST” described by which of the following?
A) most useful for groundwater/drinking water protection study
B) most useful for surface water protection study
C) most useful for coastal protection study
D) not useful for any of the above

Answer 30

The correct answer is A)
An aquifer is a geologic unit capable of yielding usable amounts of drinking water. This report would be
helpful for a groundwater protection study.

Question 31

(31) The Town of Elko recently completed a delineation of the surface watershed to their drinking
water reservoir. Which of the following regulatory techniques are “BEST” suited for translating
delineation onto the town’s zoning map?
A) overlay zoning district
B) transfer of development rights
C) special permit requirements
D) variance

Answer 31

The correct answer is A)
An overlay zoning district connects a delineated area to the official map. It is often considered the most
important step toward linking the delineation of the watershed to the management of the reservoir.

Question 32

(32) The Town of Vienna recently completed a delineation of the wellhead protection areas (zones of
contribution) for their two public water supply wells. Which of the following management techniques
is the “MOST EFFECTIVE” for reducing further residential development in the wellhead protection
areas?
A) overlay zoning district
B) prohibition of various uses and structures
C) acquisition by Vienna of development rights in the wellhead protection areas
D) downzoning

Answer 32

The correct answer is C)
Acquisition of land within the wellhead protection areas is the most effective strategy for reducing the
ultimate development of the delineated area.

Question 33

(33) Which of the following “BEST” defines the public trust doctrine?
A) the doctrine that holds that certain natural resources are held in trust for the benefit of all the
people
B) the doctrine that holds that the public has the right of access between mean low and high tides
C) the doctrine that holds that government may take the land for the public benefit
D) the doctrine that holds that the government may not take land for the public benefit

Answer 33

The correct answer is A)
The public trust doctrine is an ancient concept, dating back to Roman law. The doctrine holds that
certain land is so unique that it should be held in trust by the government for the use and benefit of the
public.

Question 34

(34) How do you “BEST” define a watershed?
A) area that contributes recharge to a public supply well
B) area that contributes surface recharge to a surface water body
C) both A) and B)
D) neither A) nor B)

Answer 34

The correct answer is B)
A watershed is the land area that contributes surface recharge to a surface water body

Question 35

(35) Which of the following statements “BEST” summarizes the concept embodied in “Dillon’s Rule”?
A) Local governments are devoid of authority absent an express delegation of power from the state
B) State governments are devoid of authority absent an express delegation of power from the
federal government
C) Local governments have broad powers to protect the environment
D) Local governments have broad powers to regulate the subdivision of land

Answer 35

The correct answer is A)
In 1872, Judge Dillon ruled that local governments were treated as subordinate instruments of the state
and were authorized to perform only those functions permitted by state legislation. The effect of
“Dillon’s Rule”, combined with limitations placed upon local governments via the Supremacy Clause of
federal and state constitutions, has been to allow local governments only those powers which the state
specifically ascribes to the local government. Contrast the constraints placed by Dillon’s Rule with the
concept of “Home Rule”. Home Rule states allow their local governments to adopt any regulations
provided that the regulation is: 1) not in conflict with a state or federal law and/or 2) is not preempted
by state or federal law. Local governments in Home Rule states have, therefore, far more leeway and
local options to develop regulations and ordinances for the protection of public health, safety, and
welfare. The majority of the United States are considered Home Rule jurisdictions.
Suggested reading: “Land Use Regulation,” Salsich, P. and Tryniecki, T., American Bar Association, 1998

Question 36

(36) What term “BEST” describes permeable deposits directly overlying a sand and gravel aquifer?
A) a watershed
B) a confined aquifer
C) a tertiary recharge area
D) a primary recharge area

Answer 36

The correct answer is D)
Primary recharge areas are typically those areas that provide recharge to an aquifer with little or no
attenuation of contaminants. Depending on the depth to the water table and the overlying geologic
characteristics, travel time from the land’s surface to the aquifer can be rapid (e.g. travel time in feet per
day).

Question 37

(37) How would you “BEST” classify the use of special or conditional use permits to protect natural
resources?
A) zoning variance
B) health regulation
C) taking
D) performance standard

Answer 37

The correct answer is D)
Performance requirements or standards typically employ special or conditional use permits to regulate
development based upon its performance or impact upon natural resources. Because, in theory, the
permit is granted only if the development “performs” according to certain criteria, regulatory agencies
can ensure that the development will be in harmony with the regulation’s goal of protecting the natural
resource system.

Question 38

(38) How would you “BEST” describe a floodplain?
A) An area that experiences surface flooding during storms
B) The land area that provides surface recharge to surface water systems
C) An area that contains an abundance of wetland plants
D) The land area that buffers wetlands during coastal storms

Answer 38

The correct answer is A)
There are three general types of floodplains. The most common are coastal areas and those bordering
streams that flood during the 100-year statistical storm. The less common areas are isolated
depressions that flood at least once a year to an average depth typically of six inches and to a volume of
one-quarter acre-foot (10,890 cubic feet).

Question 39

(39) If a surface waterbody exhibits excess algae or plant growth, what is the “LIKELY” nonpoint
source of pollution?
A) sediment from agriculture
B) urban runoff
C) runoff from silviculture
D) nutrients from agriculture or septic systems

Answer 39

The correct answer is D)
Excess algae or plant growth, often called eutrophication, is usually the result of nutrients entering the
water body from agriculture, septic systems and lawn fertilizers.

Question 40

(40) Best management practices (BMPs) typically refer to land management for what use?
A) agricultural uses
B) residential uses
C) urban development
D) all of the above

Answer 40

The correct answer is D)
BMPs focus on controlling pollutants where they originate–for example, in agricultural fields or
residential subdivisions.

Question 41

(41) “It is of course implicit that a use restriction on real property may constitute a ‘taking’ if not
reasonably necessary to the effectuation of a substantial public purpose.” This sentence is “BEST”
summarized by which of the following?
A) a taking will be found to have occurred if the community prohibits the use of real property to its
highest and best use
B) a taking will be found to have occurred if the community places a use restriction on real property
C) a taking will be found to have occurred if the community places a use restriction on real property not
rationally connected to the community’s planning goals or programs or other public benefit
D) none of the above

Answer 41

The correct answer is C)
A taking will be found to have occurred if the community places a use restriction on real property not
rationally connected to the community’s planning goals or programs or other reason rationally
connected to the protection of the health, safety or welfare of the community and its inhabitants.

Question 42

(42) The City of Portsmouth is experiencing rapid development within the zones of contribution to
their public supply wells. Which of the following management techniques is “BEST” suited for offering
a subdivision design alternative to locate septic systems outside the zones of contribution?
A) Transfer of development rights
B) Cluster development
C) Subdivision phasing
D) Building permit moratorium

Answer 42

The correct answer is B)
A cluster development provides an alternative to the standard grid-style subdivision. It provides
tremendous flexibility for both the developer and the municipality, and often allows for greater
creativity and environmental sensitivity in the division of large land parcels. By definition, a cluster
configuration places the development on a smaller portion of the locus than under a traditional “grid”
development scheme. This placement, because it is developing the same number of units on a smaller
portion of the parcel, requires that units be situated on smaller lots than would otherwise be allowed in
a “grid” development. In exchange for developing on smaller lots, the petitioner is required to set aside,
typically into perpetuity, land within the development as open space. A key ingredient in successful
cluster regulations has been the requirement that the open space have “value” and not simply be land
that could not be developed. Moreover, the location, extent, and upkeep of the open space is of
paramount importance in designing and implementing an effective cluster ordinance.
Suggested reading: “Rural by Design: Maintaining Small Town Character”, R. Arendt, American Planning
Association, 1994, “The Cluster Subdivision”, American Planning Association, PAS #356, 1980, and
“Saving American Farmland: What Works”, American Farmland Trust, 1997.

Question 43

(43) The largest interest an owner can have in real property is “BEST” referred to as:
A) Fee simple estate
B) Restricted estate
C) Equity estate
D) Easement estate

Answer 43

The correct answer is A)
A fee simple estate gives the owner the right to dispose of the interest in the land or pass it on to his
heirs. Fee simple estates can be taxed and/or taken by eminent domain by the government. In theory
(and law), a fee simple estate continues throughout time indefinitely; the chain of ownership will
continue, unbroken, forever. A fee simple estate is distinguished from a defeasible estate in that a
defeasible estate does not continue in it’s chain of ownership forever, but rather, due to an event or
simply the passage of time, is transferred to parties other than the current holder’s descendants or
devisees.
Suggested reading: “Property”, J. Dukeminier and J. Krier, Little, Brown, and Co., 1998.

Question 44

(44) Which is the tax with the “LEAST” amount of overlap between government entities?
A) property tax
B) sales tax
C) income tax
D) corporation taxes

Answer 44

The correct answer is A)
The property tax is almost exclusively a local government tax, while sales, income, and corporation taxes
overlap between the federal, state, and local levels of government.

Question 45

(45) Which of the following source(s) of information would be “LEAST” helpful in identifying potential
groundwater contamination sources in a small town?
A) aerial photographs
B) assessor’s plats
C) zoning map
D) subdivision regulations

Answer 45

The correct answer is D)
Aerial photographs, assessor’s plats and the community zoning map all provide clues to potential
groundwater contaminants. The subdivision regulations would not be helpful in determining past or
present sites of contamination.

Question 46

(46) As planning director, you have been asked to obtain information regarding the type of soils
existing in your community. Which of the following agencies are you “LEAST LIKELY” to contact for
this information?
A) Soil Conservation Service
B) US Geological Survey
C) US Department of the Interior
D) US Department of Commerce

Answer 46

The correct answer is D)
The Department of Commerce would be useful in providing information on climate and wildlife
resources, but would be least helpful in your investigations on soil types in your community.

Question 47

(47) Which of the following would be “LEAST LIKELY” to be affected by rising sea level?
A) Inland communities located more than 20 miles from the ocean, since the effects of sea level rise will
affect only coastal communities within 20 miles of the ocean
B) Coastal communities whose drinking water supply is derived from groundwater sources
C) Communities located in Iowa and Kansas
D) Coastal flood zones as mapped by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

Answer 47

The correct answer is C)
Communities in Iowa and Kansas are not likely to be affected physically by sea level rise. Answer A) is
incorrect because there are coastal estuaries which extend far inland, more than 20 miles from the open
ocean (e.g., Chesapeake system), which could be drowned by rising sea level. Drinking water supplies
from groundwater sources in coastal areas could potentially be threatened by increasing salt water
intrusion as sea level rises. Coastal flood zone maps would change as sea level rises.

Question 48

(48) Of the following acts involving environmental issues, which one requires the “LEAST” active role
by local government?
A) the National Environmental Policy Act
B) the Safe Drinking Water Act
C) the Community Right to Know Act
D) the Resource Recovery and Conservation Act

Answer 48

The correct answer is A)
The National Environmental Policy Act was designed to require environmental impact studies for certain
federal actions. Local (and state) government role is limited to review and comment

Question 49

(49) Which case “FIRST” established the concept of “public welfare”?
A) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co.
B) Golden v. Planning Board of Ramapo
C) Southern Burlington County NAACP v. Township of Mount Laurel
D) Nectow v. City of Cambridge

Answer 49

The correct answer is A)
The United States Supreme Court upheld the City of Euclid’s zoning regulations as a legitimate exercise
of the police power, asserted for public welfare. The court’s decision established local zoning as a legally
defensible land use regulation and formed the basis for local court decisions on land use controls for
several years

Question 50

(50) Which concept did Fred French Investing Co. v. City of New York introduce for the “FIRST” time?
A) planned unit development
B) transfer of development rights
C) eminent domain
D) open space zoning

Answer 50

The correct answer is B)
The French case is best known for the ruling that transfer of development rights, while a legitimate
planning tool, would be inappropriate to compensate the landowner for a taking by the City of New
York.

Question 51

(51) Your client has asked you to investigate the risks involved in the acquisition of a large rental
housing project. She is concerned with the overall after-tax value of the acquisition. As her advisor,
you are likely to recommend, as one of the “FIRST” steps, that she:
A) Prepare an income statement for the project
B) Prepare a cash flow statement for the project
C) Analyze the pre-existing rental contracts to project cash flow
D) A) and B)

Answer 51

The correct answer is D)
With the preparation of both an income statement and a cash flow statement (commonly called a “set
up”), the prospective real estate purchaser can accurately measure the value (and risks) of the
acquisition. The key distinction between the two statements is that the income statement projects
either net or gross income over a period of time, while the cash flow statement projects the timing of
incoming payments. The importance of the later, of course, is that even with a positive income
statement, poor cash flow can prove fatal to any business.
Suggested reading: “The Financial Analysis of Governments”, R. Berne and R. Schram, Prentice Hall,
1986.

Question 52

(52) What is the “MOST COMMONLY” used standard to determine the payment for condemned
property?
A) its highest and best use
B) the restoration standard
C) its replacement value
D) its investment return potential

Answer 52

The correct answer is A)
The majority of governments involved in condemnation payments employ the highest and best use
standard; the highest and best use to which the property can be adapted.

Question 53

(53) The concept that a hardship must be unique to the particular property and not to the owner or
the general public is “MOST LIKELY” to be included in the discussion of which of the following?
A) special permit
B) rezoning
C) variance
D) eminent domain proceeding

Answer 53

The correct answer is C)
“Hardship” is the key indicator of a variance.

Question 54

(54) Which of the following techniques would be “MOST EFFECTIVE” for a community to employ as it
seeks to protect its reservoir from contamination?
A) raise the current minimum lot size in the watershed from 1 to 3 acres per dwelling
B) prohibit expansion of the existing landfill
C) prohibit additional industrial and commercial development in the watershed
D) purchase 25% of the undeveloped land in the watershed for passive conservation

Answer 54

The correct answer is D)
Acquiring land in the watershed for conservation purposes is the most effective technique for protecting
the water supply. Answers A) through C) are effective, but still allow existing land uses to continue,
posing a constant threat to water quality.

Question 55

(55) In reviewing a groundwater model, what is the “MOST IMPORTANT” aspect to check to validate if
the model is sufficiently designed to adequately portray the true system?
A) Accuracy of the model output when compared to the observed field data
B) Precision of the model output
C) Size of the model cells or elements
D) Number of calibration runs conducted

Answer 55

The correct answer is A)
Groundwater models should be calibrated against observed conditions and field data. Typically, model
calibration involves testing the model against more than one set of known conditions to ensure that the
model can adequately portray more than one set of conditions. Size of model cells and number of
modeling runs are also important, but to a lesser degree. Model precision refers to the repeatability of
the results, not the correctness of the results.

Question 56

(56) A coastal community is concerned that their current level of development may be affecting water
quality. As the town is located on an estuary, a nitrogen loading analysis of the estuary is performed
based on its surrounding watershed. The town is located in this watershed. The community wishes to
use GIS to perform the analysis, as there is no funding for a comprehensive sampling program. Which
of the following datasets will be “MOST HELPFUL” to the town?
A) land use
B) water quality data gathered at scattered points within the watershed at various times
C) aerial photographs
D) topographic maps

Answer 56

The correct answer is A)
Nitrogen loading analyses are based on land use data as varying land uses contribute varying amounts of
nitrogen. For example, you would expect more nitrogen from a fertilized golf course than you would
from forests. There are publications that can help you to determine the nitrogen loading rates from
various land uses. Scattered water quality data may help to confirm portions of a nitrogen loading
analysis but cannot be used as a basis for the analysis. Aerial photographs may be used to help in
determining land use. Topographic maps will be helpful in delineating the watershed areas that may
contribute nitrogen to the water body of interest.

Question 57

(57) An image is not aligning properly with your other data themes or layers. This is “MOST LIKELY”
due to:
A) the image file is not compatible with your data files
B) your GIS software does not support that image file type
C) the image file has not been registered correctly or is not registered
D) vector data cannot be displayed with raster or image data

Answer 57

The correct answer is C)
There is a very good possibility that the image file has not been registered in the same projection and/or
coordinate system as your other data files. GIS places datalayers where they belong on the earth’s
surface. In this manner, data that belongs in Wisconsin appears in Wisconsin and data that belongs in
Massachusetts appears in Massachusetts. If an image has not been registered correctly or is in a
different coordinate system, it will not appear with the rest of your data. Instead, it will be positioned
on a different part of the globe.

Question 58

(58) Which map is “MOST USEFUL” in determining development patterns of a city?
A) Surficial Geology Quadrangles
B) National Wetlands Inventory
C) City Assessor Plats
D) Geographic Information Systems (GIS)

Answer 58

The correct answer is C)
While GIS information would be of help in determining development patterns, the city assessor’s plats
may provide a more accurate picture of development patterns.

Question 59

(59) In an urban community, which of the following agencies is “MOST LIKELY” to actively pursue an
adaptive re-use program?
A) Planning Commission
B) Code Enforcement Office
C) Housing Authority
D) Board of Health

Answer 59

The correct answer is C)
The Housing Authority is likely to establish and pursue an adaptive re-use program as a means of
creating additional housing. Adaptive re-use programs have included the re-development of old housing
stock as well as the creative re-use of industrial structures for rental and ownership housing.

Question 60

(60) The City of Westchester is experiencing rapid division of its undeveloped parcels. As planning
director, you have been asked to draft revisions to the comprehensive plan that would lay the
foundation for slowing the city’s growth. The Mayor has asked you to determine the “MOST
APPROPRIATE” technique for reducing the number of lots that can be built upon within any 12 month
period. You would most likely recommend the following growth management technique:
A) Transfer of development rights
B) Cluster development
C) Subdivision phasing
D) Building permit moratorium

Answer 60

The correct answer is C)
Subdivision phasing allows Westchester to limit the number of lots within a subdivision that are built
upon in any specified period of time. This is a useful technique within specific areas of a community in
that it allows the city time to prepare for the impacts/needs of future growth. Note that subdivision
phasing regulations do not necessarily limit the total number of lots built upon city-wide. Rather, this
technique focuses on particular regions or areas of the City where growth control is desired. For
example, if development within certain roadway corridors is exceeding the goals of the comprehensive
plan, subdivision phasing may be an appropriate technique for slowing growth patterns along those
corridors.

Question 61

(61) What is the “MOST EFFECTIVE” regulatory technique for protecting a town’s groundwater supply?
A) Downzone all residential districts in the town from 1/2 acre minimum lot size to 2 acres per dwelling
B) Revise the subdivision regulations to limit dead-end roads to 600 feet
C) Adopt an overlay zoning ordinance prohibiting non-residential uses within aquifer recharge areas
D) Adopt an impact fee ordinance to collect funds from developers

Answer 61

The correct answer is C)
Adopting an overlay district to protect the aquifer recharge areas is a proven regulatory technique for
protecting groundwater quality.

Question 62

(62) Which of the following is the “MOST APPROPRIATE” way to regulate the development of a new
landfill?
A) variance
B) special permit
C) cluster zoning
D) rezoning

Answer 62

The correct answer is B)
Special permits are appropriate instruments for siting uses a community considers essential, but may
require special attention due to environmental threats.

Question 63

(63) Which of the following is the “MOST APPROPRIATE” way to regulate the expansion of a
nonconforming structure?
A) variance
B) special permit
C) cluster zoning
D) rezoning

Answer 63

The correct answer is B)
A special permit application is the appropriate instrument to determine the impacts of expansions of
pre-existing, nonconforming uses and structures to a neighborhood.

Question 64

(64) Which of the following is the “MOST APPROPRIATE way to regulate the expansion of a
commercial use into a residential neighborhood?
A) variance
B) special permit
C) cluster zoning
D) rezoning

Answer 64

The correct answer is D)
A rezoning of a portion of the residential property to accommodate the commercial use would be the
most appropriate approach to the expansion.

Question 65

(65) Which of the following is the “MOST APPROPRIATE” instrument for waiving the frontage
requirements for a lot located on an isolated hillside?
A) variance
B) special permit
C) cluster zoning
D) rezoning

Answer 65

The correct answer is A)
A variance would be appropriate in this case, provided the hillside represented a severe topographic
hardship, precluding the strict application of the ordinance.

Question 66

(66) The “MOST COMMON” source of nonpoint pollution is:
A) agriculture
B) silviculture
C) mining
D) construction and urban runoff

Answer 66

The correct answer is A)
Two-thirds of the country’s rivers are adversely affected by agricultural nonpoint-source pollution,
generally stemming from crop production and animal husbandry.

Question 67

(67) Which of the following boards is “MOST LIKELY” to conduct a site plan review of an industrial
park development?
A) Planning Commission
B) Zoning Board of Appeals
C) Fire Department
D) Code Enforcement Office

Answer 67

The correct answer is A)
The site plan review process varies from community to community, but of the boards noted above, the
Planning Commission is the most likely board to conduct or, at least, coordinate the industrial park’s site
plan review. It is possible, however, that all of the agencies noted above are involved, to some degree,
in the site plan review.

Question 68

(68) Which of the following agencies is “MOST LIKELY” to author a transfer of development rights
ordinance?
A) Planning Commission
B) Zoning Board of Appeals
C) City Council
D) Board of Health

Answer 68

The correct answer is A)
While the City Council may eventually ratify the transfer of development rights ordinance, it is likely that
the Planning Commission (or its staff) would author the original ordinance.

Question 69

(69) Which of the following agencies is “MOST LIKELY” to establish rules and regulations establishing
maximum volume discharges from septic systems?
A) Planning Commission
B) Zoning Board of Appeals
C) Housing Authority
D) Board of Health

Answer 69

The correct answer is D)
The Board of Health (sometimes in conjunction with the Planning Commission) is the most likely agency
to develop regulations governing septic systems and volume discharges.

Question 70

(70) An appeal by an aggrieved party to a zoning board of appeals decision would “MOST LIKELY” be
filed with whom?
A) local planning board
B) local building inspector
C) state superior level court
D) state office of planning

Answer 70

The correct answer is C)
Appeals from local zoning decisions are usually filed with the state court of competent jurisdiction.

Question 71

(71) What is the “MOST NOTABLE” distinction between a special permit and a variance?
A) the absence of a hardship requirement
B) administrative requirements
C) procedures for appeals
D) standing to appeal

Answer 71

The correct answer is A)
A variance is a departure from the terms of the zoning ordinance, granted in cases of hardship. A special
permit authorizes uses permitted by the zoning ordinance upon scrutiny by a local permit granting
authority.

Question 72

(73) Soil suitability for septic tanks is “BEST” gauged by the results of:
(A) A hydrostatic test
(B) Soil classification by auger testing
(C) Biochemical oxygen demand analysis
(D) Soil plasticity analysis

Answer 72

The correct answer is “B“

Question 73

(74) Which of the following is the “BEST WAY” to assess the recreational needs of a community?
(A) Evaluate available public lands
(B) Use National Recreation and Park Association (NRPA) standards
(C) Survey residents’ preferences for programs and facilities
(D) Determine recreation program participation rates and attendance data

Answer 73

The correct answer is “C“

Question 74

(75) Which of the following “BEST” defines a public space?
(A) Social interaction
(B) Landscaping
(C) Sense of ownership
(D) Access to the site

Answer 74

The correct answer is “A

Question 75

(76) Estimates of future land requirements for industrial uses are “MOST OFTEN” based on trends in:
(A) Manufacturing employment
(B) Wholesale trade employment
(C) Regional population
(D) Regional purchasing

Answer 75

The correct answer is “A“

Question 76

(77) Which of the following methods of receiving meaningful input is “MOST APPROPRIATE” for an
issue that is expected to have a social impact on a neighborhood?
(A) Interviews with elected officials who represent the neighborhood
(B) Facilitated sessions with small groups of neighborhood residents
(C) A telephone survey of the neighborhood
(D) A public hearing preceded by maximum publicity in the community

Answer 76

The correct answer is “B“

Question 77

(78) What is considered to be the “MOST EFFECTIVE” way of developing long-term satisfaction with a
neighborhood plan?
(A) Maintain strong relationships with the neighborhood leaders
(B) Prepare one-year plans to adjust to changing conditions
(C) Build a consensus among participants during the planning process
(D) Schedule regular meetings between planners and neighbors

Answer 77

The correct answer is “C“

Question 78

(79) What is the correct sequence of the following steps in the urban design process, from first to last?
I. Delineation of hard and soft areas
II. Examination of land-use/circulation relationships
III. Survey of the visual environment
IV. Translation of proposals for action
(A) II, III, I, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, I, II, IV
(D) III, II, I, IV

Answer 78

The correct answer is “D“

Question 79

(80) A new ski lift is proposed for a site in a planner’s county. The site includes a prime big-game
wildlife habitat, which has already been affected by a nearby community of 3,000 people. The AICP
Code of Ethics states that the planner has a responsibility to “strive to protect the integrity of the
natural environment,” therefore, the planner should “FIRST”:
(A) Give special scrutiny to all land-use applications associated with the ski lift project
(B) Organize a meeting of the ski lift developers, state fish and wildlife staff, and county planning
staff to determine what options exist
(C) Encourage the environmental groups by keeping them informed
(D) Determine the total jobs and public revenues the ski lift would generate and weigh these against
the loss of wildlife habitat

Answer 79

The correct answer is “B“

Question 80

(81) The planning director of a small city wants to get as much public input as possible on a city-wide
study. Which of the following would be the “LEAST” effective method of stimulating citizen
participation?
A. Contacting neighborhood leaders, advising them of the study, and asking them to report
neighborhood reaction
B. Completing the study, printing the final report, and asking for citizen comments on it
C. Preparing press releases that give the general scope of the study and asking for comments from
the general public
D. Offering to address interested neighborhood or other civic groups on the subject of the study

Answer 80

The correct answer is “B”

Question 81

(82) Which of the following land-use models describes the pattern of axial growth along lines of
“LEAST” resistance?
A. Multiple nuclei model
B. Concentric zone model
C. Sector model
D. Negative exponential population density model

Answer 81

The correct answer is “C”

Question 82

(83) Gifford Pinchot was the “FIRST” head of which agency, created in 1905?
(A) The National Park Service
(B) The Bureau of Land Management
(C) The Rural Resettlement Administration
(D) The Forest Service

Answer 82

The correct answer is “D“

Question 83

(84) Clarence Stein is “BEST” known for his work on which topic?
(A) The New York State thruway
(B) The Catskill preserve
(C) The American Garden City movement
(D) The Rural Electrification Administration

Answer 83

The correct answer is “C”
Stein was involved in the development of garden cities under the rural Resettlement Administration
including Radburn and the for-profit development of Sunnyside Gardens, NY.

Question 84

(85) Which individual is known for “FIRST” using layering to show suitability?
(A) Eric Fromm
(B) John Reps
(C) Ian McHarg
(D) Roger Tomlinson

Answer 84

The correct answer is “C”
McHarg wrote Design with Nature and used Mylar layers to show suitability for development. John Reps
wrote The Making of Urban America. Roger Tomlinson is known as the “Father of GIS”. Erich Fromm is a
social psychologist/sociologist well known for the Critical Theory.

Question 85

(86) Which of the following statistics is the “BEST” measure of central tendency to use when
explaining levels of income in a community?
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Standard deviation

Answer 85

The correct answer is “B”
Half of the homes in the community cost more than the median and half cost less, therefore, this is a
good measure of central tendency. If housing prices in a community are normally distributed, the mean,
median, and mode will be close in value and will all be reasonable measures of central tendency.
However, if housing prices are not normally distributed, the mean and mode can be misleading. The
mean is the average of housing prices and a very few expensive houses in a community can raise the
mean much higher than the median. If a community has, for example, a large number of identical, lowvalue housing, the mode, the most frequently occurring value, will reflect this. The standard deviation is
not a measure of central tendency but of dispersion of the distribution of housing prices about the
mean. The U.S. Census Bureau calculates median housing value.

Question 86

(87) New development is proposed in an area that has insufficient roadway capacity. The county
planning director wants to institute traffic-impact fees to pay for road improvements. The “MOST
APPROPRIATE” basis on which to establish the fee structure is the:
A) Number of housing units
B) Number of trips generated
C) Amount of commercial square footage
D) Amount of employment

Answer 86

The correct answer is “B”
There should be a nexus or close relationship between the object of the impact fee and the public
service provided. Trip generation is most closely related to need for roadway capacity improvements.

Question 87

(88) A local property owner who wants to enlarge a garage seeks a variance from the setback
requirements in a local zoning ordinance. What local regulatory body is “MOST LIKELY” to handle this
request?
(A) The zoning board of appeals (adjustments)
(B) The planning and zoning commission
(C) The city council
(D) The public works department

Answer 87

The correct answer is “A”
Petitions from property owners for site-specific modifications of local zoning regulations are typically
referred to the Board of Zoning Appeals (BZA). This entity is normally authorized to grant variances to
the ordinance.

Question 88

(89) In preparing a physical plan for a site within an urban center, which of the following types of
maps would be “LEAST” useful?
(A) Topographic map
(B) Utilities map
(C) USGS quadrangle map
(D) Parcel map

Answer 88

The correct answer is “C”
The scale of a USGS quadrangle map (1:24,000) is too large to show enough detail that would be useful
for site planning.

Question 89

(90) Which of the following would be the “LEAST” useful criterion for evaluating whether a proposed
development can be adequately served by a fire agency?
(A) The age of the fire-fighting equipment in the fire station closest to the development
(B) The fire insurance ratings for the development’s location
(C) The distance between the development and a fire station
(D) The availability of adequate water pressure in the development

Answer 89

The correct answer is “A”
Fire insurance ratings are based on numerous criteria and provide a quick assessment of degree of fire
protection. Distance and water availability are directly related to the ability of the fire department to
respond.

Question 90

(91) In a community with limited financial resources and a volunteer planning commission, which of
the following is the “MOST PRACTICAL” way to positively impact local planning decision making?
(A) Recruit only planning commissioners with professional planning experience
(B) Provide planning commissioners with training on procedures and the state enabling legislation
(C) Improve meeting attendance by raising planning commissioner per diems
(D) Schedule planning commissioner open houses to augment public comment periods

Answer 90

The correct answer is “B”
In most communities, the responsibility for most land-use and development decisions rests with
planning commissioners and city and county boards, who are responsible for approving local plans,
rezoning and variance requests, and development proposals. Education on the basics of planning can
help members of these boards make better decisions.

Question 91

(92) The preservation of historic structures can “BEST” be assured by:
(A) Asking owners of historic properties to renovate them and to avoid demolition
(B) Creating historic preservation districts that govern the use and maintenance of contributing
buildings in the district
(C) Developing a historic properties inventory and including it in the Comprehensive Plan
(D) Creating a commission to publicize the historic character of these structures

Answer 91

The correct answer is “B”
The designation of a historic district and the imposition of special architectural controls are ways to
integrate historic-preservation controls into a zoning ordinance. This regulates the treatment of historic
buildings rather than depending on voluntary or informational means alone.

Question 92

(93) Which of the following is probably the “MOST EFFECTIVE” way to stop development in a
watershed?
(A) Floodplain regulations
(B) Purchase of Development Rights
(C) Performance-based zoning
(D) Floating zone regulations

Answer 92

The correct answer is “B”
With Purchase of Development Rights (PDR), the right to develop a property is severed from property
ownership. Floodplain regulations call for elevation of building in flood prone areas, not throughout a
watershed. Performance-based zoning regulates the character of the use of land and is more flexible
than traditional zoning regulations; such regulations may, for example, call for no negative impact on
the watershed. These are difficult to administer and enforce and are not commonly used at this point in
time. Floating zones are districts that are described in a zoning ordinance but have not necessarily been
included on the zoning map. The zone “floats” over the community until it is affixed to a particular area
through an amendment to the zoning map. Floating zones are difficult to administer and are often found
to be invalid because they appear similar to spot zoning.

Question 93

(94) Which of the following is the “BEST” map to use to identify the location of sand and gravel
deposits?
(A) USGS topographic maps
(B) USGS orthophoto quads
(C) Natural Resources Conservation Service Soil Survey maps
(D) Flood Insurance Rate Maps

Answer 93

The correct answer is “C”
Natural Resources Conservation Service Soil Survey maps identify soil types. The best known USGS maps
are the 1:24,000-scale topographic maps, which use contour lines (lines of equal elevation) to portray
the size, shape, and elevation of the features. An aerial photo does not have a uniform scale and cannot
be used to measure distances, but an orthophoto is a uniform-scale image and may be used to measure
distance and may serve as a base map. Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRM) may use orthophotos as base
maps to identify land that has at least a 1% chance of flooding in any year.

Question 94

(95) Which of the following would be the “BEST” way to contribute to energy efficiency in a singlefamily residential home?
(A) Reduce the R rating of ceiling insulation from 30 to 19
(B) Increase the R rating of ceiling insulation from 19 to 30
(C) Wrap the hot water heater with R-4 insulation
(D) Buy an energy efficient washing machine

Answer 94

The correct answer is “B”
Increasing the R rating of ceiling insulation from 19 to 30 will save the most energy. Reducing the R
rating would make it more expensive to heat or cool a home, increasing insulation around the water
heater and buying an energy efficient washing machine are good ideas but will not generally improve
energy efficiency as much a increasing ceiling insulation will.

Question 95

(96) In drafting a neighborhood plan, what is the “MOST EFFICIENT AND EFFECTIVE” way to ensure
that the interests of all groups have been addressed?
(A) Send a copy of the draft plan to all ethnic, religious, and social organizations in the
neighborhood and request written comments
(B) Conduct focus group meetings in the neighborhood to discuss plan concepts and issues prior to
drafting the plan
(C) Conduct a statistically valid public opinion poll of the neighborhood residents to determine their
issues and desires
(D) Hold a public hearing on the draft plan at night at the neighborhood elementary school

Answer 95

The correct answer is “B”
The key to this response is this: “…prior to drafting the plan”. To be efficient and effective with civic
engagement, participation must be incorporated early in, and throughout, the process.

Question 96

(97) Which of the following is the “LEAST” likely purpose of public participation in the planning
process?
(A) To develop a consensus or common philosophy
(B) To maintain demographic ethic
(C) To develop political support
(D) To obtain professional expertise

Answer 96

The correct answer is “D”
Members of the public are not called on for their professional expertise per se. They are invited into the
process for their expertise as residents and consumers of their neighborhood.

Question 97

(98) City A has received an application that requires property owners within a certain radius from the
boundaries of the application’s property to be noticed. The application’s property is located on the
municipal boundaries that separate City A and City B. Which of the following would be the “MOST
APPROPRIATE” noticing process?
(A) Notice only the properties within City A
(B) Notice all properties within the prescribed noticing radius
(C) Forward the application to City B; let their staff decide if noticing of City B property owners
should occur
(D) Forward the application to City B’s staff and ask for their comments

Answer 97

The correct answer is “B”
Although the letter of the law might support limiting noticing only to City A properties, it would be
presumptuous to assume that any impact on City B properties will not occur. Also, relying on City B staff
may eliminate City B property owner’s actual notification and potential participation.

Question 98

(99) Who would be the “MOST EFFECTIVE” person to facilitate discussion on a controversial issue
concerning a development application submitted to the city?
(A) The city staff planner assigned to the review of the application
(B) A member of the city planning staff trained in facilitation techniques
(C) A member of the city staff trained in facilitation techniques who is not a member of the planning
staff
(D) A person trained in facilitation techniques who is not an employee of the city

Answer 98

The correct answer is “D”
Participants in the discussion may consider any city employee as having a bias toward the planning
staff’s position on the application.

Question 99

(100) A planning director receives a donation of a large turkey prior to the holidays. The “BEST”
course of action in this case is to:
(A) Send the turkey back to the donor without explanation
(B) Accept the turkey without acknowledgment
(C) Donate the turkey to a local food bank and ask the donor not to send anything next year
(D) Give the turkey to a staff member

Answer 99

The correct answer is “C”

Question 100

(101) The “BEST” way to communicate with citizens is to?
(A) Write informational letters.
(B) Involve them in goals programs.
(C) Run public information spots on TV.
(D) Publish articles in the newspaper describing current issues.

Answer 100

The correct answer is “B”

Question 101

(102) An Arterial street is “BEST” described as a?
(A) Highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access and generally with grade
separations at intersections.
(B) Street that provides through traffic movement on a continuous route joining major traffic
generators, where access to abutting proper-ties may be controlled.
(C) Major roadway with no access to adjacent properties.
(D) Street that accounts for the largest percentage of all roadways in terms of mileage.

Answer 101

The correct answer is “B”

Question 102

(103) Of the following, which works “BEST” to conserve energy?
(A) Voluntary rationing of fuel.
(B) Solar heating.
(C) Telecommuting.
(D) Battery powered vehicles.

Answer 102

The correct answer is “C”

Question 103

(104) Of the following definitions, which one “BEST” describes the term “raster”?
(A) GIS system hardware.
(B) Program to make line drawings.
(C) A grid-type data format used to interpret gray-scale photographs and satellite imagery.
(D) Table program use in CADD applications.

Answer 103

The correct answer is “C”

Question 104

(105) In the appraising process, the term “highest and best use” often comes into play. This can be
“BEST” defined as?
(A) Developing a lot so as to contribute to the best interest of the community.
(B) Producing the greatest net return on the investment over a period of time.
(C) Developing a lot so as to produce the highest gross income.
(D) Producing the price an asset would fetch in the marketplace.

Answer 104

The correct answer is “B”

Question 105

(106) A watershed is BEST defined as the?
(A) Area that contributes recharge to a public supply well.
(B) Area that contributes recharge to a surface water body.
(C) Area that supplies water to an aquifer in a groundwater basin,
(D) A and B.

Answer 105

The correct answer is “B”

Question 106

(107) You have been asked to prepare a detailed analysis of the groundwater resources in your
community. The “BEST” resource for this report would be?
(A) US Environmental Protection Agency.
(B) US Geological Survey.
(C) National Marine Fisheries.
(D) Bureau of Land Management

Answer 106

The correct answer is “B”

Question 107

(108) Which of the following “BEST” describes when a “taking” will occur?
(A) A taking will have occurred if the community prohibits the use of real property to its highest and
best use.
(B) A taking will have occurred if the community places a use restriction on real property.
(C) A taking will have occurrence if the community places a use restriction on real property not
rationally connected to the community’s planning goals or programs or other public benefit.
(D) The taking is permanent, but not temporary.

Answer 107

The correct answer is “C”

Question 108

(109) A planning manager of a mid-sized city planning division is actively pursuing a program to
motivate her planning staff to create a better work environment and improve productivity. Which of
the following motivation techniques used by the manager represent the “BEST” way to motivate her
staff?
(A) Improve working conditions.
(B) Raise salaries.
(C) Provide the staff with challenging work in which they assume responsibility.
(D) Shuffle tasks.

Answer 108

The correct answer is “C”

Question 109

(110) A principal planner is responsible for overseeing and supervising the development of a new
development code by a consultant. The consultant is not performing as agreed to in the contract.
Deadlines are not being met and the work product is substandard. The principal planner has not
discussed his concerns with the consultant in the past hoping that things would improve. They have
not and now he feels that he must take action. Which action represents the “BEST” way to initially
handle this situation?
(A) Terminate the contract.
(B) Write the consultant a letter outlining your concerns.
(C) Call the consultant personally and discuss your concerns. Follow up with a letter outlining your
concerns.
(D) Withhold further payment until the consultant straightens-up.

Answer 109

(110) A principal planner is responsible for overseeing and supervising the development of a new
development code by a consultant. The consultant is not performing as agreed to in the contract.
Deadlines are not being met and the work product is substandard. The principal planner has not
discussed his concerns with the consultant in the past hoping that things would improve. They have
not and now he feels that he must take action. Which action represents the “BEST” way to initially
handle this situation?
(A) Terminate the contract.
(B) Write the consultant a letter outlining your concerns.
(C) Call the consultant personally and discuss your concerns. Follow up with a letter outlining your
concerns.
(D) Withhold further payment until the consultant straightens-up.

Question 110

(111) Brainstorming is “BEST” described as?
(A) A tool or technique to solicit ideas from all members of a group.
(B) A method for determining political affiliation.
(C) A method used by planning managers to facilitate a meeting.
(D) A tool to reach consensus based on the results of multiple rounds of questionnaires sent to a
panel of experts

Answer 110

The correct answer is “A”

Question 111

(112) Neighborhood groups typically protest the introduction of multiple family projects into the
area. Which of the following BEST represents the principal reason for this NIMBYism?
(A) Fear of loss of property value.
(B) Fear of rise in crime rate.
(C) Concern about traffic and over-crowding of schools.
(D) Concern about “unstable” apartment dweller lifestyles

Answer 111

The correct answer is “A”

Question 112

(113) The City of Fairview recently completed a comprehensive inventory of the vegetative resources
within it’s corporate boundaries. The inventory uncovered the presence of three rare and endangered
plant species according to the state office of natural resources. Which of the following techniques
would be “BEST” suited for protecting these species from encroaching development?
(A) Overlay zoning district.
(B) Prohibition of various uses and structures.
(C) Subdivision road construction standards.
(D) Down-zoning.

Answer 112

The correct answer is “A”

Question 113

(114) The Cohort Survival Method is BEST described as which of the following?
(A) The number of Roman soldiers that survived the battle against Hannibal.
(B) A method for making population projections.
(C) A method used to calculate population projections by sex and by five year age intervals.
(D) A method used to calculate population projections by sex and by five year age intervals that
interprets fertility (rate at which babies are born) and survival in any given population group, or
subgroup.

Answer 113

The correct answer is “D”

Question 114

(115) A senior planner is responsible for preparing the Open Space Element for a General Plan update.
She had been asked to prepare a report to the Town Elders that addresses open space preservation. In
her presentation she discusses the difficulties associated with the long-term preservation of open
space for public recreation (park) purposes. In her report she outlined ways to preserve open space
for future use. Which of the following methods for preserving open space in her report represents the
“BEST” way to preserve parkland for future public facilities development?
(A) Designate the property as Open Space on the General Plan Land Use map.
(B) Purchase the property from the landowner.
(C) Designate the land as Urban Reserve.
(D) Initiate the eminent domain process to take the land for community use

Answer 114

The correct answer is “B”

Question 115

(116) Which of the following “BEST” describes an obligation bond?
(A) The City is obligated to provide public services for new development.
(B) Money needed to get out of jail.
(C) The taxing of a jurisdiction is pledged to pay interest and principal to retire a debt.
(D) Money that must be paid through taxes for the construction of schools

Answer 115

The correct answer is “C”

Question 116

(117) Which statement “BEST” describes tax increment financing? Tax increment financing is?
(A) A method of financing used by school districts and redevelopment agencies.
(B) Used to pay for CIP projects.
(C) Used by the cities to rip-off private citizens.
(D) Used to provide front end funds in an area where large scale redevelopment is feasible. A
district around the proposed development is designated with a tax base equivalent to the values
of all the property within the area.

Answer 116

The correct answer is “D”

Question 117

(118) Which of the following definitions “BEST “describes the term “vector”?
(A) GIS mapping function that displays maps.
(B) GIS coordinate-based data structure commonly used to represent linear geographic features.
(C) A mainframe computer system with GIS.
(D) Both A and C

Answer 117

The correct answer is “B”

Question 118

(119) Which of the following “BEST” describe a water table?
I. A recharge basin.
II. A good site for well development.
III. The upper surface of groundwater.
IV. The level below the soil which is seasonally saturated with water.
(A) I and II
(B) III and IV
(C) II and III
(D) I, II, and IV

Answer 118

The correct answer is “B”

Question 119

(120) A floodplain is “BEST” described as?
(A) An area that experiences surface flooding during storms.
(B) The land area that provides surface recharge to surface systems.
(C) An area that contains an abundance of wetland plants.
(D) The land that buffers wetlands during coastal storms.

Answer 119

The correct answer is “A”

Question 120

(121) Which of the following “BEST” describes an easement?
I. A granting of one or more of property rights by the property owner to another person or entity.
II. A loss of property rights.
III. A taking without compensation.
IV. A granting of property rights for use by the public.
(A) I and II
(B) I and IV
(C) II and III
(D) III and IV

Answer 120

The correct answer is “B”

Question 121

(122) An aquifer is “BEST” described as?
(A) Infiltration of water through the pores or spaces of rock or soil.
(B) The upper surface of groundwater.
(C) Water from a well that has a blue-green tint.
(D) An underground bed or stratum of earth, gravel or porous stone that contains water.

Answer 121

The correct answer is “D”

Question 122

(123) A City Planner is responsible for supervising a staff of twelve (12) professional planners. It is her
desire to improve the working environment for her professional staff. Which of the following
represents the “BEST” way to achieve this organizational goal?
(A) Authorize a new work schedule that permits the staff to work 4 ten-hour days, with 2 three-day
weekends each month.
(B) Reprimand poor performance in private not at staff meetings.
(C) Make every effort to match staff skills and interests with required tasks that have the potential
to promote advancement.
(D) Attend union meetings and support the staff’s petition for annual salary increases.

Answer 122

The correct answer is “C”

Question 123

The correct answer is “C”

Answer 123

The correct answer is “D”
Voice mail is not considered good customer service. Comment boxes are only effective if they are
frequently checked. Access to the zoning ordinance is good, but staying open at lunchtime would be the
most effective way to improve customer service.

Question 124

(125) The principal of a one-man consulting firm has been asked to submit a proposal to assist the
development service staff of a rural city with the preparation of a new Community Plan. The planning
consultant is currently over-booked with projects. The contract is eventually awarded to his firm.
Which of the following is the “BEST” course of action for the consultant?
(A) Agree to execute the work assuming that his schedule will look better next month when several
projects are scheduled to be completed.
(B) Hire a temporary assistant to work on existing projects to free up time to take on the new
assignment.
(C) Determine that he cannot provide diligent service to any of his clients if he assumes more work
and respectfully refuse the offer.
(D) Ask the planning director if the project can wait until he has time to work on it.

Answer 124

The correct answer is “C”
Although the consultant may be able to temporarily employ an assistant to help out, typically, clients
feel they have hired the consultant’s expertise (not the firm’s). It is not reasonable to expect a client to
accept the late entry of a new person. Likewise, the consultant should not expect a project to be
delayed while he/she finishes other projects. If the consultant cannot perform the work the contract
must be turned down.

Question 125

(126) A senior planner is preparing a report for a proposed General Plan Amendment to facilitate an
“affordable” multiple family project inside the Central Business District. The hearing notice generated
moderate community protest over the proposed change. Some council members are leaning toward
approval since the community needs affordable housing, but are concerned about how to justify their
affirmative votes. Under these circumstances which of the following represents the “BEST”
recommendation for staff to make?
(A) A recommendation for “denial” would protect the Council from further public dissent.
(B) A recommendation for “approval” supported by a discussion of the current housing shortage
and the need for affordable housing.
(C) A recommendation for “denial” indicating that approve of residential uses in a commercial area
would be poor planning.
(D) A recommendation for “approval” supported by describing ways new residential areas in the
CBD would have positive effects on the vitality of the downtown.

Answer 125

The correct answer is “B”
Although answer D could also be correct, the urgent need for housing, and especially affordable
housing, would provide the Council with the best reason for approving the land use change.

Question 126

(127) The “BEST” way to validate community opinion is to?
(A) Hold regular Town Meetings.
(B) Contract with a consulting firm to carry out a public opinion survey.
(C) Officially recognize and collaborate with organized neighborhood groups.
(D) Organize steering committees to formulate public policy.

Answer 126

The correct answer is “C”
Community opinion can be determined in a number of ways. The best way to substantiate community
opinion is to work with organized neighborhood groups.

Question 127

(128) A planning manager is concerned about the poor work performance of the associate planner. He
decides to share his concerns with her. Which of the following would be the “BEST” way to discuss
this matter with her?
(A) Ask the associate planner to come to his office to discuss the situation.
(B) Bring up his concerns at the regular staff meeting so the senior staff can provide input.
(C) Meet the planner at her desk and go over the requirements and expectations of the associate
planner position.
(D) Write an email memo to the associate planner outlining his concerns

Answer 127

The correct answer is “C”
Personnel matters should not be aired at a staff meeting. If her desk is private it may be best to meet
there. If not, his office can be utilized. Either way the meeting should include a witness to protect both
parties.

Question 128

(129) Of the following, which “BEST” describes a Capital Improvement Program (CIP)?
(A) An administrative device for scheduling the construction of everything in the city, public and
private, balancing income sources against outgo on a year-by-year basis, usually projecting five
to six years ahead and being revised each year or every two years.
(B) An administrative device for scheduling income sources and amounts against outgo for
permanent public construction projects on a year-by year basis, usually projecting five to six
years ahead and being revised each year or every two years.
(C) An administrative device for scheduling income and outgo for permanent public construction
projects on a five to six year increment basis, usually projecting twenty to thirty years into the
future and being revised every five to six years.
(D) A program for the repainting and repair of the state capitol building.

Answer 128

The correct answer is “B”
A CIP program is an administrative device for scheduling income sources and amounts against outgo for
permanent public construction projects on a year-by year basis, usually projecting five to six years ahead
and being revised each year or every two years.

Question 129

(130) Prior to public hearing a member of the Town Elders believes he may have a conflict with
respect to a matter before the Elders. Of the following, which represents the “BEST” action for the
Elder to take?
(A) Remain in his seat and participate in the discussion including asking questions, but do not vote
on the matter.
(B) Leave the room during the hearing on the particular matter.
(C) Leave the chamber prior to the hearing.
(D) Remain in his seat but do not participate in the discussion, do not ask questions, and do not vote
on the matter.

Answer 129

The correct answer is “C”
An elected official must make public disclosure of all ``personal interests’’ they may have regarding any
decision to be made in the planning process in which they serve. “Personal interest’’ must be broadly
defined to include a spouse, family member or person living in their household. An elected official must
abstain completely from direct or indirect participation as an advisor or decision-maker in any matter in
which they have a personal interest. The member needs to leave the room entirely in order to remove
any possibly of a challenge based on the member’s “silent” participation through body language, facial
expressions, etc.

Question 130

(131) A building set back is “BEST” described as which of the following?
(A) The distance established by ordinance that must be provided between buildings.
(B) The distance at which buildings are located from the street.
(C) The distance established by ordinance that is provided between the property line and the
building line.
(D) The distance backward from the property line at which all buildings must be located

Answer 130

The correct answer is “C”
A building be set back is that certain distance from the street or lot line either on the street level or at a
prescribed height. The planning goal is to allow more room for pedestrians or to reduce the obstruction
to sunlight reaching the streets and lower stories of adjoining buildings (basic light, air, space). Setbacks
also have a relationship to building and fire codes.

Question 131

(132) An advocate planner is “BEST” defined in which of the following?
(A) Someone who advocates planning.
(B) A professional planner working for the interests of special interest groups.
(C) A professional planner who advocates the interests of the white affluent business community.
(D) A planner who advocates the general public interest over the special interest of subgroups.

Answer 131

The correct answer is “B”
Dissatisfaction with planning as it was being practiced in late 1960s to early 1970s led to the
development of advocacy planning. Cookie-cutter plans were not responsive to local needs. Elitist plans
were prepared and adopted by “establishment” plan commission. Plans ignored needs of minorities and
low-income families. Advocacy planning refers to the right of a special interest group, such as a
neighborhood group or other group to advocate plans directed to its own interests. Interests should
form the basis of government action. Citizen participation in plan making is as important as the plan
itself. Key issues of the movement were environmental issues and growth management.

Question 132

(133) Which of the following “BEST” describes ”satisficing”?
(A) A term meaning that an applicant is satisfied with the approval of his project.
(B) Accepting policy options short of maximizing goal attainment.
(C) Accepting policy options short of attaining 100% consensus.
(D) Both B and C.

Answer 132

The correct answer is “C”
A level of “consensus”, where policy options are accepted short of 100% agreement. Would be used in
meeting facilitation and in formulation of “alternatives” in long-range planning programs.

Question 133

(134) A planner goes to the Planning Director and makes a complaint of sexual harassment against
another employee in the department. What should the Planning Director do FIRST?
(A) Bring both employees into the office to try and determine if the complaint is real or not.
(B) Contact the Personnel Department and ask for direction.
(C) Calm the complaining employee down and try to solve the issue “in-house”.
(D) Review the Manager’s Procedures Manual, Sexual Harassment Section, and follow the
instructions.

Answer 133

The correct answer is “D”

Question 134

(135) You are the City Planner of a medium-size city in a urban county sharing common boundaries
with the regional council of governments. The local COG has announced it will incorporate a
development moratorium in its draft advisory regional plan. Your department has been working with
local county property owners to incorporate a part of undeveloped land at the boundary of the city in
order to create an intensive business park. As the city’s land use administrator, you should “FIRST”?
(A) Resign in protest over the continued interference by the COG in local matters.
(B) Call your COG representative to discuss the implications that the regional body’s proposal could
have on your city’s annexation and economic development plans.
(C) Call the local newspaper editor to denounce the COG’s action and fix the blame for any loss of
jobs with COG officials.
(D) Review the draft advisory plan and policies to determine if the proposed moratorium affects
your city’s intended action.

Answer 134

The correct answer is “D”

Question 135

(136) Which of the following is the “FIRST” step in program evaluation?
(A) Defining goals and objectives.
(B) Developing performance measures.
(C) Designing the study.
(D) Collecting the data.

Answer 135

The correct answer is “A”

Question 136

(137) A small metropolitan planning agency has determined to implement a program to obtain
infrastructure financing through approval of an impact fee ordinance. To successfully initiate this
program a number of objectives must be established and achieved. Which of the following objectives
needs to be achieved “FIRST”?
(A) Seek legal counsel to prepare a legally defensible impact fee ordinance.
(B) Develop a computer-based impact-measurement program.
(C) Prepare a public relations program that includes a simple, non-technical issues report and
briefings for the planning commission and governing board; in addition, obtain the cosponsorship of the chamber of commerce for a one-day conference.
(D) Develop benchmark data on the infrastructure costs of development using nationwide and
locally generated data

Answer 136

The correct answer is “D”
This question evaluates your ability to identify the proper sequence of actions in a typical planning
program. “First your socks, then your shoes”. Other objectives identified in answers A, B and C would
follow the development of benchmark data.

Question 137

(138) Which of the following planning processes/programs would a community undertake “FIRST” to
promote “Sustainability”?
(A) Developing a future-oriented community vision through advance planning that looks beyond
current needs and recognizes environmental limits to human development.
(B) Making planning decisions in a holistic and fully informed manner that involves all segments of
the community and the public and private sectors.
(C) Fostering projects/activities that promote economic development by efficiently and equitably
distributing resources and goods; minimizing, reusing and recycling waste; and protecting
natural ecosystems.
(D) Educating all age groups to raise public understanding of, and regard for, the future
consequences of current planning decisions and ultimately changing human behavior

Answer 137

The correct answer is “A”
Development of a future-oriented community vision through advance planning would provide the
foundation for the programs and activities described in the other answers.

Question 138

(139) State law allows the legislative body of a jurisdiction to prepare a general plan without soliciting
public input outside the normal public hearing process. Notwithstanding the law, the senior planner
of a rapidly growing city of 90,000 is concerned about the implications of excluding the public from
the planning process. She knows that many citizens in the community desire more involvement in this
important advance-planning project. Which of the following would she do “FIRST”?
(A) Facilitate a town meeting to receive citizen input about preparation of the general plan.
(B) Prepare a report to the Council recommending that the city solicit more citizen input.
(C) Discuss her feelings with the Planning Director and seek direction.
(D) Contact each council member individually to discuss her concerns

Answer 138

The correct answer is “C”
It would be imprudent for the senior planner to take any action other than to seek direction from the
planning manager.

Question 139

(140) Planners in a large city that is made up of approximately 150 neighborhoods are concerned
about the provision and allocation of health-care clinics at the multiple-neighborhood level
throughout the city. One of the central issues is prenatal care.
It is now ten years later, the clinics were built and a very comprehensive data collection system was
kept in operation. The clinic programs are under fire, the budgets are expected to be slashed, and
some clinics probably will be forced to close. Time is of the essence. Based on this scenario, which of
the following would be the “LEAST” critical evaluation question?
(A) Are higher levels of clinic usage associated with various infant mortality rates?
(B) If distance does not affect the use of the clinics, does it do so differentially by income strata?
(C) Are family income levels associated with distance from the clinic?
(D) What kinds of persons (education, income level, etc.) use each clinic?

Answer 139

The correct answer is “C”

Question 140

(141) Which of the following is the “LEAST” important in calculating population projections?
(A) Mobility data.
(B) Birth data.
(C) Death data.
(D) Income data.

Answer 140

The correct answer is D”

Question 141

(142) A principal planner is responsible for overseeing and supervising the preparation of a new
development code by a consultant. The consultant is not performing as agreed to in the contract.
Deadlines are not being met and the work product is substandard. The principal planner has not
discussed his concerns with the consultant in the past hoping that things would improve. They have
not and now he feels that he must take action. Which action represents the “BEST” way to initially
handle this situation?
(A) Terminate the contract and dismiss the consultant.
(B) Write the consultant a letter outlining his concerns.
(C) Call the consultant personally, discuss his concerns, and follow up with a letter.
(D) Withhold further payment until the consultant’s work product improves.

Answer 141

The correct answer is “C”
It is too early in the process to “fire” the consultant. A personal call is an effective way of getting your
point across. The conversation needs to be memorialized in a letter to begin the necessary paper trail in
case the contract needs to be terminated.

Question 142

(143) Of the following acts involving environmental issues which one requires the “LEAST” active role
by local government?
(A) National Environmental Policy Act.
(B) Safe Drinking Water Act.
(C) Community Right to Know Act.
(D) Resource Recovery and Conservation Act.

Answer 142

The correct answer is “A”

Question 143

(144) Which of the following typically generates the “MOST” storm water runoff?
(A) Undeveloped area.
(B) Commercial parking lot area.
(C) Multiple family residential.
(D) Single family residential.

Answer 143

The correct answer is “B”

Question 144

(145) Of the following techniques for preserving agricultural land, which would be the “MOST
EFFECTIVE”?
(A) Transfer of Development Rights.
(B) No growth policy.
(C) Building permit moratorium.
(D) Right to farm ordinance.

Answer 144

The correct answer is “B”

Question 145

(146) Which of the following is the “MOST IMPORTANT” element in a customer service program?
(A) An emphasis on people.
(B) Staff expertise and training.
(C) Identification of customers.
(D) An objective for continuous improvement.

Answer 145

The correct answer is “B”
Good customer service begins with an adequately trained staff that will “perform diligent, competent
work that serves the public interest”.

Question 146

(147) A senior planner is responsible for presenting a staff report before the planning commission.
Which of the following would be the “MOST IMPORTANT” thing to accomplish in her oral
presentation?
(A) Discuss options and staff recommendations.
(B) Present no more than five major points.
(C) Loosen up the panel with humor.
(D) Address the needs of special interest groups first.

Answer 146

The correct answer is “A”

Question 147

(148) Which of the following would be considered the “MOST IMPORTANT” social goal of TEA-21?
(A) Support of studies of connections between transportation and sustainable land use.
(B) Provision of funding for projects that will transport welfare recipients to and from jobs.
(C) Emphasis on freight planning and public transit use.
(D) Congestion mitigation and air quality improvement program

Answer 147

The correct answer is “B”
The key to answering this question is properly using the language of the set up text. You are looking
for a “social” goal of TEA-21. The most important social goal of the program is the funding of projects to
assist welfare recipients to and from centers of employment.

Question 148

(149) Which of the following would “MOST APPROPRIATELY” be the function of the federal
government?
(A) Aesthetics regulation.
(B) Air pollution control.
(C) Zoning.
(D) School planning.

Answer 148

The correct answer is “B”

Question 149

(150) An aquifer recharge area is “BEST” described as?
(A) Infiltration of water through the pores or spaces of rock or soil.
(B) A ponding basin.
(C) Special batteries that can be reused.
(D) The place where water is able to seep into the ground and refill an aquifer.

Answer 149

The correct answer is “D”

Question 150

(151) Of the following examples of “Growth Management” techniques which one could be considered
the “MOST EFFECTIVE”?
(A) Requiring imminent development before annexation is considered.
(B) Denying development projects until necessary infrastructure is installed.
(C) Limiting the number of building permits to a specific number per year based on a desired
population growth.
(D) A permanent moratorium on all development.

Answer 150

The correct answer is “C”

Question 151

(152) A very effective implementation technique for public programs is the Program Evaluation
Review Technique (PERT). In planning PERT would be “MOST USEFUL” in implementing?
(A) A new General Plan for the city.
(B) Determining the costs and benefits of building a new freeway.
(C) Formulating and executing a five-year capital improvement plan.
(D) A and C.

Answer 151

The correct answer is “D”

Question 152

(153) The “MOST PREVALENT”social side effect of down-town redevelopment is the?
(A) Increase in property taxes.
(B) Growth of inner city retail businesses.
(C) Requirement for new infrastructure.
(D) Displacement of residents.

Answer 152

The correct answer is “D”

Question 153

(154) The “MOST COMMON” function of a Zoning Board of Adjustments is consideration of?
(A) Preliminary plat reviews.
(B) Requests for zoning variances.
(C) Developer exactions.
(D) Code enforcement actions.

Answer 153

The correct answer is “B”

Question 154

(155) The most common reason for subdividing land is to?
(A) Transfer ownership.
(B) Permit development.
(C) Condition proposed development.
(D) Make conforming lots.

Answer 154

The correct answer is “A

Question 155

(156) Which economic development program would be “MOPST SUCCESSFUL”?
(A) Attracting big business with greater than 300 employees.
(B) Working with existing business owners to expand their businesses.
(C) Facilitating the location of state and/or federal government offices in your CBD.
(D) Working toward the development of a research and technology park.

Answer 155

The correct answer is “B”

Question 156

(157) When writing a planning report, which of the following is the “MOST IMPORTANT”
consideration?
(A) Audience.
(B) Graphics.
(C) Budget.
(D) Politics.

Answer 156

The correct answer is “A

Question 157

(158) This technique is used to determine which particular steps in a project will be the “MOST
IMPORTANT” to keeping a project going. It frequently is used to manage the scheduling of
construction projects. Name it?
(A) Critical Path Method.
(B) Cost-benefit analysis.
(C) Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT).
(D) Management by Objective (MBO)

Answer 157

The correct answer is “A”

Question 158

(159) A public notice in the newspaper soliciting comments from residents and merchants as part of
an economic development venture to revitalize a large and aging Central Business District (CBD) drew
only three participants to the town meeting. The Mayor criticizes the City Planner for the poor turnout
blaming it on her “invisible” announcement hidden in the “legal notices”. Additionally, the Mayor
reprimands the staff for writing the notice in complicated “legalese” and not translating it into
languages common in their multilingual community. The Council subsequently directs staff to return
in one month with recommendations for a more effective plan for citizen input. Which
recommendation would be “MOST EFFECTIVE” for generating adequate citizen participation?
(A) Contract with a consulting firm to develop a multi-faceted public information program.
(B) Utilize a combination of media to make announcements including: newspapers, magazines,
radio, television, videos, billboards, posters, signs, direct mailings, brochures, newsletters, flyers,
presentations, exhibits, and public service announcements.
(C) Utilize surveys to solicit direct input from down-town merchants and residents.
(D) Produce a power-point presentation to be shown at key locations in the downtown area

Answer 158

The correct answer is “A”
The revitalization of the CBD is of paramount importance in communities across the country.
Fostering the input and support of the merchants and residents of the downtown area is too important
to be driven by experimentation. Planners are not experts in public relations. Firms that possess such an
expertise should be employed if possible.

Question 159

(160) Of the following, which is “MOST EFFECTIVE” in promoting Smart Growth policies?
(A) Records showing permitting activity, demographic data, and other community based information.
(B) A clearinghouse of advanced planning and geographic information coordinated on regional,
state, and federal Internet systems.
(C) GIS maps, technical studies, water resource information.
(D) Making planning information available to the public through a well-maintained web data
system.

Answer 159

The correct answer is “B”
All the answers promote Smart Growth policies. However, a coordinated clearinghouse of advanced
planning and geographic information coordinated on regional, state, and federal Internet systems
encompasses all the other answers.

Question 160

(161) Of the following techniques for preserving agricultural land, which would be the “MOST
EFFECTIVE”?
(A) Transfer of Development Rights.
(B) Purchase of Development Rights.
(C) Building permit moratorium.
(D) Right to farm ordinance.

Answer 160

The correct answer is “B”
Once development rights have been purchased, the land may stay in agricultural use indefinitely

Question 161

(162) Of the following which is the “MOST LIKELY” to be utilized as an alternative travel mode to the
automobile?
(A) Passenger train.
(B) Bicycling.
(C) Public bus.
(D) Walking

Answer 161

The correct answer is “B”
Although none of these alternatives may be “popular”, the most likely to be utilized if one owns a car is
bicycling.

Question 162

(163) The planning director of a small community is recommending that the City Council approve a
staff initiated zoning ordinance amendment to provide specific criteria for architectural review of
projects. Which of the following would “MOST LIKELY” be emphasize in her staff report?
I. Specific criteria is necessary for adequate design review.
II. Adopting specific criteria for architectural review in the Municipal Code will provide the legal
foundation for conditioning and enforcement.
III. Specific review criteria will assure a better-built environment.
IV. Specific criteria would help developers design projects acceptable to the jurisdiction.
(A) I and II
(B) II and IV
(C) I and III
(D) III and IV

Answer 162

The correct answer is “B”
All the answers are true. The central issue though is a legal one— providing the legal foundation for
enforcement. The second most important goal would be to provide developers with guidelines to
reduce or eliminate the need for enforcement.

Question 163

(164) The most outstanding example of suburban development undertaken during the “FIRST PERIOD”
of suburbanization in the United States is?
(A) Pullman, Illinois
(B) Riverhead, Illinois
(C) Lake Forest, Illinois
(D) Riverside, Illinois

Answer 163

The correct answer is “D”
The most important historical events to know are the ones that still influence the planning profession to
this day. For example, although Riverside was designed in the mid-1800, a number of innovative design
elements are still in use. Additionally, Riverside represents the first move to suburbs in the United
States. Thus it is related to the contemporary issue “Urban Sprawl”. This is why Riverside is important,
and why it might be the subject of an exam question.

Question 164

(165) Which of the following data is the “MOST IMPORTANT” to have when planning a new public
library?
(A) The kind and level of service the library will provide.
(B) The long range goals and objectives of the library.
(C) The population to be served.
(D) All of the above.

Answer 164

The correct answer is “C”
The most important criterion is “population”.

Question 165

(166) Which U.S. housing act or legislation has been “MOST SUCCESSFUL” at encouraging home
ownership?
(A) Hope VI
(B) HOME
(C) Mortgage interest tax deduction
(D) LIHTC

Answer 165

The correct answer is “C“
The home mortgage interest deduction allows taxpayers who own their homes to reduce their taxable
income by the amount of interest paid on the loan which is secured by their principal residence.
Approximately half of all homeowners (~ 75 million) use this deduction, and the standard justification
for the deduction is that it gives an incentive for home ownership.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Home_mortgage_interest_deduction
http://www.investopedia.com/articles/pf/06/mortinttaxdeduct.asp
http://www.deseretnews.com/article/700200108/Eliminating-the-mother-of-all-taxdeductions.html?pg=all

Question 166

(167) The original Oregon Model is framed by the following four questions of the steps to undertake
in the Visioning process, in the following order (from “FIRST” to last):
I. Where Do We Want to Be?
II. Where Are We Going?
III. How Do We Get There?
IV. Where Are We Now?
(A) IV, II, III, I
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) IV, II, I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

Answer 166

The correct answer is (C)
Oregon was one of the first places in the U.S. to undergo a proliferation of community-based visioning,
and the Oregon Model represents a comprehensive approach to visioning that has since gained
widespread acceptance around the country. The model is framed by four simple questions:
1. Where are we now?
2. Where are we going?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
Some communities add a fifth step promoting action plan implementation (called the “New” Oregon
Model):
5. Are we getting there?
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 55

Question 167

(168) You are responsible for recommending contracts to the city council. Your immediate supervisor
has asked you to prepare a recommendation for a large contract for an individual you know is a good
friend of your supervisor. After reviewing the contract, you conclude that the contract amount is not
commensurate with the scope of work provided. You believe the contract is a waste of taxpayer
dollars if it were to be granted. What might you do “FIRST”?
A) Discuss the assignment with the City Administrator
B) Ask to be reassigned to another project
C) Verify the data and analysis and submit your report for approval by the Supervisor
D) Recommend approval of the contract

Answer 167

The correct answer is C)
The first thing to do might be to carefully review the data and procedures used in the
analysis for accuracy and completeness (Ethical Principle 1). You should document
everything during this entire process such as the date and nature of your supervisor’s request and the
sources of data used to draw the conclusion that the consultant’s price is too high. Then write your
report and submit it to your supervisor.

Question 168

(169) When a bill is “FIRST INTRODUCED” in a state legislature, it:
(A) Is sent to both houses
(B) Undergoes its initial vote
(C) Is referred to committee
(D) Is routed to the Legislative Budget Office

Answer 168

The correct answer is “C”
Upon reading the introduced bill, if no objection heard, the bill is then referred to the appropriate
committee. Bills may be referred to more than one committee and it may be split so that parts are sent
to different committees. Once passed in one house of the Legislature, the bill is sent to the other house
for consideration. If the other house passes a different version of the bill, the bill may be subject to a
conference committee to develop a compromise before going back to both houses for a vote. Most
states follow a similar procedure.
https://www.flsenate.gov/About/HowAnIdeaBecomesALaw
https://www.flsenate.gov/PublishedContent/ADMINISTRATIVEPUBLICATIONS/idea-to-law.pdf
https://votesmart.org/education/how-a-bill-becomes-law#.WdL-hjCQzIU (Federal)
https://www.senate.gov/reference/resources/pdf/legprocessflowchart.pdf (Federal)

Question 169

(170) An Arterial street is best described as a:
A) Highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access and generally with grade
separations at intersections.
B) Street that provides through traffic movement on a continuous route joining major traffic
generators, where access to abutting properties may be controlled.
C) Major roadway with no access to adjacent properties.
D) Roadway that experiences up to 30% of all VMT in urban areas, and up to 20% of all VMT in rural
areas.

Answer 169

The correct answer is B)
Principal arterials serve longer trips, carry the highest traffic volumes, and carry a large percentage of
the VMT (vehicle miles traveled; 30%-55% of all roadway mileage) on minimum roadway mileage (4%-
12% of all roads) and provide minimal land access. Minor Arterials interconnect the principal arterials,
provide less mobility and slightly more land access, and distribute travel to smaller geographic areas
than principal arterials. Urban Collectors provide both land access and traffic circulation with residential,
commercial, and industrial areas by collecting and distributing traffic to these areas. Local Streets
provide direct access to adjacent land and access to the higher classified streets (5-20% of all VMT; 65% -
75% of all roadway mileage). Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP
Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”, page 149.