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March 2017 E-6 IT1 Exam > OPNAVINST 3120.32D Ch. 5&6 > Flashcards

OPNAVINST 3120.32D Ch. 5&6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which NAVREGS article discusses the prohibition of alcoholic liquors for beverage purposes on board any ship, craft, aircraft, or in, any vehicle of the Department of the Navy?

A

1162

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2
Q

The rules on usage of disclosures of drug or alcohol abuse information have been carefully defined and precisely limited in which instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 5350.4

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3
Q

It is the responsibility of officers in the command to ensure their personnel are neat and well groomed at all times in accordance with which publication?

A

NAVPERS 15665

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4
Q

Which form may be used to control the authorized absence (other than leave) of members when, in the judgment of the commanding officer or a senior officer in the chain of command, it is necessary for
security, operations, or other special circumstance?

A

DD Form 345

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5
Q

How often will narcotics and dangerous drugs be inventoried by a special inventory board?

A

Monthly

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6
Q

Supervision of the paint locker and the control and issue of paint, paint pots, and brushes is the responsibility of the what?

A

1LT

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7
Q

The personal effects of an absent or incapacitated officer shall be inventoried and packed by how many officers designated by the executive officer and delivered to the supply office for safekeeping and proper disposition?

A

Two

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8
Q

The commanding officer must grant permission before any unit’s equipment or spare parts are removed permanently (over what time frame)?

A

One week

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9
Q

Who maintains a current record of combinations for all safes on board a naval unit except the safe assigned to the paymaster for safeguarding public funds?

A

Security manager

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10
Q

Authority to arm security and watch standing personnel is vested in the commanding officer by NAVREGS, SECNAVINST 5500.29 (series) and what else?

A

10 U.S.C. 1585

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11
Q

No person shall be issued arms until they have qualified with assigned weapon(s) under which instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 3591.1

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12
Q

Whenever swimming parties are authorized at least how many swimmers, qualified as life guards will be posted?

A

Two

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13
Q

What refers to specific written Command procedures promulgated to safely complete an operation or respond to various contingencies?

A

Bill

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14
Q

What is a composite of other bills and is the commanding officer’s summary of assignments of personnel to duties and stations specified within each of the unit’s bills?

A

Watch, Quarter and Station Bill

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15
Q

Who is responsible to the executive officer for maintaining the Berthing and Locker Bill?

A

Personnel officer

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16
Q

Who assigns officers to staterooms according to grade and billet assignments?

A

Wardroom officer

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17
Q

Who assumes custody of bedding and temporary berthing facilities not assigned to a division?

A

CMAA

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18
Q

Who maintains the cleaning, preservation, and maintenance bill?

A

Executive officer

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19
Q

Who controls the issue and stowage of cleaning gear, paints, primers and brushes?

A

First Lieutenant

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20
Q

Paint and other hazardous substances must be properly disposed of following all environmental protection regulations and laws and as specified in which instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 5090.1

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21
Q

Which bill specifies procedures and restrictions for the control of visitors to naval units and ensures physical security of the unit, integrity of classified information, and reasonable privacy of unit personnel?

A

General Visiting

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22
Q

Who is responsible for the overall arrangements for visitors and for augmentation or deviation from the general visiting bill?

A

Executive officer

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23
Q

General visiting normally occurs between what hours when scheduled by the executive officer?

A

1300 and 1600

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24
Q

Who is responsible for the operation and safety of the elevators and the electric stairways?

A

Air officer

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25
Q

How many safety persons shall ride the elevator to see that visitors are escorted on the elevators and remain well clear of the edges at all times?

A

Four

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26
Q

How many persons shall be stationed at the flight deck level to ensure that all visitors are well clear of the flight deck guardrail before the elevator is lowered?

A

Two

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27
Q

What refers to visits on board by individuals or specific groups, as differentiated from general public?

A

Casual visiting

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28
Q

What refers to specifically authorized occasions when the unit hosts the general public and is on an unclassified basis only?

A

General visiting

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29
Q

Which manual covers the control of classified visits?

A

SECNAV M-5510.30

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30
Q

Officers and crew shall be permitted to have personal guests, escorted at all times, aboard during visiting hours (between what daily hours) and at other times with the approval of the executive officer?

A

1600 and 2200

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31
Q

Records of classified visits by foreign nationals shall be reported to CNO as required by which instruction?

A

SECNAVINST 5510.34

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32
Q

Assisted by the Security Manager, who is responsible for establishing the unit‘s Official Correspondence bill?

A

Executive officer

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33
Q

What refers to all written material, documents, publications, charts, messages, and so forth addressed to or sent from the command?

A

Official Correspondence

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34
Q

ACN series is assigned in accordance with which publication?

A

SECNAV M-5510.36

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35
Q

Who controls all incoming and outgoing correspondence routing?

A

Executive officer

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36
Q

Personnel in what pay grades reporting aboard shall be assigned to the I-Division for initial indoctrination and training?

A

E-1 through E-4

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37
Q

What documents detail the rationale for manning of ship classes and squadrons based on configuration, compound workload, specified operating profile and required operational capabilities?

A

SMDs or SQMDs

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38
Q

Who shall not be assigned as a Mess Decks Master-At-Arms following SECNAVINST 5530.4?

A

Master-At-Arms

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39
Q

Medical/dental personnel are prohibited from performing Mess Decks Master-At-Arms duties per which NAVREGS Article?

A

1063

40
Q

The number of wardroom rotational pool members assigned will be equal to what percent of its officer population?

A

12

41
Q

How many days will the normal tour of duty be as a food service attendant, wardroom rotational pool member or CPO mess attendant?

A

90

42
Q

How many basic techniques are used to safeguard classified information?

A

Three

43
Q

What publication provides detailed regulations, guidance, and procedures for classifying, marking, handling, and safeguarding classified information and for access to and disclosure of this information?

A

SECNAV M-5510.36

44
Q

What contains information pertinent to the security of safeguarding of nuclear weapons, established requirements for selection of the most reliable people to perform duties associated with nuclear weapons?

A

DoD 5210.41

45
Q

Which instruction provides additional guidance in the case of foreign nationals visiting nuclear powered ships?

A

SECNAVINST 5510.34

46
Q

Which bill was established to provide safety for the crew and to utilize tactics, techniques and procedures (TTP) to deter, detect, defend against, mitigate, and recover from terrorist attacks?

A

Security watch and antiterrorism

47
Q

All watch standers weapons will be loaded per which instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 5530.14

48
Q

Ashore and afloat (formerly known as the ship self-defense force), what is a task-organized force of armed personnel designed to quickly respond to threats and incidents on installations and ships?

A

Reaction force

49
Q

Who is directly responsible to the CDO for posting all security watches and sentries and shall ascertain that personnel on watch are familiar with and proficient in their duties?

A

OOD

50
Q

Which FPCON level applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture?

A

Normal

51
Q

Which FPCON level applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, and the nature and extent of the threat are unpredictable?

A

Alpha

52
Q

Which FPCON level applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?

A

Bravo

53
Q

Which FPCON level applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely?

A

Charlie

54
Q

Which FPCON level applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent?

A

Delta

55
Q

How often at a minimum should all spaces of a unit be visually inspected?

A

Quarterly

56
Q

The ship shall not exceed reasonable safe speed when recovering or lowering boats underway. What is the maximum safe speed under calmest conditions?

A

Five knots

57
Q

What should whale boats that are used as lifeboats not have?

A

Rigged canopies

58
Q

Who is the disaster detail OIC?

A

Executive Officer

59
Q

Which publication provides information on the environment and challenges of the Arctic?

A

ATP 17

60
Q

Which bill establishes a material condition where no white lights shall be visible from outside the ship?

A

Darken ship

61
Q

What plans and orders aid in controlling emissions to avoid detection and/or for successful mission accomplishment?

A

EMCON

62
Q

Which weather condition of readiness trend indicates a possible threat of destructive wind of the force indicated within 72 hours?

A

Condition four

63
Q

Destructive wind of the force indicated are possible within how many hours during condition three weather condition of readiness?

A

48

64
Q

The seismic sea wave or tsunami (often mistakenly called a tidal wave) generates from a submarine
earthquake or volcanic eruption and moves out from the generation area at speeds up to how many miles
per hour?

A

500

65
Q

The storm surge is frequently the most dangerous aspect of a coastal storm as heights may reach how many feet or more?

A

20

66
Q

The size of the SDF shall be based on the size of the ship’s complement. One 3 man squad (squad leader plus three four-man teams) per 200 crew members, with a minimum of one squad and a maximum of how many squads per ship is a sound ratio?

A

Three

67
Q

On ships with less than how many crew members and on submarines, the size of the security force will be determined by the commanding officer/TYCOM?

A

100

68
Q

Which publication contains search and rescue doctrine?

A

NTTP 3-50.1

69
Q

Who maintains custody of the rescue and assistance chests and ensure that they are ready and accessible?

A

DCA

70
Q

Who trains personnel assigned to the rescue of survivors detail?

A

First Lieutenant

71
Q

Who coordinates with designated department heads to ensure berthing assignments are made in such a
manner that as far as possible, all survivors remain in a group?

A

Executive Officer

72
Q

What is the primary reference for establishing, maintaining, enforcing and training of the tag-out program and processes used in all naval ships and craft?

A

NAVSEA S0400-AD-URM-010/TUM

73
Q

Shipboard EOD Teams, composed of one officer and how many enlisted technicians, have diving equipment organic to team equipment allowances?

A

Five

74
Q

Who furnishes the Diving Officer or Supervisor information on the physical condition and status of any ship’s equipment that might affect divers?

A

Engineering officer

75
Q

How often must the medical officer ensure that physical examinations of divers are conducted under Chapter 15, NAVMED P-117?

A

Annually

76
Q

Divers working near a nuclear-powered ship shall wear what as required by the NAVSHIPS 389-0153?

A

Dosimeters

77
Q

Divers shall not enter the water until permission is granted by the OOD and what international signal is flying from the ship and the diving boat?

A

Code Alpha

78
Q

All boats shall stay outside a how many-yard radius of diving operations?

A

50

79
Q

How many qualified divers must be present for diving operation to commence unless it is an extreme emergency?

A

Four

80
Q

What is defined as unwanted sound?

A

Noise

81
Q

How many general areas or methods are there of reducing the ship’s noise?

A

Four

82
Q

How many minutes before the ship is to get underway or enter restricted waters shall department heads initiate readiness for getting underway or for entering restricted waters reports to the OOD?

A

30

83
Q

Who will be informed continually of the progress in getting the towing cable to the towed ship when the ship is towing?

A

Conning officer

84
Q

What is organized and trained to navigate, operate and administer a seized, captured, or abandoned ship
with or without the cooperation of the crew; to bring it safely into port; and to deliver it to the appropriate
authorities for examination or adjudication?

A

Prize crew

85
Q

What is the primary U.S. maritime agency charged with the enforcement of all federal laws on the high seas and in waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States?

A

USCG

86
Q

How many phases does the orderly abandonment of a ship consist of?

A

Three

87
Q

A copy of what should be in the custody of the officer appointed to maintain the Aircraft Crash and Rescue Bill?

A

NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1

88
Q

Who is responsible for recommending jettisoning and sequence of items for jettisoning to the commanding officer?

A

DCA

89
Q

The Nuclear reactor security team shall consist of a minimum of two people who can reach the scene of possible sabotage within 5 minutes notice with a backup force of three people armed with firearms who can respond within how many minutes of the initial alert?

A

10

90
Q

Which bill assigns responsibilities and promulgate general plans for evacuating civilian personnel from unfriendly shores or disaster areas?

A

NEO

91
Q

Who is the senior United States Government authority for the evacuation during NEOs, and, as such, is ultimately responsible for the successful completion of the NEO and the safety of the evacuees?

A

U.S. Ambassador

92
Q

Prisoners of war are subject to the UCMJ. All detainees, regardless of status, shall be treated humanely,
and in accordance with what series?

A

DoDD 2310.01

93
Q

Who shall provide suitable stowage for personal gear, other than valuables, removed from prisoners and delivered to their custody?

A

CMAA

94
Q

Prisoners of war aboard a naval unit may only be required to disclose what information?

A

Name, rank, and serial number

95
Q

What bill establish policy and procedures for the identification and labeling, evaluation, and eventual removal of hazardous material from ships in preparation for battle as directed in NTTP 3-20.31 and OPNAVINST 5100.19?

A

Strip ship

96
Q

Ship classes without master stock computer capabilities shall use the inventory developed for the shipboard spill prevention, control, and countermeasures plan required by what instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 5090.1

March 2017 E-6 IT1 Exam (83 decks)

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