NAVEDTRA 14325, Ch. 13-14, BMR Flashcards

1
Q

What defensive measures are taken against chemical, biological, or nuclear weapons attack effects?

A

CBR-D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which type of agents include microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and microtoxins that cause diseases that kill
or produce other types of casualties?

A

Biological warfare (BW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of agents cause death, injury, temporary incapacitation, or irritation effects?

A

CW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two broad types of antipersonnel agents?

A

Casualty and Incapacitating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of antidote must be immediately administered to counteract the rapid action of nerve agents?

A

2-PAM C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of agents effect the eyes, mucous membranes, lungs, and skin?

A

Blister

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which type of agents inhibit enzyme actions responsible for transferring oxygen from the blood to the cells of the body?

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which type of warfare uses living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to disable or to destroy people and
domestic animals, damage crops, or deteriorate supplies?

A

Biological warfare (BW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the casualty rate of pulmonary anthrax?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can the mortality rate be reduced to if plague pneumonia victims are treated early?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness?

A

Malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an infection?

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many feet above the surface does a nuclear blast have to detonate to be considered a high altitude blast?

A

100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical equipment in a burnout that’s equivalent (equal) to that caused by a lightning strike?

A

EMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two types of nuclear radiation?

A

Initial and residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many categories are Nuclear weapons effects divided into?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Second-degree burns may be received at over what distance from nuclear weapons?

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many minutes can it take to recover from flash blindness at night?

A

45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Alpha and beta particles, gamma rays, along with what else are the different types of nuclear radiation
hazards?

A

Neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What has the greatest penetrating power of all the nuclear radiation hazards?

A

Neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the surface called?

A

Underwater shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What occurs in electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or neutron radiation?

A

TREE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation caused by ocean basin shock
reverberations that interfere with passive sonar systems?

A

Blueout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the interference of radio transmissions through ion fields formed in a detonation caused by an
atmospheric nuclear explosion?

A

Blackout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What determines the effectiveness of decontamination measures?
Detailed survey
26
What are dose rates expressed in?
Roentgens
27
Which protective mask was designed to provide full protection against tactical concentrations of chemical and biological agents, toxins, and radiological fallout particles?
MCU-2/P
28
What is the shelf life of the unopened chemical-protective overgarment?
5 years
29
What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment in nonchemical environments once it is removed from its protective envelope?
14
30
How many hours of continuous protection do chemical-protective overgarments provide after exposure to chemical contamination?
6
31
What flexible system protects against chemical agents that is used in CW defense to help accomplish the mission?
MOPP
32
How many MOPP levels are there?
Four
33
Which MOPP level offers the most protection?
Four
34
How many people do decontamination teams usually consist of?
Six
35
What protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR contamination by filtering the air supply and maintaining an overpressure to prevent the penetration of contaminants?
Collective Protection System (CPS)
36
What is the emergency care given to sick or injured persons until medical care is available?
First aid
37
Saving lives, preventing further injury, along with what else are the main first aid objectives?
Limiting infection
38
What state is a person in who’s stopped breathing but is still alive?
Respiratory failure
39
What condition occurs when air enters the stomach instead of the lungs during artificial ventilation?
Gastric distention
40
What is the complete stoppage of heart function referred to as?
Cardiac arrest
41
How many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest must CPR be started within to be effective?
4
42
Which condition occurs whenever there is a break in the wall of one or more blood vessels?
Hemorrhage
43
How many quarts of blood does the average adult body contain?
5
44
How many pints of blood loss will usually cause shock?
2
45
Arterial blood is usually what color?
Bright red
46
What is a combination compress and bandage that a sterile gauze pad is fastened to a gauze, muslin, or adhesive bandage?
Battle dressing
47
What is a point on the body where an artery can be pressed against a bone to stop bleeding?
Pressure point
48
How many principal points are there on each side of the body where hand or finger pressure can be used to stop hemorrhage?
10
49
What type of band is used to cut off the supply of blood to an injured limb?
Constricting
50
Which condition occurs when blood circulation is seriously disturbed?
Shock
51
Approximately what percent of the Navy’s non-hostile active-duty deaths are caused by suicide?
10%
52
How long does depression typically last?
2 weeks
53
Shock can be expected from burns involving at least what percent of the body?
15%
54
Life is endangered when at least what percent of the body is burned?
20%
55
Burns covering what percent of the body are usually fatal without adequate treatment?
30%
56
What is the most mild type of burn?
First-degree
57
Which type of burn destroys the skin and possibly the tissue and muscle beneath it?
Third-degree
58
What is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot spaces?
Heat exhaustion
59
Which type of injuries occur when the ligaments and soft tissues are damaged that support joints?
Sprains
60
What type of injury is caused by the forcible over stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon?
Strain
61
What is the most commonly used Navy service litter used for transporting sick or injured persons?
Stokes stretcher
62
Which type of stretcher was designed for removing an injured person from engine-room spaces, holds, and other compartments where access hatches are too small to permit the use of regular stretchers?
Neil Robertson
63
What are the two most common sexually transmitted diseases in the United States?
Syphilis and gonorrhea
64
What is the painless sore called that is the first sign of syphilis?
Chancre
65
How many days after sexual contact with an infected partner do signs of gonorrhea in males usually appear?
3 to 5
66
Which increasingly common viral infection produces recurrent, painful genital sores similar to cold sores that occur around the mouth?
Genital herpes
67
What year was Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) first reported in the United States?
1981