Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

March 2017 E-6 IT1 Exam > NAVPERS 15560, Part 2 NAV MIL PERS MAN > Flashcards

NAVPERS 15560, Part 2 NAV MIL PERS MAN Flashcards

1
Q

What Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data is used for both officer and enlisted members, and serves as an application for dependency allowances and an up-to-date record of emergency data?

A

NAVPERS 1070/602

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Members may access or print their NAVPERS 1070/602 via their Electronic Service Record (ESR) in what by clicking on dependency data?

A

NSIPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What lists those conditions when bedside travel may be authorized to support wounded, ill, or injured
Sailors?

A

MILPERSMAN 1770-230

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a situation arises in which a new NAVPERS 1070/602 must be executed expeditiously and NSIPS is not available, what form, Record of Emergency Data shall be used?

A

DD 93

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All Sailors shall verify the accuracy of data on the newest NAVPERS 1070/602 in their OMPF, and the data contained on both the emergency contact and dependency data panels within their electronic service
record (ESR). At a minimum this information will be reviewed how often?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Selected Reservists will verify the accuracy of data on the newest NAVPERS 1070/602 in their OMPF,
and the data contained on both the emergency contact and dependency data panels within their electronic service record (ESR) within the how many-day period immediately prior to reporting for annual
training/Active Duty training?

A

180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Members will be directed to update what whenever there is a change of dependent status, addition of new dependent, and or change of address of a dependent?

A

DEERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sailors with a military spouse will be counseled that they are obligated to enroll their spouse in DEERS and to make an appropriate election for what for their military spouse?

A

FSGLI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What form,(Rev. 10-89), History of Assignments for USN and USNR enlisted members is a chronological record of duty assignments and is maintained throughout member’s active and inactive duty career?

A

NAVPERS 1070/605

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Entries will be initialed on the NAVPERS 1070/605 by an authorized individual per what?

A

MILPERSMAN 1070-190

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NAVPERS 1070/605 shall be maintained and filed in FSR, per what?

A

MILPERSMAN 1070-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a brief, clear-cut record of a period or term of active military service?

A

DD 214

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DD 214 shall be prepared and distributed per this manual and what other reference?

A

BUPERSINST 1900.8A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In all cases, members reenlisting how many months or less prior to the normal expiration of enlistment, or enlistment as extended, will be considered as having completed their initial contract?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Members on Active Duty are precluded from serving beyond their high year tenure (HYT) date, as
outlined in what?

A

MILPERSMAN 1160-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Full Time Support (FTS) personnel must have a minimum Reserve Active Duty Obligation (RADO) of
how long for reenlistment?

A

24-months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FTS personnel may not reenlist in the Regular Navy; likewise Regular Navy into the FTS community, without approval from what?

A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-91)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

To determine reenlistment eligibility for members not in compliance with physical fitness assessment (PFA) refer to what instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 6110.1J

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The physical standards for reenlistment are prescribed in Chapter 15 of what reference, which directs use of the periodic health assessment to determine suitability for continued service?

A

NAVMED P-117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Regular members who are within 2 years of qualifying for transfer to the Fleet Reserve, and Reserve
members who are entitled to be credited with at least 18 but not less than 20 years of service, may not be separated or denied reenlistment under the provisions of this instruction unless separated under any other
provision of law and as set forth in what?

A

MILPERSMAN 1910

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) recommends personnel to reenlist at least how long prior to EAOS to avoid possible pay stoppage or discrepancies?

A

30 days

22
Q

Prior approval from NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811) is not required when reenlistment is within how long of EAOS?

A

1 year

23
Q

If member fails next official PFA while on conditional reenlistment, consideration will be given to
process member for ADSEP within how many days of PFA failure?

A

45

24
Q

Navy Reservists on inactive duty may be discharged at any time for the purpose of incurring a how many-year Selected Reserve (SELRES) obligation to gain entitlement to the SELRES Montgomery GI Bill
(MGIB)?

A

6

25
Q

Members on inactive duty who are participating in a Navy Reserve Program and who are eligible for
reenlistment shall be notified at least how long prior to the expiration of their enlistment or service
obligation concerning such expiration and the procedures set up for reenlistment processing?

A

3 months

26
Q

Individuals who are discharged from the Navy Reserve for reasons of expiration of enlistment,
fulfillment of service obligation, or convenience of the Government, and who are recommended for
reenlistment, may be immediately reenlisted in the Navy Reserve provided they are physically and
otherwise qualified, not to exceed quality control standards set forth in what?

A

MILPERSMAN 1160-130

27
Q

An immigrant alien who has been in the U.S. for a period of how long beyond the age of majority, who
has been lawfully admitted, and who holds an I-151 Alien Registration Receipt Card, is eligible for
enlistment or reenlistment in the Navy without being required to apply for U.S. citizenship?

A

4 years

28
Q

Recoupment of reenlistment bonus is not required in the case of early discharges not more than how long prior to expiration of enlistment?

A

3 months

29
Q

Reenlistment under continuous service conditions may be effected on board the activity from which discharged within how long following discharge?

A

24 hours

30
Q

Reenlistment may be effected for the terms specified in recruiting instructions, but must be effected within 3 months after date of discharge or release from Active Duty or within how many months to receive benefits of continuous service?

A

6

31
Q

Active service obligation beyond 30 years normally will be considered for personnel serving in what
pay grade only?

A

E-9

32
Q

Upon reenlistment, a new service record shall be prepared. Refer to what for guidance?

A

MILPERSMAN 1070-140

33
Q

The UCMJ and 10 U.S.C. 937 require that certain articles of the UCMJ be carefully explained to each
enlisted member at the time of enlistment, after the member has completed how many months of active
duty, or, in the case of a member of a Reserve component, after the member has completed basic or recruit training, and at the time the member reenlists?

A

6

34
Q

At reenlistment, and following compliance with the provisions of the UCMJ, each Service member will have “On (date), per UCMJ, article 137; member advised of the required provisions of the UCMJ.” Entry made in the permanent service record on what?

A

NAVPERS 1070/613

35
Q

Clerical instructions for preparation of the agreement to extend enlistment are contained in what reference?

A

DJMS PTG

36
Q

“Agreement to Extend Active Duty” refers to what official form of agreement?

A

NAVPERS 1070/622

37
Q

“Retention eligible member” is defined as a member that meets minimum eligibility criteria outlined per what?

A

MILPERSMAN 1160-030

38
Q

What manages extensions for active duty USN and Full Time Support Sailors?

A

Enlisted Active Programs (PERS-811)

39
Q

What manages Fleet Reserve, retirement and High Year Tenure (HYT) matters for Active duty USN, and PERS-91 manages SELRES?

A

Enlisted Retirement Branch (PERS-823)

40
Q

10 U.S.C. 509 allows the term of enlistment to be extended up to how long?

A

48 months

41
Q

Extensions shall be executed in monthly increments of 1 to how many months?

A

23

42
Q

The enlistment contract cannot be extended for more than how many aggregate months?

A

24

43
Q

A maximum of how many extension agreements per enlistment contract are authorized?

A

Two

44
Q

Refer to what for early reenlistment authority when a member cannot meet service obligation by
extension due to two or more extensions or 24 total aggregate extension months on a current enlistment?

A

MILPERSMAN 1160-030

45
Q

A list of overmanned ratings by zone is updated how often?

A

Quarterly

46
Q

A member whose normal EAOS falls within the wife’s pregnancy may execute an extension not to
exceed how long beyond spouse’s estimated delivery date?

A

2 months

47
Q

Refer to what for information about OBLISERV in connection with a PCS transfer?

A

MILPERSMAN 1306-106

48
Q

Members in receipt of an authorization for transfer to the Fleet Reserve may not extend their enlistment
more than how many days beyond approved Fleet Reserve date without specific approval from PERS-823?

A

29

49
Q

To execute an extension, use what?

A

NAVPERS 1070/621

50
Q

The CO cannot cancel an extension that gained a significant benefit or has an approved Physical Fitness Assessment Separation Waiver without authority from what?

A

PERS-81

51
Q

For non-5/6-year obligor members disenrolled, through no fault of their own, from single “A” or “C”
service schools, or consecutive service schools, payback will be determined by using the OBLISERV for
schools chart in what?

A

MILPERSMAN 1306-604

52
Q

When COs do not have authority to cancel extensions of enlistment and early release warrants
consideration (e.g., within force shaping initiatives), the member may consider requesting early release
from what?

A

PERS-832

March 2017 E-6 IT1 Exam (83 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions