OBGYN #3 Flashcards

1
Q

What pregnancies are at risk for Rh Alloimmunization

A

-Rh negative mother + Rh positive father (or unknown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain what happens in Rh alloimmunization

A

When a Rh-negative mother carries a Rh-positive fetus. During subsequent pregnancies, if she carries another Rh positive fetus, antibodies cross placenta and attack the fetal RBC’s, leading to hemolysis of the fetal RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In Rh-negative women, when is Rhogam given? 3 instances

A
  • 28 weeks gestation
  • within 72 hours of delivery of Rh-positive baby
  • After any potential mixing of blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Abnormal placenta placement over or close to internal cervical os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Risk factors for placenta previa

A

-Multiple gestations, previous C-section, previous placenta previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Symptoms of placenta previa

A
  • Painless vaginal bleeding in third trimester
  • Absence of abdominal pain or uterine tenderness
  • Soft, nontender uterus
  • DO NOT PERFORM PELVIC EXAM (may cause hemorrhage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is placenta previa diagnosed?

A

-Transabdominal US performed initially, then confirmed by transvaginal US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment for placenta previa

A
  • Watchful waiting if patient is stable
  • Pelvic rest
  • Delivery if > 36 weeks. C section preferred most times.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Primary Amenorrhea is defined as

A

Primary: failure of menarche onset by 15 (in presence of secondary sexy characteristics) or age 13 (in absence of secondary sex characteristics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

secondary amenorrhea is defined as

A

Absence of menses for > 3 months in a patient with previously normal menstruation (or > 6 months with previous oligomenorrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MCC of secondary amenorrhea

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bacterial vaginosis is due to

A

Overgrowth of Gardnerella Vaginalis

-Decreased Lactobacillus acidophilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Symptoms of BV

A
  • Malodorous vaginal discharge worse after sex
  • Vaginal itching, burning, dyspareunia
  • May be asymptomatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Regarding Amsel’s Criteria, what are the 5 criteria for BV

A
  • 1) Clue cells on microscopic saline smear
  • 2) pH > 4.5
  • 3) few WBCs
  • 4) copious, thin, homogenous, gray-white discharge
  • 5) Positive whiff-amine test (fishy odor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

On a saline wet mount, what is seen in BV besides clue cells.

A

-Mobile protozoan trophozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for BV

A
  • Metronidazole 2g oral x 1 dose or Clindamycin

- Partners do not need to be treated

17
Q

MC type of vulvar cancer

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

18
Q

Symptoms of vulvar cancer

A
  • Red or white ulcerative or raised crusted lesion

- Vulvar pruritus, bleeding, or pain

19
Q

Diagnostic for vulvar cancer

A

Biopsy - 90% squamous

20
Q

Symptoms of ovarian torsion

A
  • Unilateral pelvic pain (acute)
  • N/V
  • Abdominal tenderness or adnexal mass
21
Q

Diagnostic for ovarian torsion

A
  • US with Doppler (initial): decreased ovarian blood flow

- Surgical exploration: definitive diagnosis

22
Q

Treatment for ovarian torsion

A

-Laparoscopy with detorsion to restore blood flow

23
Q

What is preeclampsia defined as

A

-New onset of hypertension (>140/90) occurring after 20 weeks gestation + proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction in a previously normotensive female

24
Q

Mild preeclampsia is defined as

A

-BP > 140/90 + proteinuria of at least 300 mg in 24-hour urine specimen (or dipstick 1+ to 2+)

25
Q

Severe Preeclampsia is defined as

A
  • Blood pressure 160/110 or greater
  • Proteinuria 5g in 24-hour urine (3+ on dipstick)
  • End organ symptoms (Cerebral or visual symptoms)
  • HELLP (Hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets)
26
Q

Management of Mild Preeclampsia

A
  • > 37 weeks: delivery

- < 37 weeks: expectant management

27
Q

Management of severe preeclampsia

A
  • > 37 weeks: prompt delivery, hospitalization, Magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures, BP control
  • < 37 weeks: Hypertensives and delivery
28
Q

Eclampsia is

A

Preeclampsia + seizures or coma

29
Q

Symptoms of Eclampsia

A

Abrupt onset of tonic-clonic seizures

30
Q

Treatment for eclampsia

A
  • IV Mag Sulfate for seizures and BP stabilization

- Delivery of the fetus

31
Q

What medications for BP control should be used in Eclampsia

A

-IV Labetalol or Hydralazine

32
Q

Risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia

A

-Prolonged unopposed estrogen (chronic anovulation, estrogen only therapy, PCOS, obesity, early menarche, late menopause, Tamoxifen use)

33
Q

Diagnostic of endometrial hyperplasia

A

-Transvaginal US screening test - thickened endometrial stripe > 4 mm

34
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic for endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Endometrial biopsy

35
Q

Symptoms of endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer

A

-Abnormal uterine bleeding (postmenopausal bleeding)

36
Q

MC type of endometrial cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

37
Q

Treatment for Endometrial Cancer

A
  • Stage 1: total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
  • Stage 2/3: TAH-BSO + lymph node excision w/wo radiation
  • Stage 4: systemic chemotherapy
38
Q

What lab is seen in both endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer

A

CA-125