NLVPD Procedure CH 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The 100 series radio call signs are assigned to ____________.

A

Administrative units

This series is designated for various administrative purposes.

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2
Q

The 200 series radio call signs are assigned to ____________.

A

NLVCCC personnel

This series typically relates to personnel within the specific division.

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3
Q

The 300 series radio call signs are assigned to ____________ on a seniority basis.

A

Sergeants

The most senior sergeant is assigned the number 300.

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4
Q

The 500 series radio call signs are assigned to ____________ on a seniority basis.

A

Detectives

The most senior detective holds the number 500.

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5
Q

What is the primary purpose of the 600 series radio call signs?

A

Narcotics Investigators

This series is primarily used for narcotics-related operations.

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6
Q

The 700 series radio call signs are assigned to ____________.

A

Traffic Bureau

This series is designated for officers within the traffic division.

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7
Q

The 800 series radio call signs are assigned to ____________.

A

Other essential City departments

This series encompasses various city departments beyond law enforcement.

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8
Q

The 900 series radio call signs are assigned to ____________.

A

Special Operations Division

This series is used for specialized law enforcement operations.

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9
Q

A patrol beat designation like ‘2B-34’ refers to a unit assigned to ____________.

A

District B, Day Shift

The format indicates district and shift assignment.

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10
Q

The Motorcycle Unit Designations are assigned based on ____________.

A

Seniority within the unit

This reflects the experience of the officers in the unit.

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11
Q

What does the radio call sign ‘CSO-1’ represent?

A

Community Service Officer

This designation is specific to community service roles.

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12
Q

Patrol cars are required to carry which of the following emergency equipment?

A

One blanket, fire extinguisher, flares, reflective vest

These items are essential for emergency response.

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13
Q

Each patrol officer’s assigned shotgun will be stored in ____________.

A

The shotgun rack of the vehicle

This ensures safety and accessibility.

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14
Q

If a shotgun is found loaded, it must be ____________.

A

Reported to the officer’s immediate supervisor

Proper protocol must be followed for safety.

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15
Q

Officers assigned to motorcycles must possess ____________.

A

A special motorcycle operator’s permit

This is necessary for legal operation of motorcycles.

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16
Q

The armored rescue vehicle is primarily used by ____________.

A

SWAT

This vehicle is specialized for tactical operations.

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17
Q

The surveillance van is assigned to ____________.

A

Narcotics Bureau

This van is used for covert operations.

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18
Q

Officers assigned to the Traffic Bureau are assigned a ____________.

A

Police motorcycle

This is standard equipment for traffic enforcement.

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19
Q

The Enduro motorcycles are used by officers in the ____________.

A

Traffic Bureau

These motorcycles are suited for varied terrain.

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20
Q

Police bicycles are primarily used for ____________.

A

Low profile patrol and community policing

Bicycles enhance mobility in urban areas.

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21
Q

The patrol prisoner transport van is used to ____________.

A

Collect and transport prisoners

This vehicle is essential for prisoner management.

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22
Q

The van is checked out and returned in the same manner as other Department vehicles and its call sign is ____________.

A

‘Tom 1’ for Transport

This call sign is specific to transport functions.

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23
Q

The use of the prisoner transport van for overtime requires ____________.

A

Approval by a supervisor

This ensures proper oversight and resource management.

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24
Q

To begin the criminal history check for a ride along applicant, operations personnel must issue the ____________.

A

Background Check/Release of All Claims Form

This form is crucial for initiating the process.

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25
Q

The procedure requires attaching a copy of the applicant’s ____________ to the completed form.

A

Driver’s license

This verifies the identity of the applicant.

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26
Q

To access the NCIC and NCJIS database, the user must sign on to ____________.

A

JLCLIENT

This is the system used for database access.

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27
Q

The _____________ button is used to initiate a query by the applicant’s name, sex, race, and identifier.

A

DSPT

This button is essential for conducting background checks.

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28
Q

Which button is used to check the applicant’s history, including hot file information such as the State Sex Offender file?

A

SCOPE-B

This function provides critical safety information.

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29
Q

The correct _____________ must be included in all criminal history record queries for Ride Along applicants.

A

Purpose code

This is required for compliance with privacy regulations.

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30
Q

Purpose Code C is used for ____________.

A

Official duties in connection with the administration of criminal justice

This code ensures proper use of resources.

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31
Q

If an applicant has a felony or gross misdemeanor conviction, their Ride Along request will be ____________.

A

Denied

This is a strict policy for safety and security.

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32
Q

If an applicant has an arrest in which the crime was against an officer, their request will be ____________.

A

Denied

This policy is in place to protect officers.

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33
Q

The Patrol Sergeant or Animal Control Manager will contact the applicant if their Ride Along request is ____________.

A

Denied

This ensures clear communication regarding applications.

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34
Q

If no criminal record is found during the criminal history check, the completed form will be sent to the ____________ for approval.

A

Area Command Captain

This is the next step in the approval process.

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35
Q

Upon completion of the ride along, the Patrol Sergeant or Animal Control Manager will fill in the name of the officer assigned and return the signed form to ____________.

A

Operations

This maintains proper records of the ride along.

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36
Q

The participant will be required to wear a _____________ for the duration of the ride along.

A

Soft body armor vest

This ensures the safety of the ride along participant.

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37
Q

After the ride along, the signed form is returned to ____________.

A

The Operations Department

This completes the administrative process.

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38
Q

The information collected during the Ride Along Program will be stored on the ____________.

A

Network drive assigned to NLVPD

This ensures secure storage of sensitive information.

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39
Q

The first officer identified in any dispatch to a call for service is known as the ____________.

A

Primary officer

This officer is responsible for the initial response.

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40
Q

The Watch Commander is responsible for _____________ the number of officers responding to any call for service.

A

Increasing or decreasing

This is crucial for resource management.

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41
Q

An example of a call for service that would require mandatory response is a ____________.

A

Officer-involved traffic accident

Such incidents necessitate immediate action.

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42
Q

If a homicide or murder occurs, it requires a _____________ response.

A

Mandatory

This ensures a thorough investigation.

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43
Q

The Watch Commander will notify _____________ if there is no Lieutenant on duty.

A

The Sergeant of the area command

This maintains command structure in the absence of higher authority.

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44
Q

A Command Page should be sent for a major robbery, such as a robbery involving ____________.

A

Bank or casino

These incidents are considered high priority.

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45
Q

The Command Page format should include ____________.

A

Incident type, time of incident, address, area command, and case number

This information is vital for effective communication.

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46
Q

For a non-natural death, the Command Page should be sent ____________.

A

Immediately or as soon as possible

Timeliness is critical in these situations.

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47
Q

Code 1 response requires ____________.

A

Routine completion at the assigned unit’s convenience

This indicates a non-urgent situation.

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48
Q

A _____________ is an example of a call that would require a Code 3 emergency vehicle response.

A

Traffic accident with injuries

Such incidents demand an urgent response.

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49
Q

When responding to a Code 3 call, emergency lights and the siren should be ____________.

A

Kept activated continuously

This ensures visibility and alerts other drivers.

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50
Q

In the event of a robbery in progress, officers may _____________ the use of sirens and lights if it would enhance apprehension.

A

Discontinue

This is a tactical decision based on the situation.

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51
Q

The primary officer dispatched to a traffic accident with injuries will be the only unit to initially operate under _____________ conditions.

A

Code 3

This allows for focused response to urgent situations.

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52
Q

Code 3 response for units other than the primary officer is based on the primary officer’s request for aid, ____________.

A

The severity of the incident

This prioritizes resource allocation.

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53
Q

The Operations on-duty supervisor(s) will monitor the incident to determine the need for ____________.

A

Additional resources

Proper oversight ensures adequate response capabilities.

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54
Q

What type of task is a vehicle stop considered that requires officer safety foremost in mind?

A

Dangerous

Vehicle stops can involve unpredictable situations that may pose risks to officers.

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55
Q

Officers should always take a proactive approach to _____________ enforcement.

A

Traffic

Proactive traffic enforcement helps in reducing violations and enhancing public safety.

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56
Q

The goal of a traffic stop is to achieve _____________ with traffic laws.

A

Voluntary compliance

This approach aims to maintain a positive relationship with the community.

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57
Q

When stopping a vehicle, officers must ensure they are operating based on _____________ or probable cause.

A

Reasonable suspicion

This legal standard allows officers to make stops based on specific facts or circumstances.

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58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible enforcement action following a vehicle stop?

A

Confiscation

Common enforcement actions include warnings, citations, and arrests.

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59
Q

Officers are encouraged to make decisions based on their training, _____________, and common sense.

A

Experience

Experience helps officers assess situations and make informed decisions.

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60
Q

It is recommended to stop a vehicle in a location that is _____________ from the traffic flow.

A

Away

This ensures safety for both the officer and the vehicle occupants.

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61
Q

Before turning on emergency equipment, officers should make contact with _____________ to ensure a safe stop.

A

Dispatch

Communication with dispatch is crucial for coordinating the stop safely.

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62
Q

When preparing for a stop, officers should provide the Dispatcher with the following information in order: _____________, license plate state, and license plate number.

A

Your location

Providing location details helps dispatch coordinate support and monitor the stop.

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63
Q

If the vehicle is unregistered, officers should give _____________ first.

A

Your location

This prioritizes safety and situational awareness during the stop.

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64
Q

When you are close enough to control the stop, _____________ your emergency lights and/or siren.

A

Turn on

Activating lights and sirens signals the violator to stop safely.

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65
Q

Before exiting the vehicle, officers must ensure they have completed all _____________ procedures.

A

Pre-stop

Pre-stop procedures are essential for officer safety and effective communication.

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66
Q

Officers should position themselves to _____________ with the driver.

A

Communicate effectively

Effective communication helps establish control and clarity during the stop.

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67
Q

While approaching the violator, officers must remain aware of potential _____________ unrelated to the original traffic offense.

A

Criminal activity

Situational awareness is key to ensuring officer safety.

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68
Q

After completing the enforcement action, officers should allow the _____________ to leave first.

A

Violator’s vehicle

This practice enhances safety before the officer returns to their patrol vehicle.

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69
Q

The field supervisor may approve additional backup vehicles based on the analysis of the _____________.

A

Nature of the offense and other relevant factors

Understanding the context helps in resource allocation during incidents.

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70
Q

One of the factors considered for additional backup vehicles is the _____________ of the suspects.

A

Number

The number of suspects can influence the level of response needed.

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71
Q

The field supervisor must consider the _____________ necessary to make an arrest at the conclusion of the pursuit.

A

Number of officers

Adequate personnel is crucial for safely handling apprehensions.

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72
Q

When a supervisor is engaged in the pursuit, _____________ will have final authority over the decision to continue or terminate the pursuit.

A

The non-involved supervisor

This ensures an objective assessment of the situation.

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73
Q

If a supervisor orders the discontinuation of the pursuit, it may be due to the _____________ of the pursuit.

A

Danger

Safety considerations are paramount in pursuit decisions.

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74
Q

Failure to obey an order from a non-involved supervisor during a pursuit may result in _____________.

A

Disciplinary action

Compliance with supervisory orders is critical for operational integrity.

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75
Q

Supervisors will consider using _____________ or other stopping methods as appropriate during a pursuit.

A

Stop sticks

Stop sticks are a tool for safely disabling vehicles.

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76
Q

When a vehicle has been stopped following a pursuit, _____________ should respond to the location when possible.

A

A supervisory officer

The presence of a supervisor ensures proper protocol is followed post-pursuit.

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77
Q

Pursuing vehicles will be taken _____________ for a safety check if they have been stressed during the pursuit.

A

Off-line

This practice helps assess vehicle condition after high-stress situations.

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78
Q

The _____________ is responsible for ensuring that the pursuit is conducted according to Department policies and procedures.

A

Watch Commander

The Watch Commander oversees adherence to operational guidelines.

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79
Q

The supervisor’s final authority to discontinue the pursuit applies if the initiating unit fails to adhere to _____________.

A

Pursuit policy

Following established policies is essential for safe and effective operations.

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80
Q

Pursuit shall be limited to the assigned primary and backup vehicles unless expressly authorized by a ________.

A

Field Supervisor

This restriction helps maintain control over pursuit operations.

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81
Q

Officers are not allowed to join a pursuit team unless authorized by ________.

A

A supervisor

This ensures that all units involved are properly coordinated.

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82
Q

All units involved in a pursuit should operate on the same ________.

A

Radio channel

Using the same channel facilitates communication during high-stakes situations.

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83
Q

When a pursuit extends into another jurisdiction, the responsible ________ shall determine if the other jurisdiction should assume the pursuit.

A

Field Supervisor

Jurisdictional coordination is key in managing pursuits across boundaries.

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84
Q

Pursuits will be discontinued when leaving this jurisdiction unless the suspect has endangered life or is fleeing the commission of a ________.

A

Felony

Serious crimes may warrant continued pursuit even across jurisdictions.

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85
Q

When a pursuit enters another jurisdiction, the responsible supervisor must notify the ________.

A

Affected agency

Communication with the affected agency is vital for coordinated response.

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86
Q

________ are responsible for ensuring the pursuit is conducted according to departmental policies and procedures.

A

Watch Commanders

Watch Commanders play a critical role in oversight during pursuits.

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87
Q

The supervisor will order the pursuit terminated if the risk to public safety outweighs the ________ of apprehension.

A

Need

Evaluating risks is essential for making informed decisions about pursuits.

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88
Q

A pursuit may be reinstated only after ________.

A

A supervisor orders it

Supervisor approval is necessary to ensure safety and protocol adherence.

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89
Q

A ________ officer is responsible for coordinating all secondary units during a pursuit.

A

Primary

The Primary officer maintains oversight of secondary unit actions during a pursuit.

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90
Q

________ must be completed after all pursuits, regardless of whether they were completed or terminated.

A

Report and analysis

Documentation helps in reviewing pursuit actions and improving policies.

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91
Q

A foot pursuit is the physical attempt by an officer(s) to detain or arrest a person who attempts to flee on ________.

A

Foot

Foot pursuits often require different tactics compared to vehicle pursuits.

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92
Q

A police officer may pursue a violator when there is a reasonable belief that they have committed a ________.

A

Criminal offense

The legal basis for pursuit requires evidence of a crime.

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93
Q

The officer must notify communications of the ________ when a pursuit is initiated.

A

Reason for the pursuit

Clear communication of reasons helps in monitoring and managing the pursuit.

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94
Q

The supervisor must approve the deployment of ________ during a pursuit to disable the target vehicle.

A

Stop Sticks

Approval for deployment ensures that the use of such devices is justified and safe.

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95
Q

If a Department vehicle is damaged during a pursuit, the officer must immediately ________.

A

Notify their supervisor

Prompt reporting ensures proper handling of incidents and vehicle maintenance.

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96
Q

The officer deploying the Stop Stick must inform pursuing units of the ________ location.

A

Deployment

Communication about deployment location is critical for safety and coordination.

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97
Q

If a vehicle belonging to an uninvolved citizen is damaged during a pursuit, the Patrol Supervisor will offer ________.

A

To tow the vehicle at the Department’s expense

This practice ensures accountability and support for affected citizens.

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98
Q

If the pursuing officer loses communication with the dispatch or loses visual contact with the violator, the pursuit should be ________.

A

Terminated

Termination is necessary to prevent unsafe situations without clear communication.

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99
Q

The Stop Stick device is used to cause the controlled release of ________ from the target vehicle’s tires.

A

Air

The Stop Stick is designed to deflate tires safely, allowing for controlled stops.

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100
Q

A roadblock is defined as a deliberate obstruction by physical means at one or more selected points on a roadway. What is its purpose?

A

To control traffic and apprehend violators

Roadblocks serve as a tactical measure for law enforcement.

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101
Q

Which of the following is a temporary roadblock used for?

A

To apprehend persons wanted for violation of state or federal laws

Temporary roadblocks are often used in active law enforcement operations.

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102
Q

In the Circle system, the inner circle is designed to:

A

Completely contain the suspect and prevent escape through nearby roads

This strategy is used to effectively manage high-risk situations.

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103
Q

The outer circle of a roadblock setup is typically placed:

A

To apprehend the fugitive if they escape the inner circle

This adds a layer of security around the inner perimeter.

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104
Q

The decision to activate a temporary roadblock should be based on all of the following EXCEPT:

A

The number of vehicles in the vicinity

Focus is more on the nature of the crime and available intelligence.

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105
Q

In a blocking technique on a two-lane roadway, the patrol vehicle should be parked at a ___ degree angle to the traffic flow.

A

45

This angle maximizes visibility and control over the traffic situation.

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106
Q

For light traffic on a two-lane roadway, the preferred method of stopping traffic is:

A

To slow traffic without bringing it to a complete stop

This method minimizes disruption while ensuring safety.

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107
Q

When setting up a roadblock at night, the officer investigating stopped vehicles should:

A

Approach the vehicle from the rear left side

This approach enhances safety and maintains surprise.

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108
Q

On a multi-lane roadway, how should warning devices be placed for the roadblock?

A

In both directions, even on opposite sides of the road

This ensures that all traffic is adequately warned of the roadblock ahead.

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109
Q

For an administrative roadblock, the warning signs must be placed at least ___ yards away from the roadblock point.

A

100

Proper placement of warning signs is critical for safety and compliance.

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110
Q

A temporary roadblock must have a visible authorized emergency vehicle placed at the roadblock point. The vehicle’s flashing red lights must be visible at least ___ yards away.

A

100

Visibility of emergency lights is essential for alerting approaching drivers.

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111
Q

For a temporary roadblock, cones, reflectors, or burning flares must be placed at least ___ yards from the roadblock point to warn traffic.

A

100

Adequate warning helps prevent accidents and ensures safe navigation around the roadblock.

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112
Q

At least one sign at an administrative roadblock must display the word “___”.

A

STOP

Clear signage is vital for directing traffic and ensuring compliance.

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113
Q

What is the minimum distance cones, reflectors, or burning flares must be placed from a temporary roadblock to warn traffic?

A

100 yards

This is a standard safety measure to alert oncoming traffic.

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114
Q

What word must at least one sign at an administrative roadblock display?

A

Stop

The sign must be readable from a distance of not less than 50 yards.

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115
Q

How many yards must a sign with the word ‘Stop’ be visible to approaching traffic at an administrative roadblock?

A

100 yards

This ensures drivers have adequate time to respond.

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116
Q

When investigating stopped vehicles, the officer should use the engine of the patrol car as a __________.

A

shield to approach oncoming vehicles

This provides safety for the officer.

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117
Q

In a medical emergency, officers may transport injured persons only with __________.

A

Supervisor approval

This is a protocol to ensure proper oversight.

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118
Q

During civil unrest, officers must inform their supervisor of the escort as soon as __________.

A

practical

This is crucial for maintaining communication and safety.

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119
Q

Who is responsible for planning and coordinating non-emergency escorts?

A

Operations Division Commander or designee

This ensures organized and safe escort operations.

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120
Q

Non-emergency escorts can only be conducted when __________.

A

all appropriate permits have been obtained

This is necessary to comply with legal requirements.

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121
Q

Who must notify the on-duty Watch Commander about a non-emergency escort?

A

Operations Division Commander or designee

This maintains the chain of command and situational awareness.

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122
Q

What must the Operations Division Commander provide in the Commander’s Log for a non-emergency escort?

A

A copy of the permit and the special event plan

Documentation is essential for accountability.

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123
Q

Citations may be issued using either __________ or __________ citation writers.

A

handwritten, electronic

This allows flexibility in citation issuance.

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124
Q

Absentee parking citations may only contain __________ violations.

A

parking

This focuses the citation specifically on parking offenses.

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125
Q

Citations placed on vehicles without a violator present should be placed __________.

A

under the wiper blade

This ensures visibility for the vehicle owner.

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126
Q

The violator’s __________ is required on all citations, except absentee parking and booked citations.

A

signature

This serves as acknowledgment of the citation.

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127
Q

Violators who refuse to sign a citation must either be __________ or have a supervisor summoned.

A

booked into jail

This enforces compliance with citation procedures.

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128
Q

Citations issued to adults for misdemeanor violations occurring within the City of North Las Vegas shall be sent to the __________.

A

NLV Municipal Court

This is the designated court for such cases.

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129
Q

Citations issued to juvenile violators for minor traffic offenses shall be processed through the __________.

A

District Court, Family Division

This ensures appropriate handling of juvenile cases.

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130
Q

A booked citation is required only when an adult is arrested for a misdemeanor offense committed within the jurisdiction of __________.

A

NLV Municipal Court

This reflects the jurisdictional limits for citations.

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131
Q

When filling out a handwritten citation for a misdemeanor, officers should __________.

A

schedule a court date and time from EPD

This is essential for court processing.

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132
Q

In the case of a DUI citation, it will be fully described as __________.

A

Driving under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs

This provides clarity on the nature of the offense.

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133
Q

The defendant signature box for parking violations where the violator is not present will automatically contain the word __________.

A

Parking

This indicates the nature of the violation clearly.

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134
Q

If the defendant has been arrested and booked, the signature box on a handwritten citation should read __________.

A

Booked

This reflects the status of the defendant.

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135
Q

When using the Brazos citation writer, a maximum of __________ violations may be included on a single citation.

A

6

This limits the complexity of each citation.

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136
Q

For criminal offenses, the correct type selected in the Brazos citation procedure is __________.

A

Criminal

This categorizes the offense accurately.

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137
Q

If a citation is voided using Brazos, the officer must verbally notify their supervisor and __________.

A

synchronize the device and ensure it is displayed as voided

This ensures proper record-keeping.

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138
Q

Juvenile offenders must appear with a parent or guardian in any court, regardless of whether they are assigned to __________, __________, or __________.

A

Municipal Court, Justice Court, or Juvenile Court

This is a requirement to safeguard juvenile rights.

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139
Q

If an officer voids a citation, they must complete a citation dismissal request through the chain of command to the __________.

A

appropriate court

This follows legal protocols for citation management.

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140
Q

The officer must synchronize the handheld device at the end of their shift if a citation has been issued. If the citation was voided, the officer must also __________.

A

ensure the citation is marked as voided

This is crucial for maintaining accurate records.

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141
Q

If an officer writes a technical error on a citation, they must prepare a memo to their supervisor describing the error and __________.

A

deliver a letter to the violator informing them of the change

This ensures transparency and communication with the violator.

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142
Q

A request for a driver re-examination can be made if the officer observes actions indicating a physical or mental condition that may prevent a person from safely operating a motor vehicle. This is done using form __________.

A

DL 81-23

This form is specifically designed for such requests.

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143
Q

The DUI investigation involves three separate phases: Actual __________, Personal __________, and Pre-arrest __________.

A

Control, Contact, Screening

These phases are essential for a thorough DUI investigation.

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144
Q

NRS 484C.110 prohibits an intoxicated person from driving or being in actual __________ control of a vehicle.

A

Physical

This law is designed to prevent impaired driving.

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145
Q

Which of the following factors is NOT used to determine if someone is in ‘actual physical control’ of a vehicle?

A

What the subject’s hair color is

Only relevant factors are considered in this determination.

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146
Q

During the personal contact phase of a DUI investigation, the officer should look for indications such as medical __________ bracelets.

A

Alert

This can indicate underlying medical conditions affecting the subject.

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147
Q

The pre-arrest screening phase includes tests such as Horizontal Gaze __________, Walk and Turn, and One Leg Stand.

A

Nystagmus

These tests help assess impairment levels.

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148
Q

If a subject refuses a chemical test for DUI, a __________ must be obtained to conduct the test.

A

Search warrant

This is necessary unless there’s an exigent circumstance.

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149
Q

The results of the Standardized Field Sobriety Test (SFST) are recorded on a __________ Worksheet.

A

SFST

This documentation is crucial for legal proceedings.

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150
Q

If the results of the preliminary breath test (PBT) indicate a blood alcohol level under __________, the officer may request a blood test.

A

0.08

This is the legal threshold for DUI in many jurisdictions.

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151
Q

When a breath test result is higher than 0.08, the officer must complete a __________ form and give the driver a copy.

A

DMV

This is part of the administrative process following a DUI offense.

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152
Q

If a subject is under 18 years old, the officer must make a reasonable attempt to notify the __________ prior to the chemical test.

A

Parent or guardian

This is to ensure parental awareness and consent.

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153
Q

Breath tests for adult suspects will be conducted at the __________ if they are not transported to a medical facility.

A

NLVCCC

This facility is designated for such testing.

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154
Q

In cases where a juvenile suspect refuses a blood test, the officer should seek __________ for a blood test.

A

a warrant

This is necessary to proceed with testing legally.

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155
Q

The first test administered during a breath test that results in a BAC between __________ may be retested after 30 minutes.

A

0.06 and 0.07

This allows for verification of borderline results.

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156
Q

If a breath test result is under 0.08, and a second test shows the same or a lower result, the officer should consider the possibility of impairment due to the presence of __________.

A

Narcotics

This indicates that impairment may not solely be due to alcohol.

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157
Q

During the chemical testing process, blood samples will be placed in a locked __________ at the SAC evidence booking room.

A

Refrigerator

This preserves the integrity of the samples.

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158
Q

Breath test results showing a BAC higher than 0.08 must be reported to the __________ office.

A

Operations

This is part of the protocol for handling DUI cases.

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159
Q

A Preliminary Breath Test (PBT) device must be __________ approved.

A

State

This ensures the device meets regulatory standards.

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160
Q

The operator of the evidentiary breath testing instrument must complete an __________ checklist for each test conducted.

A

Operational

This is necessary for maintaining testing standards.

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161
Q

If an adult suspect refuses to take a breath test, a __________ may be obtained for blood testing if circumstances justify it.

A

Warrant

This allows for blood testing under legal authority.

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162
Q

What is one reason a driver’s license can be confiscated?

A

Altered

A driver’s license can be confiscated if it is altered due to condition, appearance, or accuracy.

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163
Q

In the case of out-of-state driver’s licenses, what can the driver do?

A

Retain the license

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164
Q

What must an officer do to indicate the reason for confiscating a driver’s license?

A

Label

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165
Q

Who will collect the seized items periodically?

A

Traffic Division Commander or designee

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166
Q

What should the officer do with a registration certificate seized along with the corresponding license plate?

A

Attach

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167
Q

If a Nevada vehicle registration is fictitious, what should the officer do?

A

Seize

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168
Q

What citation may be issued when confiscating a vehicle’s license plates with Nevada registration?

A

Operating an unregistered vehicle

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169
Q

In the case of an out-of-state vehicle registration violation, what can the officer issue a citation for?

A

Operating an unregistered vehicle only

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170
Q

If the license plate is altered or fictitious, how should the officer treat it?

A

A potential crime

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171
Q

What should an officer ascertain if a Nevada personalized or commemorative license plate is suspended?

A

An insurance violation

172
Q

Where will all license plates taken into custody be transported?

A

License plate impound trunk

173
Q

What should an officer do if a seized registration certificate is of no evidentiary value?

A

Destroy it

174
Q

What must officers do with all stolen plates?

175
Q

What form must be completed for out-of-state license cases where the driver retains their license temporarily?

A

DMV Form DDL-45

176
Q

What can the officer confiscate if the driver is not the licensee?

A

Driver’s license

177
Q

What is the purpose of the vehicle impound procedure?

A

Facilitate the safe and proper removal of vehicles from the roadway

178
Q

What should an officer do if a vehicle involved in a collision is disabled and obstructing traffic?

A

Handle the removal as a private tow

179
Q

If a vehicle involved in a collision is needed as evidence, what may happen?

A

It may be impounded

180
Q

What should the officer determine when a vehicle is impounded due to a collision?

A

Insurance company

181
Q

What must an officer ascertain when impounding an illegally parked vehicle?

A

Name and address of the owner

182
Q

What must the officer do if the operator of a vehicle is arrested and is not the vehicle owner?

A

Notify the owner of the impound

183
Q

What will happen to the keys of a vehicle that is impounded for evidence or pending seizure?

A

Booked into evidence

184
Q

If a vehicle is recovered while occupied, what action must the officer take?

A

Enforcement

185
Q

What should the officer attempt to do if a vehicle was stolen from outside the NLVPD jurisdiction?

A

Contact the originating jurisdiction

186
Q

What type of form will be completed at the time of vehicle impound?

A

Vehicle impound

187
Q

What must be completed to verify the VIN of an impounded vehicle?

A

VIN verification

188
Q

Which division will contact the appropriate entity to verify the VIN of an impounded vehicle?

A

Records Division

189
Q

What must be done with vehicle keys in cases of evidence or pending forfeiture?

A

Stored separately

190
Q

What must be noted on the Vehicle Report when recovering a vehicle from another jurisdiction?

A

Information line

191
Q

What report will be completed if a vehicle is impounded and the driver is arrested?

A

Vehicle report

192
Q

What is the purpose of the Breach of Trust procedure?

A

Recover vehicles loaned by owners and not returned as agreed

193
Q

What does NRS 205.2715 involve?

A

Unlawful Taking of a Vehicle

194
Q

What occurs when a vehicle is not returned within 72 hours after the lease or rental agreement expires?

A

Willful Failure to Return Leased or Rented Vehicles

195
Q

What type of complaint may be filed in cases of breach of trust?

196
Q

What report will be generated if a victim suffers the loss of their vehicle but it doesn’t fit the crimes of Grand Larceny or Embezzlement?

A

Breach of Trust

197
Q

How should the vehicle report type for a Breach of Trust be classified?

A

Information - Breach of Trust/Vehicle

198
Q

What note should be included in the ‘other accessories’ field of a Breach of Trust report?

A

“See narrative for contact message”

199
Q

What is not to be entered into NCIC in a Breach of Trust report?

A

Vehicle information

200
Q

If the possessor of the vehicle commits another crime, how will it be handled?

A

Separate incident

201
Q

What should the narrative in a Breach of Trust report indicate regarding towing costs?

A

Full responsibility

202
Q

What data does the Traffic Analyst collect and report?

A

Traffic-related data

203
Q

What type of reports does the Traffic Analyst not collect data on?

A

Weather hazard reports

204
Q

What should a quarterly report prepared by the Traffic Analyst include?

A

Number of collisions by time and day of the week

205
Q

With what will comparisons be made in the analysis of traffic collisions?

A

Data from the same month last year

206
Q

What will be identified for each month regarding traffic violations?

A

Collision-causing violations

207
Q

Who receives the monthly reports on traffic collisions?

A

Traffic Division, Patrol Bureau, and Office of the Chief of Police

208
Q

What does the Traffic Lieutenant use the information from the Traffic Analyst for?

A

Selective enforcement assignments

209
Q

What type of data does the Traffic Engineer collect?

210
Q

Who will Traffic supervisors notify when immediate traffic control measures are needed?

A

CNLV Traffic Engineer

211
Q

What type of traffic control will officers provide if the problem area does not warrant temporary traffic control devices?

212
Q

Where are complaints and suggestions regarding traffic issues received?

A

Traffic Engineering Department

213
Q

How often does the Traffic Analyst supply traffic collision data to the Traffic Engineering Department?

214
Q

What does the Traffic Engineer use available collision data to identify?

A

High collision locations

215
Q

What should the Traffic field supervisor notify when a major traffic collision could be fatal?

A

Traffic Engineer

216
Q

What is the goal of the Traffic Division sergeant when deploying personnel and equipment?

A

Reducing accidents and accident-causing violations

217
Q

What type of vehicles will officers use during enforcement?

A

Marked or unmarked

218
Q

On what basis will Traffic Division personnel be deployed?

A

Squads’ scheduling system

219
Q

When will officers enforce accident-causing violations?

A

High accident hours and locations

220
Q

What are the two categories for traffic enforcement personnel deployment?

A

Marked or unmarked

This refers to the visibility of patrol vehicles used during traffic enforcement.

221
Q

Traffic Division personnel shall be deployed based on __________ to ensure enforcement is concentrated at the most effective times.

A

Squads’ scheduling system

222
Q

Officers will enforce accident-causing violations during __________ hours and locations.

A

High accident

223
Q

The decision to arrest a traffic violator will be based on the __________ of the violations.

224
Q

Officers may issue a __________ for minor traffic violations when it is clear the violation was inadvertent.

A

Verbal warning

225
Q

Officers are instructed to arrest persons suspected of driving under the influence of __________.

A

Alcohol and/or drugs

226
Q

Speeding violations can be enforced by __________.

A

Verbal warning, citation, or arrest

227
Q

__________ violations, such as those involving unlicensed juvenile offenders, can be enforced by verbal warning, citation, or arrest.

228
Q

Officers should maintain a high level of __________ while working enforcement at high accident rate locations.

A

Visibility

229
Q

The most effective deterrent to traffic law violations is __________.

A

Visible patrol in a marked vehicle

230
Q

Officers must drive patrol vehicles in accordance with existing laws and demonstrate __________ driving behavior.

231
Q

Unmarked vehicles may be used for traffic patrol only with the approval of the __________.

A

Traffic Division lieutenant

232
Q

Handicapped parking violations may be enforced in accordance with __________.

A

NRS 484.408

233
Q

A vehicle is considered abandoned if it has been left __________ in an inoperable condition for over 72 hours.

A

Unattended

234
Q

An officer encountering an abandoned vehicle will place an __________ sticker if the owner cannot be contacted.

A

Unattended Vehicle Check

235
Q

If the registered owner cannot be found through DMV, the vehicle will be __________ after 72 hours.

236
Q

Officers must issue a parking citation when responding to complaints about an abandoned vehicle on private property under __________.

A

NRS 487.281

237
Q

When a vehicle is abandoned on private property, the officer may advise the property owner to remove the vehicle if they believe it is __________.

238
Q

All speed measuring equipment used by the Department must meet or exceed the specifications of the __________.

A

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

239
Q

All speed measuring equipment must comply with __________ regulations.

A

Local, state, and federal

240
Q

Speed measuring equipment must be checked for accuracy __________ prior to being put into service.

A

Prior to use, midway through the period of use, and at the end of the shift

241
Q

The responsibility for repair of all speed measuring equipment lies with __________.

A

Resource Management/Supply

242
Q

Accurate repair and maintenance records for speed measuring equipment will be kept by __________.

A

Resource Management/Supply

243
Q

Before using any speed measuring equipment owned by the Department, all officers must be __________.

A

Certified and trained

244
Q

Traffic direction and control will be determined by the __________.

A

Investigating officer or shift supervisor

245
Q

If additional cones or barricades are needed, the __________ will be notified by the shift supervisor.

A

Public Works

246
Q

When traffic control is needed for an extended period of time, the shift supervisor will arrange for officer __________ every two hours.

247
Q

The primary functions of traffic control are to __________, facilitate the movement of traffic, and enforce traffic laws.

A

Eliminate congestion

248
Q

The allocation of time to the flow of traffic at an intersection is determined by the __________.

A

Volume of traffic and how it may be coordinated with adjacent intersections

249
Q

When there is a predominant turning movement, a __________ control is recommended to manage traffic.

A

Three-phase

250
Q

When an officer is directing traffic, they should position themselves so that they can __________.

A

See and be seen by all approaching lines of traffic and pedestrians

251
Q

When manually directing traffic at night, directions should be given __________.

A

Slowly and with a flashlight

252
Q

To signal for a right turn, when the driver approaches from the right, the officer should __________.

A

Point toward the driver with the right arm

253
Q

To stop traffic, the officer should first point with the __________ and hold until the driver sees the signal.

254
Q

When traffic is heavy on one highway and light on a cross street, the officer should __________.

A

Allow the heavy traffic an additional phase of the signal

255
Q

In case of malfunctioning traffic signals or traffic accidents, officers may be authorized to __________.

A

Manually operate traffic control signals

256
Q

During inclement weather, reflective vests will be worn __________.

A

Over the raincoat

257
Q

When directing traffic for emergency vehicles, officers must ensure that __________ is open in the direction the emergency vehicle will travel.

A

A clear exit

258
Q

Officers working at a fire scene are responsible for __________.

A

Protecting the Fire Department personnel and equipment

259
Q

Officers are expected to manage traffic during __________ conditions.

A

Adverse road and weather conditions

260
Q

Temporary traffic control devices may be used when __________.

A

All of the above

261
Q

During an officer’s tour of duty, items of special interest should be reported to __________.

A

Supervisors and fellow officers

262
Q

To report items of interest, officers may use __________.

A

Radio communication, CAD messages, ePD, or special routing slips

263
Q

An example of an item that should be reported is __________.

A

A business occupied during odd hours for maintenance

264
Q

The arrival of __________ should be reported by officers as a potential hazard of interest.

A

Outdoor amusement activities, such as carnivals

265
Q

All permanent and temporary traffic control devices that are inoperable, damaged, or removed should be reported to __________.

A

Traffic Engineering or their designee

266
Q

Roadway hazards, defects, and debris in the roadway can become __________ conditions.

267
Q

If a hazardous condition requires immediate attention, Communications will notify __________.

A

The on-call Public Works employee

268
Q

When a fluid spill is located, the first officer on scene will __________.

A

Call for a supervisor to evaluate the spill

269
Q

If a spill is small and can be handled quickly, the supervisor may __________.

A

Request a tow company to handle the cleanup

270
Q

A supervisor must evaluate a spill to determine if it can be managed by __________.

A

A single tow operator with absorbent material

271
Q

When a spill is reported, if the tow company option is selected, the officer will instruct Dispatch to notify the tow company to bring __________.

A

Absorbent material to the scene

272
Q

After a spill has been handled, the supervisor or officer must __________.

A

Sign a service call slip at the request of the tow operator

273
Q

The first officer at the scene should ensure that __________ measures have been established for a spill.

A

Traffic control

274
Q

If a spill is not extensive, __________ may be used to handle the situation.

A

The on-duty tow company

275
Q

Officers should report all roadway hazards to __________.

A

Communications

276
Q

Officers will stop and render aid to __________ whenever possible.

A

Stranded motorists

Stranded motorists are prioritized for assistance by officers.

277
Q

If an officer is unable to assist a stranded motorist, they will notify __________.

A

Communications

This ensures that the situation is logged and help can be arranged.

278
Q

When stranded vehicles are creating a traffic hazard, the officer will __________ until the problem is resolved.

A

Provide traffic control

Traffic control is essential to prevent accidents.

279
Q

Officers may assist with minor repairs, tire changes, or obtaining fuel with __________.

A

The Field Supervisor’s permission

This ensures that all actions are authorized.

280
Q

Transporting civilians should be limited to __________.

A

Within the City limits

This policy helps maintain safety and jurisdictional boundaries.

281
Q

Officers providing transportation will advise Communications of __________.

A

The starting point, destination, and mileage

This documentation is important for accountability.

282
Q

If a motorist is stranded in a hazardous location, the officer will __________ until help arrives.

A

Stay with the motorist

Staying with the motorist provides safety and reassurance.

283
Q

Police vehicles equipped with push bars may be used to push vehicles __________.

A

From the roadway if they create an immediate hazard

This action is necessary to maintain traffic safety.

284
Q

At no time will the police unit be used to __________ a stalled or disabled vehicle.

A

Push start

Push starting can cause damage to police vehicles.

285
Q

Police vehicles equipped with starter cables will only be used to start __________.

A

City-owned vehicles

This policy prevents misuse of police equipment.

286
Q

If the officer has to leave the motorist after arranging assistance, they will __________ to ensure the assistance has arrived.

A

Check back after a reasonable amount of time

Checking back ensures that help is on the way.

287
Q

Officers will request a tow truck for stranded motorists __________.

A

Upon request of the motorist

This respects the motorist’s wishes and needs.

288
Q

If the motorist has no preference for a tow company, the officer will contact __________ to dispatch a tow truck.

A

Auto Return via ARIES

This system streamlines the towing process.

289
Q

Stalled vehicles creating a traffic hazard may be removed by an officer as authorized by __________.

A

North Las Vegas Municipal Code

This code provides the legal basis for vehicle removal.

290
Q

Towing companies used by the tow management company must comply with __________.

A

Department requirements and contracts

Compliance ensures quality and reliability of services.

291
Q

Communications will initiate a __________ on the channel upon arrival of the first officer.

A

Code Red

This code indicates a serious situation requiring immediate response.

292
Q

When the primary unit requests, Communications will make a __________ to the business or bank to attempt to determine if they have been or are being robbed.

A

Telephone call

This helps verify the situation before deploying units.

293
Q

If the business or bank is secure and no problem exists, Communications will advise a responsible party to __________.

A

Speak with the patrol officer

This ensures proper communication and information exchange.

294
Q

If the business or bank fails to respond within a reasonable time or gives suspicious responses, the alarm will be considered __________.

A

Valid

Valid alarms require immediate attention from law enforcement.

295
Q

If the business or bank is not secure and a robbery has occurred, Communications will __________.

A

Broadcast a robbery in progress

This alerts responding units to the urgency of the situation.

296
Q

Once sufficient units have arrived to secure the building, the primary unit will request __________.

A

That Dispatch call the business

This helps to confirm the situation and gather further information.

297
Q

If no detectives are available, the Patrol Supervisor will call the Detective Bureau supervisor to __________.

A

Have the detectives respond

This ensures that specialized personnel are involved.

298
Q

If there is a possibility of a barricaded suspect or hostage situation, the Patrol Supervisor will notify the __________.

A

Watch Commander

This is crucial for managing high-risk incidents.

299
Q

Detectives will respond to the scene for __________.

A

A robbery investigation

Detectives bring expertise to complex investigations.

300
Q

In the case of a bank robbery, detectives will call the __________ to respond.

A

FBI

The FBI is involved due to the nature of bank robberies.

301
Q

The Communications Center will silence the audible alarm tone by pressing the __________ button.

A

Silence

This stops the alarm sound during an investigation.

302
Q

Upon receiving a 407B signal in the police vehicle, the officer will __________.

A

Advise Communications and begin tracking the signal

Tracking the signal is essential for locating suspects.

303
Q

The unit receiving the strongest signal will become the __________ unit.

A

Primary tracking

This unit takes the lead in the tracking process.

304
Q

Trackers will treat the stopping of a tracked suspect vehicle as a __________ stop.

A

High-risk

High-risk stops require careful tactical considerations.

305
Q

No uniformed officer will enter the bank until __________.

A

The 407B signal is confirmed as an accidental trip

This protocol is critical for officer safety.

306
Q

What is the purpose of a PTC (Police Tracking Computer)?

A

It is used to track stolen vehicles.

PTCs are essential tools in vehicle recovery efforts.

307
Q

When a vehicle or equipment report has a LoJack transponder installed, what is the immediate action that must be taken?

A

Enter the information into the NCIC database.

This ensures the vehicle is tracked properly.

308
Q

How far can the LoJack transponder signal be transmitted?

A

1-5 miles.

This range is crucial for effective tracking.

309
Q

If a LoJack reply code starts with ‘000___’, what does that indicate?

A

The officer is receiving a training transponder.

This helps distinguish between training and real operations.

310
Q

What should be done if a tracking officer locates a stolen vehicle or equipment, and the vehicle is occupied?

A

Advise Dispatch of the location and request back-up units.

Safety is paramount when dealing with potentially dangerous situations.

311
Q

What action must be taken if the tracking unit follows or pursues the vehicle outside of city limits?

A

Only one other tracking unit or patrol car may leave the city unless directed by a supervisor.

This prevents jurisdictional issues during pursuits.

312
Q

Once a stolen vehicle is recovered, what must the tracking officer immediately do?

A

Advise Dispatch and Records to clear the vehicle in the NCIC system.

This is necessary for accurate record-keeping.

313
Q

What should be done if Records personnel are not available to clear a vehicle in NCIC after recovery?

A

Dispatch will clear the vehicle and forward the paperwork to Records.

This ensures timely processing of recovered vehicles.

314
Q

What action must be taken by Dispatch when a LoJack signal is received?

A

Activate the emergency tone alert signal and broadcast the LoJack hit.

This alerts units to respond to a potential vehicle recovery.

315
Q

When manually activating a LoJack, which personnel can authorize the activation?

A

A supervisor or above.

This policy ensures that activations are properly controlled.

316
Q

What is the primary purpose of the License Plate Reader (LPR)?

A

To recover stolen vehicles and apprehend suspects.

LPRs enhance law enforcement capabilities in vehicle tracking.

317
Q

What must be done before deploying the LPR in the field?

A

Make sure the laptop is uploaded with the current stolen vehicles list from NCIC.

This ensures that the system has the latest information.

318
Q

What happens when the LPR scans a license plate and finds a match with a stolen vehicle?

A

The system sounds an audible alert and displays the stolen vehicle information.

This immediate feedback assists officers in making informed decisions.

319
Q

If a stolen vehicle is not occupied, what should the officers do?

A

Recover the vehicle and confirm the stolen status.

This is a standard procedure for handling stolen vehicles.

320
Q

Where is the LPR equipment stored when not in use?

A

In the equipment room located in the South Area Command (SAC).

Proper storage ensures equipment is maintained and ready for use.

321
Q

The NLVPD tracking device program is primarily used for the ________.

A

Recovery of stolen property

This program focuses on retrieving stolen items efficiently.

322
Q

The ESO tracker consists of a circuit board housing a ________, Cellular SIM card, GPS receiver, and an RF transponder.

A

Battery

The battery powers the tracking device for operation.

323
Q

The handheld beacon device helps police pinpoint the exact location of the tracking device using ________ antennas.

A

Multiple

Multiple antennas improve the accuracy of location tracking.

324
Q

Tracking devices can be deployed as bait in ________ items such as bicycles, laptops, or televisions.

A

Expensive

Expensive items are more likely to be targeted by thieves, making them ideal for tracking.

325
Q

A supervisor’s designee is responsible for ensuring that all officers/detectives tasked with deploying tracking devices are properly ________.

A

Trained

Training is essential for effective and safe deployment of tracking devices.

326
Q

The use of the NLVPD tracking device requires a ________ from a supervisor.

A

Court order

A court order ensures legal compliance in tracking operations.

327
Q

Before deployment, officers/detectives must ensure the tracker is accurately listed in the ________ database.

A

3SI

Accurate listing is crucial for tracking and recovery efforts.

328
Q

The handheld detector helps officers pinpoint the exact location of the device when ________.

A

The device is stationary

Stationary devices provide clearer signals for location tracking.

329
Q

When a tracking device becomes stationary during a pursuit, officers should treat it as a ________ stop.

A

High-risk

High-risk stops require heightened caution and tactical planning.

330
Q

In the ________ database.

A

3SI

3SI is a tracking device database used by law enforcement.

331
Q

The handheld detector helps officers pinpoint the exact location of the device when ________.

A

The device is stationary

The detector is most effective when the tracking device is not in motion.

332
Q

When a tracking device becomes stationary during a pursuit, officers should treat it as a ________ stop.

A

High-risk

High-risk stops require additional caution and protocol.

333
Q

In the case of a lost signal, officers should establish a ________ around the last known location of the device.

A

Perimeter

Establishing a perimeter is crucial for search operations.

334
Q

When the ESO tracker is used on a specialized investigation, exceptions to the activation guidelines, such as ________, may apply.

A

The disclosure of the bait item

This relates to specific operational protocols.

335
Q

If a tracking device is lost and not recovered, the officer must complete a ________ through their chain of command.

A

Memo

Completing a memo is part of the reporting protocol.

336
Q

If a tracking device is lost due to the device never activating, the officer must complete both a memo and a ________ report.

A

Informational

An informational report provides details on the incident.

337
Q

If a device leaves the city limits, the officer must notify ________ and request assistance.

A

The local police department

Coordination with local authorities is essential for tracking.

338
Q

When deploying tracking devices on bicycles, the device name should be the ________ of the deployment.

A

Location

Accurate location naming helps in device tracking and management.

339
Q

The tracking system used by NLVPD allows for ________ of the tracking device’s direction, speed, and signal strength.

A

Continuous monitoring

Continuous monitoring enhances situational awareness during operations.

340
Q

A patrol supervisor will determine whether patrol officers continue to search for a device when it ________ the city limits.

A

Leaves

Decision-making at this point is crucial for resource allocation.

341
Q

To prolong battery life during a protracted search, the transmissions of the device can be ________.

A

Decreased

Reducing transmission frequency helps conserve battery power.

342
Q

When documenting a tracking device recovery, police reports should avoid compromising the program by ________ detailed descriptions of the tracking device.

A

Disclosing

Protecting program integrity is important for operational security.

343
Q

In case of a vehicle pursuit involving the tracker, officers must follow NLVPD Policy Chapter ________ (Vehicle Pursuits).

A

6.15.01

This policy outlines the procedures for vehicle pursuits.

344
Q

What is the definition of ‘Locating’ in relation to electronic devices as described in the NLVPD procedure?

A

The acquisition of location information of any electronic device or equipment

‘Locating’ refers specifically to gathering information about the whereabouts of an electronic device.

345
Q

The use of location data from an electronic device shall only be authorized during ______.

A

An emergency situation or when it is impractical to obtain a court order

This restriction ensures that location data is accessed ethically and legally.

346
Q

What does an ‘emergency situation’ require for location data to be accessed?

A

Potential of death or serious physical injury to any person

This criterion is critical for justifying immediate access to sensitive data.

347
Q

What is the role of the Patrol or Incident Supervisor in acquiring location data?

A

To ensure that conditions outlined for obtaining location data have been met before contacting the Detective Bureau Supervisor

This ensures compliance with procedural guidelines.

348
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the Communications dispatcher’s role in tracking and locating electronic devices?

A

The dispatcher assists with tracking and locating only after the Exigent Circumstances Form has been signed by a Detective Bureau Supervisor

This ensures that all necessary approvals are in place before tracking begins.

349
Q

Who can authorize a telephonic warrant or an Exigent Circumstances Form to be sent to the appropriate wireless communications provider?

A

The Chief of Police designee or Detective Bureau Supervisor

This authority is crucial for ensuring legal compliance in tracking operations.

350
Q

What must happen after the location tracking of an electronic device occurs?

A

The appropriate court order or Exigent Circumstances Form must be added to the permanent case file

Documentation is essential for accountability and legal review.

351
Q

Under which condition can location data be acquired without a court order?

A

When it is impractical to obtain a court order

This provision allows for rapid response in critical situations.

352
Q

What must be done before the authorization to track and locate an electronic device can take place?

A

All reasonable investigative methods must have been exhausted

This requirement promotes thoroughness in investigations.

353
Q

When an officer is authorized to acquire location data from an electronic device, what should the officer do next?

A

Notify the on-duty supervisor before proceeding

This step ensures proper oversight and adherence to protocols.

354
Q

When determining which jurisdiction is responsible for taking a missing person report, what is the primary factor?

A

The location of the missing person’s residence

This is vital for directing the report to the correct agency.

355
Q

What will happen if the missing person resides outside the City of North Las Vegas?

A

The reporting person will be referred to the appropriate agency

This ensures that reports are handled by the correct jurisdiction.

356
Q

How should department personnel classify a juvenile reported missing?

A

As runaway, abducted by stranger, abducted by parent, or cause of disappearance unknown

Proper classification aids in the investigation process.

357
Q

When there is a suspicion that a missing person is a victim of foul play, what is the next step?

A

Notify the immediate supervisor for evaluation

This ensures that the situation is assessed by a higher authority.

358
Q

If a juvenile under the age of twelve is reported missing, what is the appropriate response?

A

A patrol unit will be dispatched to the scene

Immediate action is crucial for the safety of young missing persons.

359
Q

What should be done before conducting a house-to-house search for a missing juvenile?

A

Contact Clark County Family and Youth Services to determine if the child is in custody

This step prevents unnecessary searches if the child is already accounted for.

360
Q

What is the primary reason for taking a missing person report on an adult?

A

To determine if the person is in danger or is a victim of a criminal act

Assessing risk is critical in adult missing person cases.

361
Q

What should be considered when determining the urgency of response for an adult missing person?

A

The person’s disabilities, medications, or suicidal tendencies

These factors significantly influence the urgency of the response.

362
Q

What should all missing person reports, both adult and juvenile, include?

A

A photograph of the missing person and details about their abductor

This information is crucial for identification and investigation.

363
Q

How soon should the Records Bureau enter a missing person into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC)?

A

Within four hours of the report for any missing person, and two hours for persons under 21

Prompt entry is vital for timely alerts and actions.

364
Q

How often should an incident log be run to verify missing person entries?

A

Twice a day

Regular checks help maintain accurate and up-to-date records.

365
Q

What must happen when an NCIC Missing Person teletype is sent requesting supplemental information?

A

The Detective Bureau will verify if additional information is available

Verification ensures that the investigation can proceed with the latest data.

366
Q

The procedures for the North Las Vegas Police Department sUAS program are issued by the authority of the __________.

A

Chief of Police

This authority establishes the framework for the sUAS program.

367
Q

The primary concern in every sUAS operation, regardless of the mission, is __________.

A

Safety

Prioritizing safety is essential in all operational contexts.

368
Q

The sUAS program will be coordinated by the __________ assigned to the Special Assignments Unit.

A

Program Coordinator

Coordination ensures that all operations are managed effectively.

369
Q

The program will ensure that all personnel operating sUAS’s are FAA-certified __________.

A

Remote Pilot in Command

Certification is necessary for legal compliance and operational safety.

370
Q

The FAA certification for a Remote Pilot in Command is required for those operating an sUAS within the __________.

A

National Airspace System (NAS)

This regulation protects airspace integrity.

371
Q

The sUAS program will make available any Department-owned or maintained sUAS for __________ upon request.

A

FAA inspection

Inspections ensure compliance with safety and operational standards.

372
Q

The __________ will be responsible for identifying all training and certification requirements for sUAS Remote Pilots in Command.

A

Program Coordinator

This role is vital to maintaining operational readiness and safety.

373
Q

The Remote Pilot in Command is ultimately responsible for the __________ of an sUAS during deployment.

A

Operation and safety

Responsibility for operation ensures accountability during missions.

374
Q

If a request for sUAS support is denied, the Remote Pilot in Command must provide a written __________.

A

Explanation to the Bureau Commander

Documentation of denials maintains procedural integrity.

375
Q

During a mission, the Visual Observer’s role is to assist in __________.

A

Maintaining safety and collision avoidance

This role is critical in ensuring safe sUAS operations.

376
Q

Prior to each flight, the Remote Pilot in Command will complete a __________.

A

Flight Risk Assessment

This assessment identifies potential hazards before the flight.

377
Q

The Remote Pilot in Command is responsible for ensuring that the sUAS remains within __________ during flight.

A

The visual line-of-sight (VLOS)

Maintaining VLOS is essential for safe operation.

378
Q

If the sUAS is to operate in restricted airspace, the Remote Pilot in Command must obtain __________.

A

FAA clearance

Clearance is necessary for legal and safety compliance.

379
Q

The maximum allowed altitude for sUAS operations is __________ feet above ground level.

A

400

This altitude limit helps prevent conflicts with manned aircraft.

380
Q

Remote Pilots in Command and Visual Observers must wear __________ when necessary during flight operations.

A

Eye protection

Safety gear is crucial to protect personnel during operations.

381
Q

The Remote Pilot in Command must notify __________ prior to flight operations under certain conditions, such as operating in controlled airspace.

A

Air Traffic Control

Notification is crucial for maintaining airspace safety.

382
Q

If the sUAS is operated outside of the capabilities of its equipment, the Remote Pilot in Command is required to __________.

A

Decline the mission

This ensures safety and compliance with operational limitations.

383
Q

The Remote Pilot in Command must ensure that __________ are in compliance with all FAA regulations during every mission.

A

Operational limitations

Adhering to regulations is essential for legal and safe operations.

384
Q

When conducting sUAS missions, the Remote Pilot in Command is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft remains __________.

A

Below 400 feet

This altitude limit is set to enhance safety during operations.

385
Q

During a mission, the Visual Observer should __________ to assist the Remote Pilot in Command.

A

Watch for obstacles and potential hazards

This vigilance is critical for operational safety.

386
Q

Remote Pilots in Command and Visual Observers are responsible for conducting a __________ inspection before and after each deployment of the sUAS.

A

thorough

Comprehensive inspections help identify potential issues before flights.

387
Q

Any issues found that could put the sUAS in jeopardy shall be __________ before flight.

A

documented and resolved

Resolving issues is crucial for safe operations.

388
Q

If any physical equipment issues cannot be resolved on-site, the deployment will be __________.

A

canceled

This policy prevents unsafe operations.

389
Q

A pre-flight briefing will include a review of __________.

A

the weather, mission goals, and NOTAMS

Reviewing these factors is essential for flight safety.

390
Q

Before each deployment, the Remote Pilot in Command and Visual Observer must gather __________ to ensure the safety of the flight.

A

weather and equipment information

This information is crucial for assessing flight readiness.

391
Q

The Remote Pilot in Command must ensure that the wind speed is below __________.

A

the operational limit set by the FAA

Wind conditions directly affect flight safety.

392
Q

What must the Remote Pilot in Command and Visual Observer gather before each deployment?

A

weather and equipment information

This is essential to ensure the safety of the flight.

393
Q

What is the maximum wind speed allowed before flight for the Remote Pilot in Command?

394
Q

Remote Pilots in Command and Visual Observers should stand down if they are feeling __________.

A

physically or emotionally unwell

395
Q

After each flight, the Remote Pilot in Command must complete __________.

A

a flight log

396
Q

The take-off and emergency landing area should be __________.

A

clearly marked and identifiable

397
Q

What must Remote Pilots in Command and Visual Observers document after any incident or accident during flight?

A

both B and C

This includes the incident in an officer’s report and the circumstances leading to the accident.

398
Q

If a flight results in an accident, the FAA must be notified within __________ if there is serious injury or property damage greater than $500.

399
Q

Remote Pilots in Command and Visual Observers are responsible for __________ the take-off and landing zones.

400
Q

Remote Pilots in Command and Visual Observers should only deploy the sUAS when __________.

A

they are rested and emotionally prepared

401
Q

If the sUAS is found to be unsafe or inoperable, the Remote Pilot in Command must __________.

A

notify the Program Coordinator

402
Q

Pre-flight checklists are to be kept with each __________.

A

department-owned and maintained aircraft

403
Q

The maintenance of the sUAS will be the responsibility of the __________.

A

Program Coordinator

404
Q

In the event of an in-flight accident, the Remote Pilot in Command must __________.

A

report the accident to the Watch Commander

405
Q

The sUAS will be stored in a __________ facility.

A

designated

406
Q

The FAA requires that any property damage over $500 must be __________.

A

reported to the FAA

407
Q

If routine maintenance is performed, the aircraft must undergo __________ before it can be put back into service.

A

a test flight

408
Q

Remote Pilot in Command evidence gathering operations may be conducted ______.

A

Within the curtilage of a residence

409
Q

For evidence gathering operations conducted with the owner’s consent, ______.

A

the written consent must be documented on a “Consent to Search Form”

410
Q

The Remote Pilot in Command must label and categorize sUAS recordings ______ after the conclusion of the flight.

A

within 72 hours

411
Q

If a hazard is identified, the Remote Pilot in Command should report it through an ______ or ______.

A

Aviation Safety Evaluation Report (ASER) / Hazard Assessment

412
Q

If an emergent situation arises, the Remote Pilot in Command must report it to ______.

A

The Visual Observer

413
Q

Prior to evaluating third-party sUAS equipment, approval must be obtained from the ______.

A

The Program Coordinator and sUAS Program Supervisor

414
Q

In the event of lost communication with the sUAS, the Remote Pilot in Command will notify ______.

A

The Visual Observer

415
Q

All Remote Pilots in Command (RPIC) must hold a current certification issued by ______.

416
Q

Remote Pilots in Command are required to complete ______ of training flights every month.

A

One hour (cumulative)

417
Q

Before starting sUAS training, every Remote Pilot in Command must be issued a copy of the ______.

A

Pilot Operating Handbook (POH) and the Flight Operations Manual (FOM)

418
Q

The Handle with Care Program was established to receive information regarding children who have ______.

A

witnessed or experienced a traumatic event

419
Q

The Handle with Care Program is managed within the state Office for a Safe and Respectful Learning Environment and operated by ______.

A

Nevada’s SafeVoice Program

420
Q

A department member must submit a report to the Handle with Care Program if they know or have reasonable cause to believe that a child has been exposed to a ______.

A

traumatic event

421
Q

Traumatic events that should be reported include all the following EXCEPT ______.

A

a school field trip

422
Q

Handle with Care reports are submitted through the ______ system.

423
Q

When submitting a Handle with Care report, department members should be prepared to include all of the following EXCEPT ______.

A

the student’s GPA

424
Q

If more than one child is involved in an event, ______.

A

the information for each child must be submitted individually

425
Q

After completing a Handle with Care report, officers will update PremierOne (P1) and CAD with the phrase ______.

A

Handle with Care completed

426
Q

Which of the following information is required for the Handle with Care report?

A

reporting officer’s badge/ID number

427
Q

The link to submit a Handle with Care report can be found in ______.

A

the EPD under “Applications”