NLVPD Procedure CH 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are Approved Weapons?

A

Weapons that meet Department specifications for which officers receive proficiency and safety training.

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2
Q

Before using an approved weapon, officers should communicate that the use of the weapon is __________.

A

Imminent

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3
Q

What are Articulable Aggravating Circumstances?

A

Factors that can be documented by an officer, which increase the severity or culpability of a criminal act.

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4
Q

Examples of Articulable Aggravating Circumstances include _________, violence, or the severity of the crime.

A

Heinousness

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5
Q

What is Cuffing Under Power?

A

A tactic where a secondary officer handcuffs a subject while the Taser is cycling and the subject is in neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI).

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6
Q

What does Deadly Force refer to?

A

The degree of force that is likely to cause death or serious bodily injury.

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7
Q

What is the role of the Deadly Force Review Board?

A

To conduct an administrative examination of uses of deadly force to improve individual and Department performance.

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8
Q

What does the Detective Bureau (NLVPD) investigate?

A

Whether the use of deadly force was legally justified under criminal law.

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9
Q

Force Transitions refer to the movement from one force type to another in conjunction with the __________ standard.

A

Objectively reasonable

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10
Q

What does Imminent Threat mean?

A

An impending violent act or resistance that an officer reasonably believes will occur.

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11
Q

Intermediate Force is greater than ________ force.

A

Low-level

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12
Q

An Involved Officer is one who participated in, directed, or influenced the application of the _______ of force.

A

Use

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13
Q

Less Lethal Force promotes operational objectives with less potential for causing death or serious bodily injury than _______ force.

A

Lethal

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14
Q

Levels of Control include low-level force, intermediate force, and ________ force.

A

Deadly

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15
Q

Low Level Force is intended to cause ________.

A

Injury

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16
Q

Non-Deadly Force is not intended to create a substantial risk of causing ________.

A

Death

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17
Q

An Officer-Involved Shooting refers to an officer’s discharge of a firearm at a person, with or without _______.

A

Injury

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18
Q

An Other Firearm Discharge is an unintentional discharge that does not cause injury or death to a person or the intentional shooting at, injuring, or _______ animals.

A

Killing

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19
Q

Physical Force compels a person to involuntarily move, cease movement, or physically _______ to that force.

A

React

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20
Q

A Public Safety Statement (PSS) is used to determine if there is an immediate threat to public safety. The supervisor must ensure __________.

A

Public safety

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21
Q

Ramming is prohibited unless it is a ________ force situation.

A

Deadly

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22
Q

Reasonable Belief refers to facts or circumstances that would cause an ordinary person to act in a similar way under ________ circumstances.

A

Similar

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23
Q

Reasonable Force is an objective standard of force based on the ________ of the circumstances present.

A

Totality

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24
Q

Reportable Force includes any use of force that results in injury or complaint of injury, or any use of force greater than ________ force.

A

Low level

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25
Q

Reviewable Force includes uses of force subject to review, including incidents where an officer or suspect is _______.

A

Injured

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26
Q

Serious Bodily Injury is an injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes serious permanent disfigurement, or results in a prolonged loss of the ________ of any bodily member.

A

Functioning

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27
Q

Significant Force results in treatment at a medical facility due to injuries or alleged injuries. Examples include skeletal fractures or ________ bodily injury.

A

Serious

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28
Q

The Taser is a device that stimulates motor neurons to contract, disrupting the subject’s motor nervous system and ________.

A

Muscles

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29
Q

A Spark Display is a non-contact demonstration of the taser’s ability to discharge ________.

A

Electricity

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30
Q

Drive Stun is intended to administer pain to a subject by making direct contact when the ________ circuit is not completed.

A

Electrical

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31
Q

Probe Mode is where the taser cartridge deploys firing probes at the subject, with the intent to temporarily _______ the subject.

A

Immobilize

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32
Q

Unnecessary Force is any amount of force that does not fulfill a lawful objective, or is ________.

A

Unwarranted

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33
Q

Unreasonable Force exceeds what any reasonable employee might have utilized in ________ circumstances.

A

Similar

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34
Q

The Use of Force Continuum describes the appropriate levels of force authorized in response to the level of ________ displayed by a subject.

A

Resistance

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35
Q

A Witness Employee is someone who was present during a use of force incident but did not ________ in or directly influence the application of the use of force.

A

Participate

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36
Q

A Witness Monitor is a designated officer who is not involved in the use of ________ force.

A

Deadly

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37
Q

The reasonableness of a use of force must be judged from the perspective of a ________ officer on the scene.

A

Reasonable

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38
Q

The reasonableness inquiry in reviewing the use of force is an ________ one.

A

Objective

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39
Q

One factor that may affect the reasonableness of the force used by an officer is ________.

A

The severity of the crime(s)

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40
Q

Certain classifications of civilian employees are allowed to carry firearms but have no power of ________.

A

Arrest

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41
Q

Firearms are not permitted inside the North Las Vegas Community Correctional Center unless authorized by the ________.

A

Chief of Police

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42
Q

If an officer applies a Use of Force option resulting in a visible injury, they must summon ________.

A

Medical attention

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43
Q

In the event of injury, the officer should provide the ________ of the injury for medical personnel.

A

Nature

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44
Q

Medical attention must be summoned for a visible injury resulting from the use of force, including baton strikes to the ________ area.

A

Groin

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45
Q

OC spray requires medical attention if there is direct exposure to the ________ area.

A

Facial

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46
Q

Taser probe strikes to the ________ area require medical attention.

A

Head

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47
Q

The use of canine results in medical attention being required for all ________.

A

Bites

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48
Q

Use of force with a vehicle requires the officer to summon ________ when there is visible injury.

A

Medical attention

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49
Q

Low lethality shotgun strikes require medical attention, regardless of the ________.

A

Severity

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50
Q

Any use of force application that results in visible injury is subject to the summoning of ________.

A

Medical attention

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51
Q

Officers may use reasonable force to: Protect themselves, Protect others, or to affect a lawful ________.

A

Arrest

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52
Q

If it is not already known by the subject, officers should make clear their intent to ________.

A

Detain

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53
Q

When practicable, officers will ________ themselves as a peace officer before using force.

A

Identify

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54
Q

Duty to Intervene applies when an officer observes the use of physical force that is ________ justified.

A

Not

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55
Q

A supervisor must issue a ________ to stop unjustified physical force.

A

Direct order

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56
Q

Any officer observing unjustified physical force must report to their ________ supervisor.

A

Immediate

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57
Q

Reports about unjustified use of physical force must be made in writing not later than ________ days after the occurrence.

A

10

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58
Q

Officers should consider that a suspect may resist due to a ________, such as a medical condition.

A

Medical crisis

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59
Q

Reports about unjustified use of physical force must be made in writing not later than ________ days after the occurrence.

A

10

Reporting timeframe for incidents involving physical force.

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60
Q

Officers should consider that a suspect may be resisting due to a ________, such as a medical condition, mental or hearing impairment, or drug interaction.

A

Medical crisis

Factors influencing a suspect’s resistance.

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61
Q

A compliant subject offers ________ passive, active, aggressive, or aggravated aggressive resistance.

A

No

Definition of a compliant subject.

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62
Q

Passive Resistance occurs when the subject is not complying with the officer’s commands but is taking only ________ physical action to prevent arrest.

A

Minimal

Characteristics of passive resistance.

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63
Q

Active Resistance occurs when the subject’s actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing them in ________, but are not directed at harming the officer.

A

Custody

Definition and intent of active resistance.

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64
Q

Articulable Aggravating Circumstances are factors that increase the severity or culpability of a criminal act, including heinousness, violence, or the ________ of the crime(s).

A

Severity

Factors that escalate the seriousness of a crime.

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65
Q

Aggressive Resistance occurs when the subject displays the intent to harm the officer, themselves, or another person and prevent the officer from placing the subject in ________.

A

Custody

Definition of aggressive resistance.

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66
Q

Aggravated Aggressive Resistance involves actions likely to result in ________ bodily harm to the officer, themselves, or another.

A

Death or serious

Definition of aggravated aggressive resistance.

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67
Q

Aggravated Aggressive Resistance may involve the use of a ________, blunt or bladed weapon, and extreme physical force.

A

Firearm

Tools associated with aggravated aggressive resistance.

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68
Q

Officers must intervene when they observe the use of physical force that is ________ justified.

A

Not

Duty to intervene in cases of unjustified force.

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69
Q

Articulable Aggravating Circumstances may include an increase in the ________ posed to others should the suspect remain at large.

A

Threat

Factors that indicate increased risk in a situation.

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70
Q

Officers must consider factors like a subject’s medical condition, mental impairment, and ________ barrier when handling non-compliant individuals.

A

Language

Important considerations for officer interactions.

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71
Q

The Duty to Intervene applies when the officer observes physical force that is ________ justified.

A

Not

Circumstances under which intervention is required.

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72
Q

A report about unjustified physical force must be submitted not later than ________ days after the incident.

A

10

Reporting requirements for incidents involving force.

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73
Q

When use of force is needed, officers will assess each incident to determine the most ________ force option based on policy, procedure, training, and experience.

A

Objective

Importance of objective assessment in use of force.

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74
Q

Low Level Force is a level of force or control that is neither likely nor intended to ________ injury.

A

Cause

Definition of low level force.

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75
Q

An example of Low Level Force would be handcuffing a ________ arrestee for transport.

A

Compliant

Example of appropriate low level force usage.

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76
Q

Intermediate Force has the potential to cause injury or substantial ________.

A

Pain

Characteristics of intermediate force.

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77
Q

Intermediate Force requires a ________ of Force Report.

A

Use

Reporting requirements for intermediate force incidents.

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78
Q

Deadly Force is likely to produce ________ or serious bodily injury.

A

Death

Definition of deadly force.

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79
Q

Examples of Deadly Force include using a baton to strike the ________.

A

Head

Specific actions classified as deadly force.

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80
Q

A Low Lethality Shotgun is considered Intermediate Force if fired at a distance of ________ feet or greater.

A

20

Distance classification for low lethality shotguns.

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81
Q

The use of a 40mm weapon is considered Intermediate Force if fired at a distance of ________ feet or greater.

A

5

Distance classification for 40mm weapons.

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82
Q

Deadly Force can result from a force option being ________ applied.

A

Properly or improperly

Consequences of force application.

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83
Q

The use of Deadly Force can include the use of a firearm, baton, or a low lethality shotgun when ________ feet or less.

A

5

Conditions for using deadly force.

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84
Q

An example of Low Level Force is ________ a suspect out on a high-risk vehicle stop.

A

Proning

Practical application of low level force.

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85
Q

The use of Deadly Force can include a low lethality shotgun when fired at less than ________ feet.

A

20

Conditions for utilizing deadly force with shotguns.

86
Q

Intermediate Force includes the use of a Taser, which is used to cause ________ or substantial pain.

A

Severe

Classification and effects of Taser use.

87
Q

Deadly Force can also be the result of improper ________ of a force option.

A

Application

Implications of improper force application.

88
Q

The NLVPD is committed to protecting people, their property, and ________.

A

Their rights

Core values of the NLVPD.

89
Q

The proper use of force is essential for ________.

A

Public safety and service

Importance of proper force use in policing.

90
Q

There are circumstances where individuals will not comply with the law unless ________.

A

Compelled or controlled by the use of force

Understanding compliance in law enforcement.

91
Q

Officers must remain mindful that they derive their authority from the ________.

A

Community

Source of an officer’s authority.

92
Q

Unreasonable force ________ the legitimacy of an officer’s authority.

A

Weakens

Impact of unreasonable force on authority.

93
Q

In a use of force incident, the governmental interest must match the ________.

A

Level of force and intrusion upon an individual’s constitutional rights

Balancing governmental interest in use of force.

94
Q

Officers of this Department will hold the highest regard for the ________ of all persons.

A

Dignity and liberty

Ethical considerations in law enforcement.

95
Q

The Department places ________ reliance upon the use of force.

A

Minimal

Philosophy on the use of force.

96
Q

The Department respects the value of ________.

A

Every human life

Fundamental principle of the Department.

97
Q

The application of ________ is a measure to be employed in the most extreme circumstances.

A

Deadly force

Conditions for applying deadly force.

98
Q

Persons lawfully detained may be, and arrestees will be, handcuffed with their hands ________ for officer safety.

A

Behind their backs

Standard procedure for handcuffing.

99
Q

The handcuffs should be double locked and should not be tightened so that they ________ circulation.

A

Cut off

Proper application of handcuffs.

100
Q

If a situation dictates hasty application of handcuffs, proper application will be checked after the detained person has been ________.

A

Removed from the area of immediate threat

Ensuring safety during handcuffing.

101
Q

Which of the following restraint devices may also be used and must follow the same protocol as handcuffs?

A

Flex-cuff restraints

Alternative restraint devices and their protocols.

102
Q

Leg restraints (hobbles) may be used when transporting a ________ arrestee or inmate.

A

Violent or potentially violent

Guidelines for using leg restraints.

103
Q

What is the primary action taken when an arrestee or inmate is removed from an area of immediate threat?

A

Removed from the area of immediate threat

104
Q

Which restraint device must follow the same protocol as handcuffs?

A

Flex-cuff restraints

105
Q

After securing leg restraints, detained persons should be placed on their ________.

106
Q

In case of an injury resulting from the application of restraints, ________ should be requested to respond.

A

Paramedics and/or an ambulance

107
Q

How often will officers be re-certified in the use of handcuffs?

108
Q

A spit hood is a ________ use only item.

109
Q

What is a condition for the use of a spit hood?

A

The detained person is under control and restrained

110
Q

Improper use of a spit hood may cause ________.

A

Asphyxiation or suffocation

111
Q

Aerosol inflammatory agents may be used to defend ________ from bodily harm.

A

The officer and others

112
Q

Aerosol inflammatory agents are most effective if sprayed from a distance of less than ________ feet.

113
Q

When using aerosol inflammatory agents, personnel should exercise caution to limit the risk of affecting ________ personnel.

114
Q

After aerosol agents are used against an inmate, the inmate will be examined by ________ staff.

115
Q

The shift supervisor is to be notified whenever ________ is used.

A

An aerosol agent

116
Q

Officers and authorized civilian personnel will be re-certified annually regarding the application of ________ agents.

117
Q

Only trained officers may use the ________ Launcher for deploying aerosol agents.

A

PepperBall

118
Q

The deployment of chemical agents will be done at the direction of ________.

A

A supervisor within the Special Operations Division

119
Q

Chemical agents may be used for ________ such as civil unrest, riots, barricades, or hostage rescues.

A

Unusual occurrences

120
Q

Officers authorized to carry and use chemical agents must be re-certified ________.

121
Q

When the subject has been secured and resistance has ceased, officers should ________ to relieve discomfort caused by chemical agents.

A

Flush the eyes and exposed skin with clear water

122
Q

Officers must report the use and effectiveness of chemical agents in their ________.

A

Written police reports

123
Q

The baton is primarily used for ________.

A

Self-defense and to separate fighting inmates

124
Q

Officers should use batons ________ when other means have failed or are impractical.

A

To effect an arrest or subdue violent persons

125
Q

Officers authorized to carry an impact tool must be re-certified ________.

126
Q

The baton will never be used as a tool to ________ an inmate.

127
Q

Less lethal ammunition may be deployed when a ________ has been given by a supervisor.

A

Verbal authorization

128
Q

Less lethal ammunition should not be used at close range or directed at the ________.

A

Head or other lethal zones

129
Q

After the deployment of less lethal ammunition, officers will submit a ________ as soon as practical.

A

Written report

130
Q

The shift supervisor must be notified and will respond when ________ is used.

A

Any type of force, including accidental weapon discharge

131
Q

Only officers who have completed an authorized training course and qualified with the designated less lethal weapons are authorized to deploy ________.

A

12 gauge/40mm/37mm rubber/nylon or plastic ammunition

132
Q

The 12 gauge less lethal shotgun must be clearly ________ from the 12 gauge lethal shotguns.

A

Different in appearance

133
Q

The ________ projectile launcher is authorized for use with the XM1006 sponge grenade.

134
Q

When deploying less lethal ammunition for crowd control, officers should maintain a ________ to ensure accuracy.

A

Safe, yet effective distance

135
Q

Officers authorized to use chemical agents must be re-certified ________.

136
Q

The use of batons is intended to defend against ________.

A

Bodily harm

137
Q

After deploying less lethal ammunition, the officer must notify the ________.

A

Supervisor

138
Q

The use of other less lethal items will not be authorized without the express permission of the __________.

A

Chief of Police

139
Q

The tranquilizer gun/rifle is strictly limited to use by __________ for tranquilizing animals for capture.

A

Animal Control Officers

140
Q

Officers are required to complete initial training and qualify annually with the __________.

A

Tranquilizer Gun

141
Q

The tranquilizer gun is prohibited from being used on __________.

142
Q

Officers applying Pressure Point Control Tactics (PPCT) must be __________.

A

Certified in the use of PPCT

143
Q

The use of the folding knife as a weapon of defense is only authorized under __________ circumstances.

A

Extraordinary circumstances

144
Q

The type of knife authorized for officers to carry must have a __________.

A

Blade that locks in place

145
Q

The taser is considered a __________ method of defense within the Use of Force Continuum.

A

Intermediate

146
Q

Tasers should not be used on a suspect if the suspect is __________.

A

In an elevated position where a fall could cause serious injury

147
Q

Officers must complete __________ training to be authorized to carry and deploy a taser.

A

Initial training and annual re-certification

148
Q

The taser has an optimal range of __________ feet for Close Quarters (CQ) cartridges.

A

4–12 feet

149
Q

Officers should avoid deploying the taser __________ without justification.

A

At the chest, head, or face

150
Q

When removing taser probes, officers should ensure they __________.

A

Inspect each probe for integrity

151
Q

Probes deployed in sensitive areas such as the __________ should be removed by qualified medical staff.

152
Q

If a taser deployment results in signs of medical distress, __________ should be sought immediately.

A

Medical attention

153
Q

When a taser is deployed, the deploying officer is required to ________ the suspect for the appropriate charges.

A

Take into custody

154
Q

After a taser deployment, the officer must complete a(n) ________ report.

155
Q

When documenting taser use, officers should report the ________.

A

Number of cartridges deployed

156
Q

If a taser is activated for more than the standard ________ second cycle, justification must be provided in the report.

157
Q

If a taser causes serious or life-threatening injuries, the incident should be handled according to Chapter ________.

158
Q

The officer must impound all ________ air cartridges as evidence when a serious or life-threatening injury occurs.

159
Q

After a taser-involved use of force, officers must submit reports in accordance with NLVPD ________ policy.

160
Q

Supervisors must respond to scenes where a taser has been deployed and ensure that the involved officer ________.

A

Verifies taser functionality

161
Q

A taser download for inclusion in IA Pro must be done by a certified ________ instructor or a supervisor.

162
Q

During a taser operational test, any ________ will be noted and the taser will not be returned to service until cleared.

A

Discrepancies

163
Q

If a taser fails the operational test, a ________ will be issued to the officer until the taser is cleared.

A

Spare taser

164
Q

If a taser’s firmware is not updated, it may ________.

A

Shorten its useful life

165
Q

Civilian employees authorized to carry firearms must complete the Department-approved ________ training.

A

Use of Force

166
Q

Officers are prohibited from engaging in ‘dry firing’ unless it is part of a ________ course.

167
Q

Officers must notify their supervisor immediately if they discharge a firearm, except during ________ pursuits.

A

C) Recreational

Recreational pursuits do not require immediate reporting as they are not considered official duties.

168
Q

A taser is equipped with a data port that counts the number of times the device is ________.

A

B) Fired

This data helps in monitoring the usage and effectiveness of the taser.

169
Q

The use of firearms shall not include ________ shots.

A

A) Warning

Warning shots are generally discouraged to prevent unintended consequences.

170
Q

If an officer discharges a firearm accidentally and no one is injured, they must submit a ________ detailing the incident.

A

D) Police memorandum

A police memorandum is a formal record of incidents for accountability and review.

171
Q

An employee involved in a use of deadly force incident is defined as any incident where a law enforcement employee utilizes deadly force while in the process of __________.

A

b) Arrest, detainment, or official police duties

This definition clarifies the circumstances under which deadly force can be considered.

172
Q

An employee may use deadly force in defense of himself if he believes there is an immediate threat of __________.

A

b) Death or serious bodily injury

This standard is critical for justifying the use of lethal force.

173
Q

When retaking an escaped or rescued prisoner or fleeing suspect, deadly force may be used only if the employee has __________ that the suspect poses an immediate threat.

A

b) Reasonable belief

Reasonable belief is essential to ensure the use of deadly force is justified.

174
Q

The employee must believe the offender has the __________ to kill or inflict serious bodily harm in order to use deadly force.

A

a) Ability or Apparent Ability

This requirement helps to assess the threat level posed by the offender.

175
Q

In situations involving deadly force, the employee must consider all the following elements except __________.

A

d) Financial cost to the department

The focus should remain on the immediate threats rather than financial implications.

176
Q

On all employee-involved uses of deadly force incidents, the following personnel will respond to the scene, except __________.

A

c) Animal Control Officer

Animal Control is not typically involved in human-related deadly force incidents.

177
Q

If an employee uses deadly force resulting in death or serious bodily injury, they must __________ immediately after the incident.

A

b) Request medical response

This action is crucial for the health and safety of all involved.

178
Q

The involved employee must submit to __________ testing following an officer-involved shooting or force that results in death or serious bodily harm.

A

c) Drug and alcohol

This requirement ensures that the employee was not under the influence during the incident.

179
Q

The __________ will be responsible for ensuring the test results for drug and alcohol testing are available for review by the involved employee and the Chief of Police.

A

b) Internal Affairs Bureau

The Internal Affairs Bureau plays a key role in oversight and accountability.

180
Q

When an employee intentionally uses deadly force against an animal, they must __________ and explain the incident.

A

a) Notify their immediate supervisor

This notification is necessary for proper documentation and review.

181
Q

If the involved employee uses deadly force against an animal, the supervisor must request the __________ to respond and process the scene.

A

a) CSI Bureau

The CSI Bureau is responsible for collecting evidence and investigating incidents.

182
Q

The employee will surrender the firearm used in a deadly force incident to __________ personnel during a countdown.

A

b) CSI Bureau

This procedure is crucial for evidence preservation.

183
Q

If the employee volunteers to speak to detectives, the on-scene supervisor will notify the __________ upon their arrival.

A

d) On-scene investigative services commander

This notification ensures that the appropriate chain of command is followed.

184
Q

If an employee is involved in a deadly force incident, they must attend a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing within __________ hours of the incident.

A

b) 72

Timely debriefing is vital for mental health support following traumatic events.

185
Q

Following a deadly force incident, the Chief of Police may return the employee to full duty only after __________.
A) clearance from a designated specialist for counseling and a negative drug and alcohol test
B) a written report is filed by the employee
C) the employee re-qualifies with all weapons
D) Both a and c

A

d) Both a and c

186
Q

The primary purpose of the Use of Force Review Board (FRB) and the Use of Deadly Force Review Board (DFRB) is to review and analyze all use of force incidents regarding:

A

A) Intentional use of deadly force resulting in injury or death to a human being

These boards are critical for accountability in law enforcement.

187
Q

The Use of Force Review Board is responsible for determining if the force used was __________ and fell within Department policy.

A

B) Reasonable

This determination is essential for evaluating the appropriateness of force.

188
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the objectives of the Force Review Boards?

A) determine if the involved employee had received adequate training
B) determine if the involved employee is eligible for promotion
C) determine if the weapon and ammunition were within Department policy
D) determine if lesser force alternatives could have been utilized

A

B) Determine if the involved employee is eligible for promotion

189
Q

Who serves as the Chairperson of the Use of Force Review Board?

A

B) One Internal Affairs Bureau supervisor

The Chairperson facilitates the review process and ensures adherence to policies.

190
Q

The Use of Deadly Force Review Board meets to review incidents involving __________.

A

C) Deadly force and use of force incidents resulting in death

This focus helps in assessing critical incidents that have severe consequences.

191
Q

The Use of Deadly Force Review Board will be given a presentation by the Internal Affairs Bureau that includes:

A

A) Audio recordings, photographs, and animation

These materials provide a comprehensive understanding of the incidents.

192
Q

The __________ will present the Use of Force Review Board’s findings in the form of a monthly report to the Chief of Police.

A

B) Internal Affairs Bureau

Regular reporting helps maintain oversight and transparency regarding use of force incidents.

193
Q

Once the Use of Deadly Force Review Board’s findings are presented to the Chief of Police, the Department will provide written notification of those findings to the involved employee(s) within __________.

A

B) Four working days

Timely notifications are essential for accountability and transparency.

194
Q

How long are all completed documentation regarding Use of Deadly Force incidents maintained in the Internal Affairs Bureau?

A

B) 10 years

This retention period supports ongoing accountability and review.

195
Q

Annually, the Internal Affairs Bureau will conduct a documented __________ of all use of force reports.

A

B) Analysis

Regular analysis helps in identifying trends and improving practices.

196
Q

The __________ will serve as an advisor to the Use of Deadly Force Review Board.

A

B) Internal Affairs Supervisor

The advisor role ensures that the board’s activities are aligned with department policies.

197
Q

The Use of Force Review Board includes representatives such as one Patrol Sergeant and one __________.

A

B) Corrections Sergeant

Including diverse representatives helps in comprehensive reviews.

198
Q

The Las Vegas Metropolitan Police Department (LVMPD) has jurisdiction within all of Clark County; however, the primary responsibility for police service is retained by the ________.

A

B) NLVPD

NLVPD focuses on specific local law enforcement needs.

199
Q

The authority of the NLVPD on school campuses includes enforcing local ordinances, state, and ________ laws.

A

B) federal

This authority ensures comprehensive law enforcement on school property.

200
Q

The jurisdiction of the CCSD Police, as created by NRS ________, includes all school property, buildings, and facilities for certain protective and cooperative purposes.

A

A) 391.275

This statute defines the scope of CCSD Police operations.

201
Q

When the NLVPD enters school property to investigate crimes off-campus or in-progress crimes, they must notify ________ Police.

A

D) CCSD

Notification ensures coordination and compliance with jurisdictional protocols.

202
Q

When the NLVPD is involved in a jurisdictional matter with another agency, they are required to conduct a ________ investigation.

A

C) preliminary

Preliminary investigations are essential for assessing the situation and determining next steps.

203
Q

NLVPD personnel may exercise jurisdiction outside of the corporate limits of CNLV when operating under the doctrine of ________ pursuit.

A

B) fresh

Fresh pursuit allows law enforcement to act beyond their typical jurisdiction when necessary.

204
Q

The on-duty Watch Commander is authorized to provide assistance to outside agencies without prior approval from the Chief of Police in case of ________ assistance.

A

C) emergency

Emergency situations necessitate prompt action to ensure public safety.

205
Q

In the event of an emergency, the Watch Commander may recall NLVPD personnel or equipment from an outside agency at any time. This control is considered ________.

A

B) joint

Joint control emphasizes coordination between agencies during emergencies.

206
Q

Requests for assistance from federal law enforcement agencies, such as the FBI, DEA, and ATF, must be made by the ________.

A

B) Watch Commander

The Watch Commander serves as the point of contact for federal assistance requests.

207
Q

When requesting assistance from the National Guard, the City Manager or designee must follow the guidelines set forth in the ________.

A

B) City Emergency Response Plan

This plan outlines protocols for emergencies involving multiple agencies.

208
Q

The Communications Division Manager is responsible for maintaining a ________ that lists public and private social service agencies available in the area.

A

C) Community Services Directory

This directory aids in connecting individuals with available resources.

209
Q

A directive is written to govern the activities of any special team or task force. This directive should define the ________ of the team.

A

C) purpose

Clearly defining the purpose is essential for team effectiveness.

210
Q

A task force should include an evaluation process, which involves monthly ________ during staff meetings.

A

A) reports

Reports facilitate accountability and strategic planning.

211
Q

The NLVPD Watch Commander will notify the supervisor when requesting assistance from a federal agency, and any use of federal authorities will be recorded in the ________.

A

C) Commander’s Log

The Commander’s Log is crucial for documenting interactions with federal agencies.

212
Q

The CCSD Police is responsible for handling initial crime reports and the statistical recovery of events within their jurisdiction, except in cases where ________ are involved.

A

B) criminal offenses

Criminal offenses may require different jurisdictional handling.