NLVPD Procedure CH 11 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing and updating the major emergencies or disasters plan?

A

The Homeland Security/Emergency Management Liaison

This individual ensures the plan is current and effective.

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2
Q

How often must the major emergencies or disasters plan be updated?

A

Annually

Regular updates are essential to maintain preparedness.

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3
Q

In an emergency concerning public health, who must be contacted for authorization for emergency purchases?

A

The Chief of Police or designee

This ensures proper oversight and accountability.

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically authorized for emergency purchases?

A

General office supplies

Only essential equipment and services are authorized.

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5
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that changes to plot maps are updated in the Department’s computer system?

A

The Assistant Chief or designee

This role is crucial for accurate and up-to-date operational planning.

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6
Q

What division will routinely update all neighborhood map files for each Area Command?

A

The Crime Analysis Division

This division plays a key role in maintaining situational awareness.

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7
Q

Who will complete monthly inspections of equipment to be used during unusual occurrences?

A

The Special Operations Division

Regular inspections ensure readiness and safety.

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8
Q

What is included in the monthly inspections conducted by the Special Operations Division?

A

Location and maintenance of equipment

This process is vital for operational efficiency.

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9
Q

Who assumes command of the incident when the Watch Commander arrives at the scene of a critical incident?

A

The Watch Commander becomes the Incident Commander

This transition is important for effective incident management.

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10
Q

Which of the following is considered a critical incident or unusual occurrence?

A

A hazardous material spill of any type or size

Such incidents require immediate and coordinated response.

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11
Q

Which incident does NOT require notification of the Watch Commander?

A

A power outage that does not require state assistance

Not all incidents necessitate immediate command notification.

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12
Q

What type of incidents would require the utilization of the Mobile Command Center (MCC)?

A

All emergency incidents as requested by other jurisdictions

The MCC is essential for multi-jurisdictional coordination.

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the Emergency Mobilization Plan?

A

Alert personnel to respond to duty when the demands exceed capabilities

This plan is critical for managing large-scale incidents.

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14
Q

Who is responsible for requesting authorization to implement the Emergency Mobilization Plan?

A

The Incident Commander, with the concurrence of the Assistant Chief

This ensures a structured approach to mobilization.

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15
Q

Who directs the implementation of Departmental emergency plans A, B, or C?

A

The Chief of Police or designee

Central command is vital for coordinated responses.

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16
Q

After being notified of a mobilization, personnel should report to a _______.

A

predetermined staging area fully equipped for duty

Staging areas enhance readiness and organization.

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17
Q

What is the responsibility of the Incident Commander after mobilization authorization?

A

Distribute equipment to officers at the staging area or in the field

Equipment distribution is crucial for operational success.

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18
Q

If the emergency exceeds the NLVPD’s capabilities, who will the Chief of Police notify?

A

The City Manager

This ensures higher-level support and resource allocation.

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19
Q

In Plan B, how many shifts are officers required to work?

A

12-hour shifts with scheduled days off

This structure helps manage personnel fatigue during emergencies.

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20
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring proper staffing during an emergency mobilization?

A

Incident Command

Staffing is critical for effective response and management.

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21
Q

If a supervisor cannot make contact with a subordinate, who is responsible for notifying the subordinate’s personnel?

A

The ranking supervisor

Maintaining communication is key during mobilization.

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22
Q

When activating SWAT personnel, who notifies the Communications Division?

A

The SWAT Commander

This ensures timely and organized deployment of specialized units.

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23
Q

Where should personnel report unless an alternate staging area has been established?

A

The predetermined assembly areas

These areas are designated for efficient mobilization.

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24
Q

Which personnel will be using their normally assigned call signs during mobilization?

A

All personnel, including those with the rank of lieutenant or higher

Consistent call signs aid in clear communication.

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25
Q

If alternate transportation is required for personnel, who will handle the arrangements?

A

The Incident Commander

This role is essential for ensuring personnel can reach assignments.

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26
Q

Which division will assist with the broadcast of the mobilization on local radio and television?

A

The Public Information Officer (PIO)

The PIO manages communication with the public and media.

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27
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the Incident Commander during mobilization?

A

Oversee personnel assignment and coordination with other agencies

Effective oversight ensures a unified response.

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28
Q

What are the predetermined assembly areas for the Northwest and South Area Command personnel?

A

Their respective Area Command briefing areas

These areas facilitate organized briefings and deployments.

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29
Q

The Assistant Chief is responsible for planning responses to _______.

A

unusual occurrences

This role is vital for effective incident management.

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30
Q

In the event of an emergency situation, the _______ shall assume command of all police operations.

A

Watch Commander

This individual is crucial for maintaining command structure.

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31
Q

The first officer at the scene of an incident must assess and report the nature of the situation and _______.

A

establish the perimeter

Securing the area is essential for safety and investigation.

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32
Q

The Incident Commander is responsible for ensuring that _______ are established for safety.

A

inner and outer perimeters

These perimeters help control the scene and protect the public.

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33
Q

The _______ section is responsible for providing resources and support needed to meet operational objectives.

A

Logistics

This section is vital for operational efficiency.

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34
Q

The Incident Commander is authorized to request assistance from the _______ in case of martial law.

A

National Guard

Collaboration with military resources may be necessary in extreme situations.

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35
Q

If mass arrests are to be made, the _______ will be requested to respond for coordination.

A

Corrections Commander

Coordination is key for managing large-scale arrests.

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36
Q

The Incident Commander ensures that all personnel are provided with proper _______ during an incident.

A

food, water, and medical attention

Personnel welfare is critical for maintaining operational effectiveness.

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37
Q

When the mass booking procedure is activated, offenders must ensure that any _______ offenders are separated from adults.

A

juvenile

Protecting vulnerable populations is a key procedural aspect.

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38
Q

The Mass Booking procedure includes taking photographs of the arrestee and _______.

A

completing a pre-booking form

Proper documentation is essential for legal processes.

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39
Q

_______ officers are responsible for transporting arrestees to the designated facility.

A

Arresting

These officers ensure safe and secure transport.

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40
Q

If an incident exceeds the capabilities of on-duty personnel, the _______ Plan may be implemented.

A

Emergency Mobilization

This plan provides a framework for scaling up response efforts.

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41
Q

The PIO’s role is to serve as the conduit for _______ to internal and external stakeholders.

A

situation updates

Effective communication is crucial during incidents.

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42
Q

After the conclusion of the response to an incident, all supervisors must complete a report detailing actions taken and submit it to the _______.

A

Incident Commander

Reporting is essential for accountability and learning.

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43
Q

The Incident Commander submits an after-action report to the Chief of Police within _______ days.

A

14

Timely reporting helps in evaluating response effectiveness.

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44
Q

When transporting arrestees, all individuals will be placed in _______ restraints.

A

waist/belly

Proper restraints are crucial for safety during transport.

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45
Q

In the event of combative behavior, arrestees will be _______ and placed in a separate location.

A

isolated

Isolation ensures safety for both officers and arrestees.

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46
Q

When completing the mass booking process, officers will ensure that arresting paperwork is placed in a _______.

A

plastic bag

This helps to keep documentation secure and organized.

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47
Q

The Incident Commander must establish a liaison with the _______ if deaths result from the incident.

A

Coroner’s Office

This liaison is important for legal and investigative purposes.

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48
Q

The Incident Commander retains command over _______ officers assigned to the incident.

A

all

Maintaining command over all personnel is critical for effective management.

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49
Q

A protest can include various forms of dissent, which are categorized into three types: __________, __________, and __________.

A

Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, Riots

Understanding these types is crucial for law enforcement response.

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50
Q

What types of dissent can a protest include?

A

Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, Riots

These categories help to classify the nature of protests and their potential impact on public order.

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51
Q

In the event of a civil disobedience protest, what is the supervisor’s primary action?

A

Communicate with protest leader(s) to de-escalate potential conflicts

This action aims to prevent escalation and maintain peace during protests.

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52
Q

What constitutes a riot?

A

Destruction of property, arson, looting

Riots are characterized by violent actions that threaten public safety.

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53
Q

When a riot is deemed illegal, what order is issued?

A

Dispersal order

This order specifies the time frame for dispersal and consequences for non-compliance.

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54
Q

What is the Buffer Zone in the context of protests?

A

Safe area

It is established to create a physical separation between opposing protest groups.

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55
Q

What should the first arriving supervisor assess at a protest?

A

Size and violence level

This assessment helps determine the appropriate response to the situation.

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56
Q

If the situation exceeds NLVPD resources, who will the Watch Commander consider requesting assistance from?

A

LVMPD and/or neighboring agencies

Coordination with other agencies is essential for managing large disturbances.

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57
Q

What is the immediate action for the first officer on scene during a disturbance?

A

Notify Main Base

This notification ensures that the command structure is informed and can respond appropriately.

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58
Q

What code should be announced if an inmate disturbance occurs?

A

Code Red

This code indicates a serious situation requiring immediate attention.

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59
Q

What should the responding supervisor broadcast after a disturbance is under control?

A

Code Green

This code signifies that the situation is stabilized and normal operations can resume.

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60
Q

What documentation is required after a riot or disturbance?

A

Injuries

Video and photographs of injuries are crucial for post-incident analysis and reports.

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61
Q

What unit will be sent for mutual aid upon request from another jurisdiction?

A

PSU

The PSU provides specialized support during critical incidents.

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62
Q

What may be used to quell an inmate riot?

A

Restraint and control techniques

These techniques aim to minimize harm while restoring order.

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63
Q

What is the supervisor’s first responsibility during a disturbance?

A

Gather records of inmate participants

Collecting records helps in understanding the dynamics of the disturbance.

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64
Q

Within how many days must the Incident Commander submit an After Action report?

A

14

Timely reports are essential for reviewing responses and improving future operations.

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65
Q

Who must the Watch Commander/Incident Commander contact before activating the NLVPD CNT or SWAT teams?

A

Tactical Commander

This contact ensures that the correct protocols are followed for incident activation.

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66
Q

What basic incident information must the Watch Commander/Incident Commander provide?

A

Type of incident, possible victims, suspect’s identity, time of day

This information is critical for assessing the situation and planning the response.

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67
Q

What is the responsibility of the Tactical Commander?

A

Location of the command post and deployment

This decision is vital for effective incident management.

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68
Q

What must the command post accommodate according to the Tactical Commander?

A

Up to 13 vehicles including two armored BearCat-type vehicles

Adequate space is necessary to support ongoing operations and ensure safety.

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69
Q

Who initiates the call-out/activation procedure?

A

NLVPD Communications Division (Dispatch)

Dispatch plays a key role in coordinating responses during incidents.

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70
Q

What information is included in the call-out pages sent by Dispatch?

A

Incident location, command post location, synopsis

This information is essential for all responding units to understand the situation.

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71
Q

Which teams must the Dispatcher check on the call-out page?

A

CNT, SWAT, and Radio Systems representative

Ensuring all necessary teams are activated is crucial for a coordinated response.

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72
Q

What is one responsibility of the CNT and/or SWAT Team Leader?

A

Necessary equipment

Ensuring that the team has the right tools is vital for the success of their operations.

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73
Q

To whom does the CNT report during an incident?

A

Tactical Commander

This reporting structure helps maintain clear lines of command and communication.

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74
Q

Who should be contacted for questions regarding legal standing at the incident location?

A

Detective Bureau

Legal advice is essential to ensure that actions taken during an incident comply with the law.

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75
Q

What might a call-out page include regarding an armed suspect?

A

Handgun

This detail is crucial for assessing the level of threat and preparing the response.

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76
Q

Who can activate the SWAT Unit in the absence of a Division Commander?

A

Watch Commander

This ensures that there is always a clear command structure in place for emergencies.

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77
Q

What types of incidents will activate the SWAT Unit?

A

Barricaded suspect, hostage situations, officer/citizen rescues, dignitary protection

These scenarios require specialized tactical responses.

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78
Q

Who becomes the Incident Commander during a hostage/barricaded subject situation?

A

Watch Commander

This role is crucial for overseeing police operations in critical incidents.

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79
Q

What is the first action officers should take on scene during a hostage situation?

A

Secure the area

Securing the area helps prevent further escalation and protects civilians.

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80
Q

What is established to prevent outsiders from accessing the area during a critical incident?

A

Secondary perimeter

This perimeter helps to maintain control of the situation and ensures safety.

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81
Q

Who continues evacuation procedures to establish a sterile area?

A

Incident Commander

Establishing a sterile area is necessary for effective police operations.

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82
Q

If the SWAT Unit is committed to action, who assumes control of the incident?

A

Tactical Commander

This ensures that there is a clear command structure during dynamic situations.

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83
Q

What is the goal of the Crisis Negotiation Team (CNT)?

A

Persuasion and communication

The CNT aims to resolve situations peacefully and avoid escalation.

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84
Q

Who coordinates the activities of the Crisis Negotiation Team?

A

Crisis Negotiation Team Coordinator

This role ensures that the team is effective and well-prepared for incidents.

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85
Q

Who directs contact with the hostage taker during negotiations?

A

Tactical Commander

This ensures that all communication is controlled and strategic.

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86
Q

Who do Detective Bureau personnel report to at the field command post?

A

Personnel Control Officer

This reporting structure is essential for managing resources and personnel during incidents.

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87
Q

What type of radio channel is dedicated for the operation?

A

Non-primary

A dedicated channel ensures clear communication among responding units.

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88
Q

To whom does the Incident Commander submit an after-action report?

A

Chief of Police

This report is important for reviewing the incident and improving future responses.

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89
Q

What may the Incident Commander appoint in their absence?

A

Media Liaison

This role is crucial for managing public information during incidents.

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90
Q

What does __________ refer to?

A

an unlawful flight from custody through the use of force or deceit

Answer: b) Escape

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91
Q

An __________ is characterized by an unlawful release from custody due to clerical error or misinformation.

A

Erroneous Release

Answer: c) Erroneous Release

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92
Q

What does __________ mean?

A

an absence from custody that is not authorized

Answer: a) Unauthorized Absence

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93
Q

When an escape is observed, the staff member should notify __________.

A

Main Base

Answer: b) Main Base

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94
Q

After an escape is reported, Main Base will broadcast a __________.

A

CODE RED

Answer: b) CODE RED

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95
Q

Who will make the initial decision to pursue the escapee(s)?

A

Officer observing the escape

Answer: c) Officer observing the escape

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96
Q

The escapee’s __________ will be pulled for historical reference.

A

Inmate Master File

Answer: b) Inmate Master File

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97
Q

Who should be contacted if an escapee is under contract?

A

Proper agency

Answer: b) Proper agency

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98
Q

After apprehending the escapee(s), all individuals and agencies alerted will be __________.

A

Contacted

Answer: b) Contacted

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99
Q

What should be made of the incident documenting all aspects of the escape?

A

Photographic and written record

Answer: c) Photographic and written record

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100
Q

The person discovering an erroneous release will notify the on-duty __________.

A

NLVCCC Watch Commander

Answer: b) NLVCCC Watch Commander

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101
Q

Who is responsible for investigating and confirming an erroneous release?

A

NLVCCC Watch Commander

Answer: c) NLVCCC Watch Commander

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102
Q

Who will notify the Assistant Chief about the erroneous release?

A

Corrections Captain

Answer: b) Corrections Captain

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103
Q

Who will notify the victim if the inmate was charged with a violent crime?

A

Assistant Chief of the NLVCCC or designee

Answer: b) Assistant Chief of the NLVCCC or designee

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104
Q

The person responsible for the erroneous release must write a __________.

A

Memo

Answer: b) Memo

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105
Q

What is the first priority at an aircraft accident scene?

A

Protect and assist the public

Answer: b) Protect and assist the public

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106
Q

What must be established quickly to preserve the scene?

A

Security perimeter

Answer: b) Security perimeter

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107
Q

The Watch Commander assumes command until relieved by a __________.

A

Senior command officer

Answer: b) Senior command officer

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108
Q

The first officer on the scene must establish the __________.

A

Critical zone

Answer: b) Critical zone

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109
Q

In case of a fire, the __________ has primary responsibility until the threat is removed.

A

Fire Department

Answer: b) Fire Department

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110
Q

The first officer must inform __________ about the incident.

A

The Incident Commander

Answer: b) The Incident Commander

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111
Q

If nuclear contamination is suspected, what should be done?

A

Evacuate all persons except firefighting and rescue personnel

Answer: b) Evacuate all persons except firefighting and rescue personnel

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112
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating with the FAA for a temporary flight restriction?

A

Incident Commander

Answer: b) Detective Bureau

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113
Q

What ensures that roadways are passable for emergency vehicles?

A

Traffic Section

Answer: a) Traffic Section

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114
Q

Who permits authorized news personnel to the scene of a civil aircraft accident?

A

City PIO

Answer: c) Authorized news personnel

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115
Q

What must the Detective Bureau obtain from all witnesses at the accident scene?

A

Names, addresses, and telephone numbers

Answer: c) Names, addresses, and telephone numbers

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116
Q

The Watch Commander must notify __________ in case of deaths from an aircraft accident.

A

The Coroner Medical Examiner

Answer: c) The Coroner Medical Examiner

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117
Q

Who coordinates to establish a temporary morgue in case of multiple deaths?

A

Coroner Medical Examiner

Answer: c) Coroner Medical Examiner

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118
Q

The __________ is responsible for monitoring safety conditions.

A

Safety Officer

Answer: b) Safety Officer

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119
Q

What is the primary responsibility of a patrol officer responding to a bomb threat?

A

Conduct a search for the bomb using establishment personnel

Answer: B

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120
Q

When responding to a bomb threat against a vehicle, what should the officer do?

A

Only perform a visual inspection without opening doors, trunk, or hood

Answer: B

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121
Q

In a bomb extortion case, who makes the decisions regarding compliance?

A

The representative of the establishment

Answer: B

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122
Q

What is the role of communications dispatch when a bomb threat is reported?

A

To notify the Watch Commander and patrol supervisor

Answer: B

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123
Q

Who is responsible for making notifications when an explosive device is found?

A

The communications dispatcher

Answer: B

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124
Q

What should be done when personnel discover a suspected explosive device?

A

Wait for instructions from the LVMPD ARMOR Section

Answer: B

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125
Q

How far should the evacuation perimeter be established when a bomb threat is located?

A

100 feet inside, 400 feet outside, and one floor above and below in multi-story buildings

Answer: B

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126
Q

What is the role of the LVMPD Explosive Detection Dog?

A

To search for explosive substances or evidence

Answer: B

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127
Q

Who should approve the request for the LVMPD explosive detection dog?

A

The LVMPD Watch Commander and on-duty senior area command lieutenant

Answer: B

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128
Q

In the event of a weapons of mass destruction incident, who is the lead agency?

A

LVMPD ARMOR Section

Answer: B

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129
Q

What action should officers take when responding to a weapons of mass destruction scene?

A

Remain cautious and avoid touching suspicious objects

Answer: B

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130
Q

What should be avoided near a potentially explosive device?

A

Use of radios and mobile phones due to the risk of detonation

Answer: A

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131
Q

Who is responsible for processing the crime scene in the event of an explosion with injury or death?

A

CSI Bureau

Answer: A

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132
Q

What is the recommended action when responding to an explosion that causes minimal damage?

A

Dispatch a patrol officer to confirm detonation

Answer: B

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133
Q

What should be considered before requesting the explosive detection dog?

A

The time before detonation, search feasibility, and personnel safety

Answer: B

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134
Q

What is the first priority in hazardous materials incidents?

A

Minimize loss of life and property

Answer: b) loss of life and property

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135
Q

Actions during a hazardous materials incident should focus on saving or protecting __________.

A

human life to the extent possible

Answer: c) human life to the extent possible

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136
Q

If the hazardous material is identified, it is important to __________.

A

notify qualified agencies for prompt cleanup

Answer: b) notify qualified agencies or personnel for prompt cleanup and disposal

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137
Q

The first officer(s) on the scene should stay __________ from the hazardous materials incident.

A

upwind

Answer: b) upwind

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138
Q

The first supervisor should establish the command post at a __________ distance from the scene.

A

safe, upwind

Answer: c) safe, upwind

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139
Q

When a hazardous material is on fire, the minimum perimeter for evacuation should be __________.

A

1000 feet

Answer: c) 1000 feet

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140
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating activities with outside agencies during a hazardous materials incident?

A

Incident Commander or Watch Commander

Answer: b) outside agencies

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141
Q

What should the Public Information Officer (PIO) do during a hazardous materials incident?

A

Establish a location outside the safety perimeter for media personnel

Answer: c) establish a location outside the safety perimeter for media personnel

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142
Q

If a hazardous materials incident involves a vehicle accident, the Incident Commander may request __________.

A

CSI Technician

Answer: a) CSI Technician

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143
Q

The Traffic Unit Personnel’s primary responsibility is __________.

A

traffic control and the outer perimeter

Answer: b) traffic control and the outer perimeter

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144
Q

Communications Personnel must notify the __________ of the nature of the incident.

A

Watch Commander

Answer: c) Watch Commander

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145
Q

The Patrol Personnel is responsible for __________.

A

controlling the crowd and assisting emergency personnel

Answer: b) controlling the crowd and assisting emergency personnel

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146
Q

What is the primary responsibility of Communications Personnel in an incident?

A

Notify the Watch Commander of the nature of the incident

This ensures a proper response and coordination of resources.

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147
Q

What is the Patrol Personnel responsible for?

A

Controlling the crowd and assisting emergency personnel

This role is critical in maintaining order during emergencies.

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148
Q

Who does the Operations Captain designate as the Intelligence Officer in the Dignitary Protection Plan?

A

An officer of command rank

This designation is crucial for effective management during dignitary visits.

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149
Q

What does the SWAT Commander coordinate during dignitary protection?

A

Issuance of designated vehicles, body armor, and special equipment

These resources are essential for ensuring the safety of the dignitary.

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150
Q

What is the role of the Intelligence Officer in the Dignitary Protection Plan?

A

Serve as a source of information to the SWAT Commander

They do not perform enforcement activities.

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151
Q

What should the SWAT personnel conduct in preparation for a dignitary’s visit?

A

An advance inspection of sites and facilities

This includes identifying emergency medical facilities.

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152
Q

What is the Operations Captain responsible for in the Special Events Plan?

A

Planning and control of all special events

This ensures that events are conducted smoothly and safely.

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153
Q

During special event planning, what should be estimated?

A

Crowds, activity, traffic, and expected crime problems

This helps in preparing for potential issues.

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154
Q

What should be included in the operational instructions for a special event?

A

A time schedule for dates and times of special phases of the event

This is critical for coordination and execution.

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155
Q

What type of strikes involves participants aiming to prevent access and potentially get arrested?

A

Demonstrations with an obstructive purpose

This type of protest can escalate tensions.

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156
Q

What type of force should police use when making arrests during a demonstration?

A

Reasonable force

This is necessary to ensure compliance without unnecessary harm.

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157
Q

What is the protocol if a ‘Hot Call’ is received during a community-wide emergency?

A

Respond immediately

Timely response can save lives and mitigate situations.

158
Q

Which agency is responsible for determining if an AMBER Alert should be activated?

A

NLVPD (North Las Vegas Police Department)

This agency assesses the criteria for activation.

159
Q

What is NOT a requirement for activating an AMBER Alert?

A

The child must have been missing for at least 24 hours

An AMBER Alert can be activated immediately under certain conditions.

160
Q

What should the Incident Commander ensure is available for mass arrests if necessary?

A

Flex-cuffs

These are essential tools for managing large-scale arrests.

161
Q

What is the expected action for a Level 2 emergency call?

A

Refer the call to a station or EPolice

This helps prioritize resources for more urgent situations.

162
Q

What should be done if a demonstrator refuses to cooperate during an arrest?

A

Check if they have a disability requiring special transport adjustments

This is important for ensuring humane treatment.

163
Q

What is the minimum time a child must be missing for an AMBER Alert to be considered?

A

24 hours

The child must have been missing for at least 24 hours.

164
Q

Which agency is responsible for determining if an AMBER Alert should be activated?

A

NLVPD (North Las Vegas Police Department)

NLVPD is the agency tasked with this responsibility.

165
Q

How is a child defined for the purposes of an AMBER Alert?

A

A person under 18 years of age, or over 18 if they have the mental capacity of someone under 18

This definition is critical for the activation of AMBER Alerts.

166
Q

An AMBER Alert may be activated within _______ hours of the initial report, unless extenuating circumstances exist.

A

2

This time frame is crucial for the timely response to abductions.

167
Q

Who can request the activation of an AMBER Alert for out-of-state cases?

A

Law enforcement officials from outside the state to the Nevada Department of Public Safety

This allows for broader communication in abduction cases.

168
Q

Who is authorized to activate the AMBER Alert?

A

The On-Call Detective Bureau Supervisor or Watch Commander

This individual has the authority to initiate the alert.

169
Q

What is the responsibility of the Public Information Officer (PIO) in the AMBER Alert process?

A

Completing the AMBER Alert Activation Form and providing information for the activation

The PIO plays a key role in communication.

170
Q

Which entity administers the Nevada AMBER Alert Program?

A

Nevada AMBER Alert Review Committee

This committee oversees the program’s implementation and effectiveness.

171
Q

The Nevada AMBER Alert Review Committee is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Supplying the public with rewards for information

This is not within their responsibilities.

172
Q

How often do officers and dispatchers receive training on the AMBER Alert system?

A

Annually

Regular training ensures that personnel are prepared to respond effectively.

173
Q

To activate a Nevada Silver Alert, the person must be at least ________ years old.

A

60

This age requirement is a key factor in the activation of Silver Alerts.

174
Q

What type of circumstances must be present for a Silver Alert to be activated?

A

Suspicious or unexplained

These circumstances indicate potential danger.

175
Q

Which agency must conduct an investigation to verify the circumstances of a Silver Alert?

A

NLVPD (North Las Vegas Police Department)

This investigation is essential to ensure proper activation.

176
Q

A Silver Alert can only be activated if the disappearance is still within ________ hours.

A

72

Timeliness is crucial for locating missing persons.

177
Q

How often will the Nevada Department of Public Safety broadcast an attempt to locate for the missing person after a Silver Alert is activated?

A

Every 4 hours

This frequent broadcasting helps in locating the missing individual.

178
Q

Which action is NOT taken by the NLVPD to activate the Silver Alert?

A

Calls the media outlets directly

They do not contact media directly as part of the activation process.

179
Q

For how long will the Nevada Department of Public Safety activate the Silver Alert?

A

48 hours

This duration is set for the alert’s effectiveness.

180
Q

If an extension of the Silver Alert is needed, when must the NLVPD request it?

A

Prior to or during the 23rd hour notification

This timing is critical for maintaining the alert.

181
Q

The Silver Alert will be canceled when:

A

The NLVPD submits a cancellation request form

This is the official process for canceling an alert.

182
Q

Once a Silver Alert is activated, which partner is NOT notified?

A

National Weather Service

They are not involved in the Silver Alert notification process.

183
Q

The concept of __________ is that all human blood and certain human body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for communicable diseases and bloodborne pathogens.

A

b) Universal Precautions

Universal Precautions are essential for infection control in healthcare settings.

184
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common source of communicable diseases in the occupational setting?

A

d) Talking to an infected person

Direct contact with infected materials is a primary source of transmission.

185
Q

Hepatitis B (HBV) is primarily transmitted through __________.

A

c) Blood to blood contact

Understanding transmission routes is crucial for prevention.

186
Q

An __________ is an exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials resulting from an employee’s duties.

A

a) Exposure Incident

Immediate reporting of exposure incidents is vital for health monitoring.

187
Q

The most common high-risk exposure includes __________.

A

b) Blood or body fluid contact with mucous membranes

Protecting mucous membranes is critical in healthcare environments.

188
Q

All employees of NLVPD should practice __________ when exposed to body fluids, blood, or respiratory droplets.

A

a) Universal Precautions

Consistent application of Universal Precautions helps reduce infection risk.

189
Q

__________ is the use of physical or chemical means to remove or destroy bloodborne pathogens on a surface or item.

A

b) Decontamination

Decontamination procedures are essential for maintaining a safe environment.

190
Q

__________ refers to objects that can penetrate the skin, such as needles and scalpels, which may be contaminated.

A

a) Contaminated Sharps

Proper disposal and handling of contaminated sharps are crucial for safety.

191
Q

The most important source of communicable diseases in the occupational setting is __________.

A

c) Blood

Bloodborne pathogens pose a significant risk in healthcare and emergency services.

192
Q

When responding to an incident involving body fluids, employees should avoid __________.

A

b) Eating or drinking

Consuming food or beverages can increase the risk of pathogen transmission.

193
Q

The risk of transmission of HIV, HBV, and HCV from body fluids like sweat, tears, and urine is __________ unless they contain blood.

A

c) Low

Understanding the transmission risks helps in implementing appropriate safety measures.

194
Q

If soap and water are unavailable after exposure to potentially infectious materials, employees should use a hand sanitizer with at least __________% alcohol.

A

c) 60%

Hand sanitizers are an alternative when handwashing facilities are not accessible.

195
Q

__________ shall not be recapped, bent, sheared, or removed, unless through the use of a mechanical device or a one-handed technique.

A

a) Contaminated sharps

Safe handling practices for contaminated sharps are critical to prevent injuries.

196
Q

Employees should wear __________ when dealing with persons who are actively coughing or sneezing or when body fluid splashes are probable.

A

b) N95 masks and eye shields

Appropriate PPE is necessary to protect against respiratory pathogens.

197
Q

When a body or item is contaminated, it should be __________ to eliminate potential infection risks.

A

c) Decontaminated

Effective decontamination methods are essential to control infection risks.

198
Q

When exposure to blood, body fluids, or respiratory droplets occurs, personnel should immediately wash the exposed area with __________ and soap.

A

b) hot water

Immediate washing can greatly reduce the risk of infection.

199
Q

All needle sticks shall immediately be __________ to stimulate bleeding.

A

b) milked

Milking a needle stick can help remove residual blood from the puncture site.

200
Q

If an actual exposure occurs, the incident must be reported __________ to an immediate supervisor.

A

c) in both verbal and written forms

Timely reporting is vital for appropriate medical follow-up.

201
Q

If the exposure is considered high-risk, the source individual’s blood will be tested for communicable diseases after __________.

A

b) the employee’s consent

Consent is a legal requirement before testing another individual’s blood.

202
Q

Blood draws for BBP exposure testing will be made at __________ Concentra Urgent Care facilities.

A

c) area

Designated facilities streamline the testing process for exposed employees.

203
Q

If the employee does not consent to HIV testing, their blood sample will be preserved for __________ days.

A

d) 90

Sample preservation is important for potential future testing.

204
Q

If the exposure involves skin contact, follow-up is only indicated if there is evidence of __________.

A

a) compromised skin integrity

Assessing skin condition is crucial for determining the need for follow-up.

205
Q

Personal decontamination procedures for employees include washing unprotected skin surfaces with soap and hot water for __________ seconds.

A

c) 20

Proper washing duration is essential for effective decontamination.

206
Q

In case of an exposure to body fluids, the first step is to immediately __________ the affected area with soap and hot water.

A

b) wash

Immediate washing reduces the likelihood of infection.

207
Q

If an employee is exposed to COVID-19, they must complete a __________ form for review by the NLVFD EOC Health Care Coordinator.

A

a) COVID-19 Medical Intake

Medical intake forms help assess exposure risks and necessary actions.

208
Q

For high-risk exposures, the affected employee should be sent to a __________ facility for evaluation.

A

b) Concentra Urgent Care

Specialized facilities provide appropriate care for exposure incidents.

209
Q

Employees in departments such as Patrol, SWAT, and Traffic must wear __________ masks at all times while at work.

A

b) surgical

Surgical masks are essential for protecting against respiratory infections.

210
Q

If an employee tests positive for a communicable disease, they may continue working as long as it is __________ by a physician.

A

c) indicated

Medical clearance is necessary for employees returning to work post-exposure.

211
Q

Employees should avoid touching their face, especially the __________.

A

b) nose

Reducing face touching minimizes the risk of transferring pathogens.

212
Q

The BBP blood draw will be sent to a testing facility/lab by __________.

A

a) Concentra

Timely processing of blood draws is crucial for effective monitoring.

213
Q

Communications division personnel will ask which of the following questions to assess the risk of exposure for callers?

A

b) Have you or anyone in your household come in contact with someone who tested positive for the Coronavirus in the last 30 days?

Assessing exposure history is important for appropriate response.

214
Q

When the officer reasonably believes that a subject is COVID-19 positive, they must notify:

A

b) All responding units, Dispatch, and their immediate supervisor

Effective communication is vital in managing potential COVID-19 cases.

215
Q

When transporting an arrestee suspected to have COVID-19, officers must:

A

b) Notify the NLVCCC upon arrival and keep the subject in the patrol vehicle until a Corrections officer and Medical staff respond

Maintaining isolation of suspected cases is crucial for safety.

216
Q

In the event of an Employee Exposure Incident, the supervisor must document which of the following?

A

b) Identification of the employee, any other employees present, the date and time of the incident, and the actions taken post-incident

Detailed documentation is important for accountability and follow-up.

217
Q

Officers must practice social distancing of at least ____ feet in all City buildings, meeting rooms, and locker rooms.

A

b) 6 feet

Social distancing is a key strategy in preventing the spread of COVID-19.

218
Q

New inmates will be quarantined for approximately ____ days upon being booked in.

A

b) 14 days

Quarantine procedures help mitigate the risk of disease transmission in facilities.

219
Q

If an officer suspects that a detainee may have COVID-19, the officer should:

A

c) Wear the issued N95 mask and notify all responding units and Dispatch

Utilizing appropriate PPE is essential in suspected cases of COVID-19.

220
Q

All patrol vehicles will be disinfected by the assigned officer:

A

b) At the beginning of shift, end of shift, and after transporting any individuals

Regular disinfection of vehicles is critical to prevent cross-contamination.

221
Q

To avoid cross-contamination, inmates in quarantine will:

A

a) Share cells with other quarantined inmates or be housed alone

Proper housing procedures are necessary to control infection spread.

222
Q

If an officer is exposed to a suspected or confirmed COVID-19 patient, what action should be taken?

A

b) Notify the supervisor, wash hands, change uniform, and follow decontamination procedures

Prompt action after exposure is essential for personal safety.

223
Q

Corrections personnel should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when:

A

b) Responding to any inmate or individual suspected of having COVID-19

PPE is vital for protecting staff from potential infections.

224
Q

When a suspected COVID-19 positive inmate is admitted to a hospital, they will be:

A

b) Booked in absentia

Proper booking procedures ensure legal accountability during medical emergencies.

225
Q

If an inmate is confirmed COVID-19 positive, they will be moved to:

A

b) Isolation cells 3 or 4, which are reverse airflow cells

Isolation measures are crucial for preventing the spread of COVID-19.

226
Q

After handling potentially infectious materials, officers must dispose of their PPE in:

A

b) A biohazard bin

Proper disposal of PPE is essential to prevent environmental contamination.

227
Q

Gas masks used in the Respiratory Protection Program must be:

A

c) Inspected before and after each use, and cleaned and disinfected after each use

Regular inspection and disinfection of PPE are critical for safety.

228
Q

The _____ is a commissioned supervisor who supervises A-Dorm, C-Dorm, F-Dorm, MCC, and the Services Building.

A

b) Dorm Sergeant

The Dorm Sergeant plays a key role in maintaining order and safety.

229
Q

_____ is designated staff appointed by the Assistant Chief of the NLVCCC.

A

c) Safety Officer

The Safety Officer ensures compliance with safety protocols.

230
Q

The _____ is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the emergency situation during a fire.

A

c) Dorm Sergeant

The Dorm Sergeant coordinates response efforts during emergencies.

231
Q

All dormitories are equipped with portable fire extinguishers, which require _____ checks every month.

A

b) Visual

Regular checks of fire extinguishers are necessary to ensure readiness.

232
Q

The first floor of the Justice Complex (NLVCCC) contains portable fire extinguishers in the _____ room.

A

a) Records

Knowing the location of fire extinguishers is vital for emergency preparedness.

233
Q

The fire relocation area for inmates includes _____ and C-Dorm.

A

a) West Dining Hall

Designated relocation areas help manage inmate safety during emergencies.

234
Q

The _____ must immediately notify Main Base and PD Dispatch when a fire is noticed.

A

b) First Person Noticing a Fire

Prompt notification is essential for effective emergency response.

235
Q

When a fire is reported, the Dorm Sergeant should ensure that _____ are being used properly.

A

b) Fire fighting and safety equipment

Proper use of safety equipment is critical during fire emergencies.

236
Q

The _____ is responsible for supervising the fire scene until relieved by a higher authority.

A

b) Dorm Sergeant

The Dorm Sergeant’s role is crucial in managing fire incidents effectively.

237
Q

Who is the first person noticing a fire?

A

First Person Noticing a Fire

238
Q

When a fire is reported, the Dorm Sergeant should ensure that _____ are being used properly.

A

Fire fighting and safety equipment

239
Q

Who is responsible for supervising the fire scene until relieved by a higher authority?

A

Dorm Sergeant

240
Q

Who must respond immediately to Main Base and initiate the Emergency/Incident Checklist?

A

Corrections Watch Commander

241
Q

Who provides directions to assist with fire control by using the nearest portable fire extinguisher?

A

Available Corrections Officers

242
Q

Who has the responsibility to notify PD Dispatch and the on-duty PD Watch Commander in case of a fire emergency?

A

Main Base Personnel

243
Q

Who provides a log of events and assists emergency personnel as needed?

A

Dorm Sergeant

244
Q

_____ is the action of moving inmates to a temporary holding area within the secured perimeter.

A

Relocation

245
Q

The _____ location of emergency keys includes the C-Dorm Control Room and the Lieutenant’s Office.

246
Q

The main responsibility of Housing Unit Security Control Technicians (SCTs) is to: A) Monitor the fire alarm system and assist with evacuation B) Conduct fire drills C) Handle the fire extinguishers D) Perform regular fire safety inspections

A

A) Monitor the fire alarm system and assist with evacuation

247
Q

Before evacuating, SCTs should collect all of the ________ cards.

248
Q

If danger is imminent, the SCT(s) assigned to the housing units must broadcast via radio that they are exiting their assigned post due to ________ danger.

249
Q

The Main Base SCT personnel should ________ when notified of an actual fire.

A

Initiate the Fire Department contact process

250
Q

When notifying the Fire Department, Main Base SCT personnel must provide all of the following information EXCEPT: A) Your Name B) Facility Name C) Time of the fire D) Facility Location

A

C) Time of the fire

251
Q

The Fire Department supervisor at the scene is in sole command of ________ personnel.

A

Fire Department

252
Q

In the event of a fire, SCTs will ensure that all fire safety and detection equipment is ________ by an authorized contractor.

A

Re-certified

253
Q

The first step when evacuating the housing unit during a fire is to:

A

Collect inmate movement cards

254
Q

The facility emergency keys should be secured at the ________ in case of a power failure.

A

C-Dorm Control Room

255
Q

All inmates should be relocated to ________ using the safest route away from the fire.

A

One of the designated relocation areas

256
Q

In the event of a power failure, the ________ will be opened manually.

A

Perimeter gates

257
Q

Inmates who are classified as ‘lock down’ or ‘potentially violent’ should be relocated using ________.

A

Waist restraints and leg irons

258
Q

All civilian staff will relocate to the ________ in the event of a fire.

A

Designated staging areas

259
Q

Inmates from the visitation area should be escorted to their ________ during a fire evacuation.

A

Designated housing unit

260
Q

After the emergency situation has been resolved, the Dorm Sergeant and Safety Officer will manually ________ all previously accessed doors.

261
Q

Inmates and staff will be accounted for by the Dorm Sergeant after they verify that all have ________ the dorm.

262
Q

In the event of a fire, the evacuation of the Justice Facility will not involve the use of ________.

263
Q

If a civilian staff member is unable to walk down the stairs during evacuation, they should secure themselves in the ________ and use the red phone to request evacuation assistance.

A

Area of Refuge

264
Q

After a fire evacuation, a formal inmate count will be conducted once inmates have been returned to their ________.

A

Housing units

265
Q

After action reports, including event logs, must be submitted to the ________ following a fire evacuation.

A

Chief of Police

266
Q

Legal tender refers to money that may be legally offered in payment of an obligation and that a creditor must ________.

267
Q

The United States Secret Service is a branch of the Department of ________, responsible for enforcing Title 18 of the US Code regarding counterfeit currency.

A

Homeland Security

268
Q

Counterfeit money is any U.S. currency presented as legal tender that has been ________ or mechanically reproduced, or that has been altered in any way from the original.

A

Photocopied

269
Q

When accepting money, bills of $______ or larger must be marked with a specialized felt marking pen.

270
Q

If a marking pen mark turns ______, the money is printed on genuine paper and may be processed as usual.

271
Q

If the pen mark turns ______, the money is suspect, and further examination should be done.

272
Q

When examining a suspect bill, you should always ______ the bill by the edges.

273
Q

If the bill in question is deemed counterfeit, you should immediately ______ the bill to the person who gave it to you.

A

Not return

274
Q

The bill should be placed in a ______ to restrict access before being forwarded to the U.S. Secret Service.

A

Protective covering

275
Q

The Counterfeit Note Report (SSF 1604) must include the dollar ______ of the bill.

276
Q

The U.S. Secret Service should be notified immediately at ______ in the case of suspected counterfeit currency.

A

(702) 868-3000

277
Q

When completing a Counterfeit Note Report, you must enter the full ______ of the person leaving the money, if possible.

278
Q

The serial number of a suspect bill is found in the ______ of the bill.

A

Bottom left and top right quarters

279
Q

The ______ should be contacted immediately if a bill is found to be obviously counterfeit.

A

United States Secret Service

280
Q

The Federal Reserve and Treasury Seals on a counterfeit bill may appear ______.

A

Uneven or broken

281
Q

Naloxone (Narcan) is a prescription drug that _______ the toxic effects of opioids by competing with the presence of opiates in the brain.

282
Q

An opiate overdose often leads to depression of the _______ and central nervous system, resulting in a decreased state of consciousness.

A

Respiratory system

283
Q

Opiate overdose symptoms include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Blue lips and/or blue skin B) Limp body C) Increased heart rate D) Unresponsiveness to external stimuli

A

C) Increased heart rate

284
Q

Officers who administer Naloxone should _______ the patient in a recovery position.

285
Q

If an officer administers Naloxone, they should _______ until Medical personnel arrive.

A

Monitor respirations

286
Q

When officers administer Naloxone, they must ensure _______ is called to the scene.

287
Q

Officers must notify a _______ whenever Naloxone is administered and complete a report.

A

Supervisor

288
Q

Officers are issued two Naloxone kits after successful completion of training. Each kit contains _______ of Narcan nasal spray.

289
Q

The Naloxone kits issued to officers should be maintained in a state of _______ readiness.

A

Operational

290
Q

It is recommended that Naloxone kits not be left in off-duty Department vehicles when the temperature is below _______ or above 90°F.

291
Q

After administering Naloxone, the officer will _______ the kit through a supervisor, who will store the kits in a secured area.

292
Q

Officers may obtain a replacement Naloxone kit from the _______ if needed.

A

Southern Nevada Health District

293
Q

Opiate overdose symptoms can include deep snoring or _______ sounds.

294
Q

Officers who believe an individual is in need of immediate medical attention or has a mental illness may complete a form for _______.

A

Legal 2000

295
Q

Officers are responsible for inspecting and replacing Naloxone kits if the dosages are beyond their _______.

A

Shelf life

296
Q

Chemical agents may be used to prevent serious injury, suppress riots, and prevent extensive __________ of property.

A

Willful destruction

297
Q

The Watch Commander, upon notification of a disturbance, may elect to deploy __________ to restore order through officer presence and/or use of force.

298
Q

Officers must be __________ to carry and use authorized/issued chemical agents.

299
Q

Use of chemical agents is deemed __________ and must be properly documented in the After Action report.

A

Use of Force

300
Q

Chemical agents must be used in accordance with the Department’s __________ Procedure.

A

Use of Force

301
Q

After chemical agents are disbursed, a __________ evaluation will be initiated whenever necessary.

302
Q

If at any point a subject appears to be in medical distress after exposure to chemical agents, __________ will be contacted immediately.

303
Q

In accordance with the Department’s __________ Procedure.

A

Use of Force

This refers to the procedure governing the application of force by officers.

304
Q

After chemical agents are disbursed, a __________ evaluation will be initiated whenever necessary.

A

Medical

Medical evaluations are crucial after exposure to chemical agents.

305
Q

If at any point a subject appears to be in medical distress after exposure to chemical agents, __________ will be contacted immediately.

A

Medical

Immediate medical assistance is essential in cases of distress.

306
Q

When cleaning areas affected by chemical agents, if CS powder was used, a __________ should be used to trap the powder.

A

Water vacuum cleaner

A water vacuum cleaner is effective for cleaning CS powder.

307
Q

During the clean-up stage, personnel should wear __________ to prevent the possibility of residual contamination.

A

Gloves and a gauze face mask

Proper protective gear is necessary to prevent contamination.

308
Q

For cross contamination caused by CS, it is recommended to flush the affected area with clear water for at least __________ minutes.

A

10

Flushing for 10 minutes helps mitigate contamination effects.

309
Q

When treating skin irritation from chemical agents, personnel should NOT apply __________, as it will trap the agent on the skin.

A

Creams or oils

Applying creams or oils can worsen skin irritation.

310
Q

To alleviate chest irritation caused by chemical agents, it is important to keep the subject __________.

A

Calm and restrict activity

Keeping the subject calm helps manage irritation.

311
Q

Eyes affected by chemical agents should be kept open facing the __________ to help with tearing and clearing.

A

Wind

The wind aids in flushing out irritants from the eyes.

312
Q

For nasal irritation from chemical agents, it is helpful to __________ to remove discharge.

A

Blow the nose

Blowing the nose helps clear irritants from nasal passages.

313
Q

Major discomfort from exposure to chemical agents should disappear within __________ minutes.

A

10-20

Discomfort typically resolves within this time frame.

314
Q

The tactical tourniquet is an emergency medical tool available to __________.

A

Officers only

This tool is specifically designated for use by officers.

315
Q

Officers must receive training on the use of a tactical tourniquet from a __________ before carrying it on duty.

A

Department-approved instructor

Proper training is mandatory for effective use.

316
Q

The use of a tactical tourniquet is __________ required to be renewed annually.

A

Never

There is no annual renewal requirement for tourniquet use.

317
Q

A tactical tourniquet is primarily used to stop __________ bleeding on extremities (arms and legs).

A

Arterial

Arterial bleeding is life-threatening and requires immediate action.

318
Q

Officers should keep the tactical tourniquet on their person and __________ for use.

A

Ready

Readiness is crucial for timely application.

319
Q

The tactical tourniquet is intended for __________ care or for the care of a fellow officer.

A

Emergent self-care

It is designed for immediate response situations.

320
Q

Officers are __________ to use their tourniquet on another person.

A

Not required

While they can, there is no obligation to assist others with it.

321
Q

The tactical tourniquet is a __________ use piece of equipment.

A

Single

Each tourniquet is designed for one-time use.

322
Q

If the tourniquet is used during the performance of duty, the officer must __________ the usage in a police report or submit a memo for replacement.

A

Document

Documentation is essential for accountability.

323
Q

If a tactical tourniquet is lost or damaged, the officer must __________ it at their expense.

A

Replace

Officers are responsible for the cost of replacement.

324
Q

The memo for replacement of a used tourniquet must be routed through the officer’s __________.

A

Chain of command

Proper channels must be followed for replacements.

325
Q

The justification for replacing a tourniquet is submitted to the __________ for review.

A

Resource Management Database Coordinator

This role oversees resource allocation.

326
Q

The training required for using a tactical tourniquet is not considered a __________.

A

Certification

Training does not equate to formal certification.

327
Q

The tourniquet is intended to stop bleeding until the officer can be transported to an __________.

A

Advanced medical treatment facility

Quick transport is vital for further medical care.

328
Q

In-custody deaths encompass deaths of persons who are in __________ custody.

A

NLVPD

This includes various forms of custody by the police department.

329
Q

In-custody deaths may occur while in physical custody or physical restraint of officers even if the person is __________ arrested.

A

Formally

Formal arrest is not necessary for in-custody deaths.

330
Q

In the case of an in-custody death, the involved officer must request __________ immediately.

A

Medical assistance

Immediate medical help is required in such situations.

331
Q

The involved officer is required to notify their __________ as soon as practical and briefly explain what occurred.

A

Immediate supervisor

Timely notification is essential for protocol adherence.

332
Q

After an in-custody death, the involved officer will not discuss the incident with anyone except his/her __________.

A

Immediate supervisor, investigating personnel, or the District Attorney’s office

Confidentiality is critical until the investigation is complete.

333
Q

The first on-scene supervisor must ensure __________ are identified and separated.

A

Witnesses

Proper witness management is necessary for the investigation.

334
Q

The first on-scene supervisor will make an initial assessment to verify the death did not result from the __________.

A

Use of force

This assessment is crucial for determining the nature of the incident.

335
Q

If the death is believed to have resulted from the application of force, the first on-scene supervisor will refer to Chapter __________ for the Actual Use of Deadly Force Procedure.

A

4.15.05

This chapter outlines specific procedures for such incidents.

336
Q

The Watch Commander will respond to the scene to assume __________ and summon any additional resources that may be needed.

A

Authority

Command authority is essential for managing the incident effectively.

337
Q

The Watch Commander is responsible for preparing a __________.

A

Command Page

This document is crucial for incident documentation.

338
Q

Detectives are responsible for conducting a __________ investigation and preparing a report concerning the facts of the case.

A

Criminal

Criminal investigations are vital for legal proceedings.

339
Q

The Internal Affairs Bureau will conduct an administrative investigation at the discretion of the Chief of Police if there is questionable conduct or possible __________ from policy or procedure.

A

Deviation

Investigations ensure adherence to departmental policies.

340
Q

The first on-scene supervisor will ensure a priority __________ from each involved officer’s body worn camera is completed prior to the arrival of investigative personnel.

A

Upload

Prioritizing uploads preserves critical evidence.

341
Q

If the death resulted from the use of force, the involved officer may be asked to surrender their __________ to CSI.

A

Firearms

Surrendering firearms is a standard procedure in such cases.

342
Q

Following an in-custody death, involved officers may be required to attend a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing within __________ hours of the incident.

A

48

Timely debriefings help address psychological impacts.

343
Q

The SAC Police Facility may need to be evacuated in instances such as __________, bomb threats, or gas leaks.

A

Fire

Evacuations are essential for safety in emergencies.

344
Q

Anyone witnessing an emergency at the SAC Police Facility will be responsible for notifying __________ immediately.

A

Communications

Prompt notification is critical for emergency management.

345
Q

The __________ will be responsible for determining if an evacuation of the facility is necessary.

A

Watch Commander or designee

The designated authority assesses the need for evacuation.

346
Q

Communications will notify appropriate agencies such as LVMPD, Fire Department, and __________ during an evacuation.

A

Southwest Gas

Coordination with agencies is crucial during emergencies.

347
Q

In the event of an evacuation, the Watch Commander or designee will send a __________ notifying command staff of the evacuation.

A

Command page

The command page is essential for internal communication.

348
Q

The on-duty patrol supervisor will assign __________ patrol officers to sweep and clear the entire building during an evacuation.

A

Two

Adequate personnel are needed for thorough checks.

349
Q

__________ will be responsible for securing their area and/or transferring services, if applicable, prior to evacuating.

A

Each Division

Divisions must ensure areas are secured during evacuations.

350
Q

During an emergency evacuation, __________ will not be utilized.

A

Elevators

Elevators pose risks during evacuations and should be avoided.

351
Q

Upon evacuation, all personnel will proceed to the __________ parking lot.

A

North

Designated assembly areas ensure safety post-evacuation.

352
Q

During the evacuation, all personnel will utilize a __________ to ensure all employees in close proximity are aware of the evacuation.

A

Buddy system

The buddy system enhances safety and accountability.

353
Q

After an evacuation is completed, each Division supervisor or most senior person on duty will __________ their personnel.

A

Account for

Accountability is vital to ensure everyone is safe.

354
Q

If anyone is missing after an evacuation, the __________ will be notified immediately.

A

Watch Commander or designee

Immediate reporting is crucial for search efforts.

355
Q

Personnel will not be authorized to re-enter the building until __________ gives clearance.

A

The Watch Commander or designee

Clearance is essential for safety post-evacuation.

356
Q

Other police facilities are responsible for developing __________ for their particular areas as necessary.

A

Evacuation procedures

Customized procedures ensure readiness for local emergencies.

357
Q

The Line of Duty Serious Injury procedures are designed to prepare the Department for a line of duty serious injury of an active duty __________.

A

Officer

These procedures are focused on officer safety and support.

358
Q

All Department commissioned personnel are encouraged to maintain an up-to-date __________ in their vest.

A

Personal Emergency Information Card

This card provides critical information in emergencies.

359
Q

The wishes of the __________ affected by a line of duty serious injury take precedence over the desires of the Department.

A

Family

Family wishes are prioritized in serious injury situations.

360
Q

The officer’s next of kin shall be notified in person of their serious injury by the __________ on duty at the time of the incident.

A

Commanding officer

Personal notification is vital for sensitivity and respect.

361
Q

Following a line of duty serious injury, all employees shall be provided the opportunity to participate in __________ services through the EARR Program or the CNLV Human Resources Department.

A

Psychological or peer support

Support services help employees cope with trauma.

362
Q

The Department Response Commander will serve as the overall __________, coordinating the responsibilities of the liaisons and working closely with them.

A

Point of contact

A designated contact ensures organized communication.

363
Q

The Notification Officer shall ensure that notifications to the officer’s family are made by at least __________ individuals.

A

Two

Multiple notifications ensure the family receives the news appropriately.

364
Q

The Hospital Liaison Officer will be responsible for coordinating the arrival of the injured officer’s family, Department personnel, the media, and __________.

A

Others

Coordination is necessary for managing various groups.

365
Q

The Benefits Coordinator is responsible for filing __________ claims and related paperwork for the injured officer’s family.

A

Workers’ compensation

Compensation claims are critical for family support.

366
Q

The Family Support Advocate will maintain routine __________ with family members to provide emotional support and maintain an ongoing relationship between the Department and the immediate family.

A

Communication

Ongoing contact is crucial for family support.

367
Q

When notifying the officer’s family of the serious injury, officials should use __________ language to briefly explain the circumstances of the incident.

A

Simple and easy-to-understand

Clear communication is essential during sensitive notifications.

368
Q

__________ should be requested to stand by if the health of the next of kin is a concern during the notification of a line of duty serious injury.

A

Crisis counselors

Crisis counselors provide immediate support during distressing situations.

369
Q

What type of language should be used when notifying the officer’s family of a serious injury?

A

Simple and easy-to-understand

This ensures clarity and compassion during a difficult conversation.

370
Q

Who should be requested to stand by if the health of the next of kin is a concern during the notification of a line of duty serious injury?

A

Emergency medical services personnel

This measure is taken to provide immediate assistance if needed.

371
Q

Who is responsible for preparing and disseminating the official Department bulletin regarding the officer’s injuries?

A

Event Commander

This role includes ensuring accurate information is shared with the public.

372
Q

What information must the Notification Officer submit to the Department Response Commander?

A

Identity, time, and place of family members notified

This documentation is crucial for record-keeping and follow-up.

373
Q

Who provides hospital personnel with billing information for medical services?

A

Hospital Liaison

This role ensures that financial matters are handled appropriately.

374
Q

The Event Commander is responsible for coordinating a response to the __________.

A

Media

This involves managing information flow and public relations.

375
Q

What should be avoided when communicating with the family following a line of duty serious injury?

A

Graphic details or police jargon

Clear and sensitive communication is essential to support the family.

376
Q

The Notification Officer will identify __________ family members outside the area.

A

Additional

This ensures all relevant family members are informed.

377
Q

All Department personnel are required to maintain an up-to-date __________.

A

Personal Emergency Information Card

This card is essential for emergency situations.

378
Q

Whose wishes take precedence over the desires of the Department following a line of duty death?

A

Family

Respecting the family’s wishes is a priority in such cases.

379
Q

The name of the deceased employee shall not be released to the __________ before survivors are notified.

A

Media

Protecting the family from premature news coverage is critical.

380
Q

Following a line of duty death, all employees shall be provided the opportunity to participate in __________ services.

A

Psychological

This support is important for coping with trauma.

381
Q

The Department Response Commander will report to the __________.

A

Chief of Police

This establishes a clear chain of command.

382
Q

The Incident Commander is responsible for __________.

A

Planning and coordinating all aspects of the emergency response

This includes logistics, communication, and resource management.

383
Q

The Notification Officer must be prepared for __________ situations.

A

Unexpected

This readiness is crucial for handling sensitive notifications.

384
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating all efforts between the NLVPD and the treating hospital?

A

Hospital Liaison

This role ensures seamless communication and support for the injured officer.

385
Q

The Family Liaison is responsible for ensuring __________ with the family after the funeral.

A

Communications

Ongoing support and communication help the family navigate their loss.

386
Q

The Videographer/Photographer works closely with the __________ for audio/video presentations.

A

Family Liaison

Collaboration ensures the family’s wishes are honored in memorial presentations.

387
Q

The Honor Guard Commander coordinates efforts pertaining to __________ services.

A

Funeral

This includes ceremonial duties and honors for the deceased.

388
Q

The Traffic Division Supervisor is responsible for obtaining information about the __________ route.

A

Funeral procession

Proper planning for the procession is essential for safety and respect.

389
Q

The Parking Coordinator ensures __________ for handicapped persons and dignitaries.

A

Parking

This facilitates access to the funeral and memorial services.

390
Q

The EARR/Benefits Coordinator assists the family with __________ funeral services.

A

Planning and coordinating

This support helps alleviate the burden during a difficult time.

391
Q

The EARR/Benefits Coordinator is responsible for applying for __________ benefits on behalf of the family.

A

Death

This ensures the family receives entitled benefits in a timely manner.