New Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Sexual infection of cattle is the main way of infection with brucellae

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brucella ovis can infect bulls and can cause epididymitis and orchitis

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Selection (test & slaughter) method is not an appropriate method for eradication of swine
brucellosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Staphylococcosis is a septicaemic disease in day-old chicken

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Proventricular dilatation disease can occur in parrots

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TGE virus reaches foetuses.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PHEV causes viraemia.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

TGE virus causes respiratory signs in adult animals

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the case of PRRS high level of serum antibodies can be measured during viraemia

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clinical signs caused by duck hepatitis A virus can be seen in the first month of life

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bovine respiratory syncytial virus causes fibrinous pneumonia

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ataxia, tremor, spasms and dyspnoea are clinical signs of encephalomyocarditis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bovine respiratory syncytial virus results formation of hyalin membrane in the alveoli

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Distemper is caused by a morbillivirus

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rinderpest virus and peste des petits ruminants virus can infect sheep

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Interstitial pneumonia can be a postmortem lesion of Distemper

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In the first phase the clinical symptoms of PRRS there may be respiratory symptoms such as
coughing

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nasal discharge and saliva contain large amount of Ephemeral fever virus

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Coli-diarrhoea of calves can be seen after weaning

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nasal discharge is frequently seen in the case of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Brucella abortus can cause arthritis and bursitis in cattle

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Brucella species can propagate in the soil

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Focal necrosis in the liver surrounded by a red ring is a typical lesion of infectious necrotic
hepatitis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Horse influenza is a very contagious, quickly spreading disease

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pandemic diseases are fast spreading ones; they are fast transmitted between continents

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Swollen head syndrome is caused by avian metapneumovirus and E.coli

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bovine coronavirus is a zoonotic disease

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Erosions can be seen in the oral cavity in the case of vesicular stomatitis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rabies virus causes encephalitis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

BSE prion is spreading fast from animal to animal

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clostridium botulinum has a wide host range

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Struck is generally a wound infection

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Clinical signs of porcine streptococcosis can mainly be seen in piglets

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Skin necrosis is a clinical form of chronic swine erysipelas

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is carried only by pigs that survived swine erysipelas

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is a facultative intracellular bacterium

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dermonecrotoxin of Bordetella bronchiseptica causes lesions in the nasal cavity and on the
skin of pigs

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Francisella tularensis is a soil microorganism

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Brucella ovis can infect only sheep

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

PCR is used to detect antibody against porcine parvovirus 1.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Canine herpesvirus infection can cause encephalitis in foxes

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Bursitis virus targets the premature T lymphocytes

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The arthropod is a true vector, if the pathogen also replicates in the susceptible animal

A

false?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cyclozoonoses require an arthropod for transmission

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The half-life of the heterologous hyperimmune serum is about 2-3 weeks

A

false, thats for homologeous hyperimmune serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Peste des petits ruminants virus mainly replicates in the lymphoid cells

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Nipah virus can cause disease in humans

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus causes fibrinous pneumonia

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The origin of coronavirus is unknown

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In the first phase the clinical symptoms of PRRS there may be respiratory symptoms such as
coughing

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Formation of immune complexes can happen in the case of feline leukosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Clinical signs of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis can be seen generally in sheep between 2
and 4 years

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The agent is not shed in the case of tolerated infections

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pseudocowpox virus is a zoonotic agent

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The clinical signs of exudative dermatitis are more severe in suckling piglets than adult
animals

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The morbidity of strangles is high

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Dermatophilosis occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in winter

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Influenza causes enteric symptoms in humans

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If the cellular immune reaction of cattle is week, mainly proliferative lesions of tuberculosis
can be seen

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Verotoxigenic E.coli strains cause coli-diarrhoea of calves

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

PRRS has virulence variants

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The wet form of FIP is III. type of hypersensitivity

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica is maintained mainly by pigs

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The clinical signs of haemorrhagic septicaemia of cattle are caused by the endotoxin of the
causative agent

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Rabies virus causes encephalitis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

High ammonia and dust concentration can predispose pigs to atrophic rhinitis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Dermatophilosis occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in winter

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Adult pigs cannot be infected with the agents of atrophic rhinitis

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

BSE prion spreads from the cow to the calf

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The dermonecrotoxin of the agent is responsible for the clinical signs of fowl cholera

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Coli-diarrhoea of calves is caused by extraintestinal E-coli strains

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Wild boars can be the carrier of Brucella suis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Coli-diarrhoea of calves can be seen after weaning

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

S19 and RB51 vaccine strains are alive, attenuated Brucella abortus strains for vaccination of
3-5 months old heifers

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Lamb dysentery is caused by clostridium perfringens B

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Malignant oedema can occur in ruminants and pigs

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Hyperimmune serum can be used for treatments of tetanus

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Tetanus is caused by Bacillus tetani

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The sows have to be vaccinated with inactivated vaccines in order to prevent swine typhoid

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

streptococcus equi subsp. Equi is the causative agent of strangles

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Abscesses caused by streptococcus porcinus are generally noticed in the slaughterhouse

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Carrier agent of strangles can detected with ELISA using paired sera

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The agent of pyosepticaemia of horses is a facultative pathogenic bacterium

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Exhausting work is a predisposing factor of haemorrhagic septicaemia of cattle

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Actinomycosis is an acute disease in humans

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Wounds are predisposing factors of necrobacillosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Fibrinous pneumonia is a frequent postmortem lesion of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Necrobacillosis is a generalised disease

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Rhodococcus equi is a soil microorganism

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

High ammonia concentration in the air can predispose rabbits to pasteurellosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Rhodococcus equi can cause disease in horses only

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Germinative infection is a common way of transmission of the agent of ornithobacteriosis

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Ornithobacteriosis is generally a generalised, septicaemis disease

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Ataxia and nervous clinical signs are typical in the case of swine paratyphoid

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Salmonellosis of dogs is mainly seen in young or immune compromised animals

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Salmonella typhisuis and salmonella gallinarum can infect humans

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Haemorrhagic septicaemia of cattle mainly occurs in tropical and subtropical areas

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Pasteurella anatipestifer is the aetiological agent of anatipestifer disease

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Brucella abortus can cause arthritis and bursitis in cattle

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

During abortion the causative agents of brucellosis are shed in a huge number

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Brucella bovis can cause abortion of cattle

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

As a result of Koster-staining B. melitensis, B. abortus and B. suis are stained red

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Tularaemia does not occur in Europe

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Canine brucellosis is a zoonosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Infectious coryza occurs in chicken, turkey, and waterfowl

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Lesions of bovine actinobacillosis can frequently be seen in lymph nodes

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Increased salivation is a clinical sign of bovine actinobacillosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

FMD virus is shed by milk

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Biotype 2 strains of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae are more virulent than biotype
1 strains

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Sexual infection of cattle is the main way of infection with brucellae

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Lympho-haematogenous spread of mycobacteria can be seen in the early
generalisation phase of tuberculosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

There are vaccines available to prevent VES

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The tick-borne encephalitis virus is endemic in central Europe

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Cytopathic strains of the Bovine Viral diarrhoea (BVDV) alone can cause mucosal
disease

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

M.tuberculosis can cause generalised tuberculosis in cattle

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

BCG vaccination of badgers can result decreased shedding of mycobacteria

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Rift Valley fever outbreaks usually occur after abnormally heavy rainfalls

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Horse influenza is a very contagious, quickly spreading disease

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection with
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Intra uterine infection happens if the foetus is infected during pregnancy from the
dam

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Mycobacterium are highly resistant thanks to the lipids and waxes in the cell wall

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Tuberculin test can be false negative if the animal is infected with M.tuberculosis

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

If cellular immune reaction is weak mainly proliferative lesions tuberculosis can be
seen

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

There is a close relationship between mycobacteria

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

The infected animals have high level of antibodies in the case of tolerated infections

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

The half-life of the homologous hyperimmune serum is about 2-3 weeks

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

False positive reaction of the tuberculine test can be caused by infectious with
facultative pathogenic mycobacteria

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Eradication with generation shift can be used only if the level of infection is low

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

New-born animals must be kept isolated when eradication with generation shift is
used

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

There are vaccines available against chicken anaemia

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

The mink enteritis is type II hypersensitivity

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

The Aujeszky’s disease virus causes fatal pneumonia in ruminants and carnivores

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

The MATSA is a form of a disease

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Poxviruses are epitheliotropic viruses

A

true

136
Q

The pseudocowpox virus spreads slowly in a farm

A

true

137
Q

The sheep and goatpox are common in Europe

A

false

138
Q

Myxomatosis is present worldwide

A

true

139
Q

The swinepox virus causes clinical signs in case of bad hygienic conditions

A

true

140
Q

Neurological form of Marek’s disease can be present in hens (older age)

A

true

141
Q

Myxomatosis is present worldwide

A

true

142
Q

Facultative pathogenic mycobacteria can cause positive tuberculin test in cattle

A

true

143
Q

Actinomycosis is an acute disease in humans

A

false

144
Q

Diarrhoea is the main clinical sign of paratuberculosis

A

true

145
Q

Dermatophilosis is a zoonosis

A

true

146
Q

Coli-diarrhoea of calves is caused by extraintestinal E. coli strains

A

false

147
Q

The endemic form of respiratory pasteurellosis is mainly seen in calves

A

true

148
Q

Dermonecrotoxin producing Bordetella bronchiseptica can cause rhinitis in piglets

A

true

149
Q

Humans can introduce the agent of fowl cholera into a herd

A

true

150
Q

Haemorrhages in large number are frequent postmortem lesions of fowl cholera

A

true

151
Q

After abortion aborted foetus, foetal membranes and blood sample of dam must be
send to the diagnostic institute

A

true

152
Q

Human brucellosis is one of the most frequently seen bacterial zoonosis on Earth

A

true

153
Q

Actinobacillus lignieresii can cause bovine actinobacillosis

A

true

154
Q

Lesions of bovine actinobacillosis are limited to the oral cavity

A

false

155
Q

Only pigs are susceptible to Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

true

156
Q

FMD virus is shed by milk

A

true

157
Q

SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus

A

true, can be caused by both, circo and parvo

158
Q

RHD viruses replicates in the liver

A

true

159
Q

Bursitis virus targets the premature T Lymphocytes

A

false

160
Q

Actinomycosis is an acute disease in human

A

false

161
Q

Rodents are the main reservoirs of the bluetongue virus

A

false

162
Q

Classical swine fever virus targets the lymphatic tissue

A

true

163
Q

Rinderpest virus has several serotypes and there is no cross protection between
them

A

false

164
Q

Peste des petit ruminants virus is resistant, it can survive in the environment for
several months

A

false

165
Q

Clinical signs of the nervous system generally do not appear always in the case of
distemper

A

false

166
Q

Domestic swine is susceptible to Nipah virus infection

A

true

167
Q

The equine viral arteritis is caused by a retrovirus

A

false

168
Q

Pigs has betacoronavirus

A

true

169
Q

Canine pantropic coronavirus causes high fever

A

true

170
Q

The clinical signs of foot and mouth disease and vesicular stomatitis cannot be
differentiated in cattle

A

true

171
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is carried lifelong

A

true

172
Q

Caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus can be transmitted by milk

A

true

173
Q

Haemolysines cause haematuria in the case of staphylococcoses

A

false

174
Q

Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus can be passed from humans to animals

A

true

175
Q

Low virulent strains of the agent of swine erysipelas can cause chronic erysipelas
from the beginning

A

true

176
Q

Penicillin is recommended for the treatment of swine erysipelas

A

true

177
Q

Rift valley fever outbreaks usually occur after abnormally heavy rainfalls

A

true

178
Q

Lympho-haematogenous spread of mycobacteria can be seen in the early
generalisation phase of tuberculosis

A

true

179
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause generalised tuberculosis in cattle

A

false

180
Q

Rhodococcus equi can cause disease in horses only

A

false

181
Q

Coli diarrhoea of new-born calves can be prevented by vaccinating the pregnant
cows

A

true

182
Q

Salmonella abortusbovis can cause abortion of cows

A

true

183
Q

Swine typhoid can be transmitted with infected pigs

A

true

184
Q

Wounds are predisposing factors of necrobacillosis

A

true

185
Q

Disease caused by bovine parainfluenza-3 virus can be diagnosed using paired sera

A

true

186
Q

Rinderpest virus replicates only in the lungs

A

false

187
Q

“Zebra striping” in the large intestine can be seen in the case of rinderpest

A

true

188
Q

The PED is zoonotic disease

A

false

189
Q

Canine coronavirus can always cause respiratory disease

A

false

190
Q

Herbivorous animals are generally dead-end hosts of rabies

A

true

191
Q

Virulent foot rot has to be treated with antibiotics

A

true

192
Q

In the case of erythroblastosis high number of immature red blood cells are in the
blood

A

true

193
Q

Recombination is common in the case of retroviruses

A

true

194
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica is maintained mainly by pigs

A

true

195
Q

Clostridium perfringens can produce main and auxiliary toxins

A

true

196
Q

Haemorrhages under the serous membranes and enlargement of the parenchymal
organs are typical postmortem lesions of tetanus

A

false

197
Q

Morel’s disease is an acute, fast course disease

A

false

198
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp. equi can sometimes cause arthritis

A

true

199
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp. equi is a zoonotic agent

A

false

200
Q

Listeriae can survive in pools and poodles

A

true

201
Q

Inflammation of the large intestine is a postmortem lesion of coli diarrhoea of
neonatal piglets

A

false

202
Q

Septicaemic pasteurellosis does not occur in goats only in sheep

A

false

203
Q

Pericarditis and perihepatitis are frequent PM lesion caused by E.coli

A

true

204
Q

Rinderpest virus and peste des petits ruminants virus can infect sheep

A

true

205
Q

The equine viral arteritis virus causes viraemia

A

true

206
Q

Canine pantropic coronavirus can cause haemorrhagic diarrhoea

A

true

207
Q

Inactivated vaccine against IBV can be used any ages

A

true

208
Q

Ephemeral fever virus can cause clinical signs in ruminants, pigs, and horses

A

false

209
Q

Rabies virus is shed in the viraemic phase of the disease

A

false

210
Q

The clinical signs of avian leukosis are most severe in chicken under 2 weeks of age

A

false

211
Q

In the case of erythroblastosis high number of immature red blood cells are in the
blood

A

true

212
Q

Proventricular dilatation disease is caused by a retrovirus

A

false

213
Q

BSE prion spreads from the cow to the calf

A

false

214
Q

Clostridium septicum is a frequent agent of malignant oedema

A

true

215
Q

Only coagulase positive staphylococci are regarded pathogen

A

false

216
Q

Abscesses caused by Streptococcus porcinus are generally noticed in the
slaughterhouse

A

true

217
Q

Pulmonary pasteurellosis of pigs is mainly caused by pasteurella multocida

A

true

218
Q

Human Brucellosis is one of the most frequently seen bacterial zoonosis on earth

A

true

219
Q

Coli-diarrhoea of calves can be seen after weaning

A

false

220
Q

Selection (test & slaughter) method is not an appropriate method for eradication of
swine brucellosis

A

true

221
Q

Brucella ovis can infect only sheep

A

true

222
Q

About 10% of calves carry EColi O157:H7strains

A

true

223
Q

Coli septicaemia of calves is frequently after weaning

A

false

224
Q

Epidemic diseases are fast spreading ones; they are fast transmitted between
continents

A

false

225
Q

In case of import of animals into a farm, animals in the quarantine must be only
observed, there is nothing to do with them if they do not show clinical signs

A

false

226
Q

Foetuses have no immune reactions; they appear only in 2-4-week-old animals

A

false

227
Q

RHD viruses replicate in the liver

A

true

228
Q

The age of the vaccinated animals can influence the efficacy of the vaccination

A

true

229
Q

Implantation of washed embryos from a non-infected dam into an infected one is a
way of eradication of a disease

A

false

230
Q

Eradication with generation shift can be used in cattle herds

A

true

231
Q

In pigs the porcine circovirus 2 can cause PMWS

A

true

232
Q

The clinical signs, pathological and histopathological examination suggest PCV2-
induced disease

A

true

233
Q

PDNS is a type IV. hypersensitivity

A

false

234
Q

SMEDI is caused by goose parvovirus

A

false

235
Q

Maternal antibodies of dogs protect not longer than 2 weeks in the case of
parvovirus enteritis of dogs

A

false

236
Q

The parvovirus enteritis of dogs is type III hypersensitivity

A

false

237
Q

If 75-day-old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus abortion can be seen

A

false

238
Q

Abortion of sows can be a sign of Aujeszky’s disease

A

true

239
Q

Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of rinderpest in africa

A

false

240
Q

Persistently infected calves can be recognised by virus detection in ear notch (skin)
sample

A

true

241
Q

Swine typhoid can be transmitted with infected pigs

A

true

242
Q

The Aujeszky’s disease virus may infect several mammalian hosts

A

true

243
Q

Rinderpest virus can result in lifelong immunity

A

true

244
Q

Salmonellosis of dogs is mainly seen in young or immune compromised animals

A

true

245
Q

Hypothermia and weak immune response facilitate the severity of canid herpesvirus
infection of dogs

A

true

246
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign feline infectious rhinotracheitis

A

true

247
Q

Germinativ infection does not occur in Marek’s disease

A

true

248
Q

Suipoxviruses cause long-lasting immunity

A

true

249
Q

Sheep and goat poxvirus are taken mainly through the oral route

A

false

250
Q

pseudocowpox does not cause a milker’s nodules

A

false

251
Q

Newcastle disease virus can cause CNS signs in dogs

A

false

252
Q

Myxomatosis causes serious clinical signs in cotton-tail rabbits

A

false

253
Q

Bovine coronavirus is zoonotic disease

A

false

254
Q

In the first phase the clinical symptoms of PRRS there may be respiratory symptoms
such as coughing

A

true

255
Q

PHEV causes viraemia

A

false

256
Q

TGE virus reaches foetuses

A

false

257
Q

Rinderpest can infect only cattle

A

false

258
Q

The half-life of heterologous hyperimmune serum is 2-3 days

A

false

259
Q

Rinderpest virus can result lifelong immunity

A

true

260
Q

Feline leukosis virus can be eliminated in some cats

A

true

261
Q

Tumor formation in the lungs, liver and spleen is typical in ovine pulmonary
adenomatosis

A

false

262
Q

Maedi-visna virus replicates only in the lungs without causing viraemia

A

false

263
Q

Nipah virus can cause disease in humans

A

true

264
Q

Domestic swine is susceptible to Nipah virus infection

A

true

265
Q

The agent of exudative dermatitis enters the host through wounds

A

true

266
Q

Purulent meningo-encephalitis can be a postmortem lesion of porcine
streptococcosis

A

true

267
Q

Omphalitis is a frequent lesion of avian staphylococcosis of day-old chicken

A

false

268
Q

The equine viral arteritis virus causes viraemia

A

true

269
Q

TGE virus reaches the mammary gland

A

true

270
Q

Inactivated vaccine against IBV can be used any ages

A

true

271
Q

Bovine parainfluenza-3 virus can cause interstitial pneumonia in calves

A

true

272
Q

Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of rinderpest in Africa

A

false

273
Q

Nasal discharge and saliva contain large amount of ephemeral fever virus

A

false

274
Q

Recombination is common in the case of retroviruses

A

true

275
Q

Generation shift is the only way of eradication of enzootic bovine leukosis

A

false

276
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can result birth of immunotolerant calves

A

true

277
Q

The clinical signs of avian leukosis are most severe in chicken under 2 weeks of age

A

false

278
Q

Clostridium botulinum has a wide host range

A

true

279
Q

Prion is shed in discharges by minks in the case of transmissable mink
encephalopathy

A

false

280
Q

Tetanus is seen only in horses

A

false

281
Q

Haemolysines are virulence factors of staphylococci

A

true

282
Q

In case of porcine streptococcosis CNS clinical signs can be seen

A

true

283
Q

Streptococcus suis is a zoonotic agent

A

true

284
Q

Streptococcus suis can cause encephalitis of humans

A

true

285
Q

Haemorrhagic diarrhoea is a clinical sign of strangles

A

false

286
Q

Eradication with generation shift can be used only if the level of infection is low

A

false

287
Q

Embryo transfer can be used as an eradication method

A

true

288
Q

Leporioxviruses cause long-lasting immunity

A

true

289
Q

Pseudocowpox virus causes papule on the udder

A

true

290
Q

S.typhysuis and gallinarum can infected human

A

false, no because typhoid

291
Q

In humid and cool environment, the foot and mouth disease virus can retain its
infectivity for weeks

A

true

292
Q

Live vaccine is used for the prevention of avian encephalomyelitis

A

true

293
Q

Clinical signs caused by duck hepatitis A virus can be see in the first month of life

A

true

294
Q

A hepatitis E is a notifiable disease in animals

A

false

295
Q

Rodents are the main reservoirs of the bluetongue virus

A

false

296
Q

Septicaemic ovine pasteurellosis is mainly seen lambs younger than 3 months

A

true

297
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of ovine pasteurellosis

A

true

298
Q

Leukotoxin production is an important factor of mannheimia haemolytica

A

true

299
Q

Mannheimia haemolytica can cause mastitis in goats

A

true

300
Q

Toxoid vaccines are used for the prevention of atrophic rhinitis

A

true

301
Q

Persistently infected calves can be recognised by virus detection in ear notch (skin)
sample

A

true

302
Q

Rift valley fever outbreaks usually occur after abnormally heavy rainfalls

A

true

303
Q

Horse influenza is a very contagious, quickly spreading disease

A

true

304
Q

Brucella suis can cause orchitis and vertebral abscess in boars

A

true

305
Q

Equine infectious anaemia virus can damage the bone marrow

A

true

306
Q

Rabies can be diagnosed only by using PCR

A

false

307
Q

Bovine coronavirus can cause diarrhoea in adult animals

A

true

308
Q

Winter diarrhoea mainly affects dairy herds

A

true

309
Q

Distemper can be complicated by secondary bacterial infections

A

true

310
Q

Three to six months old dogs are most susceptible to canine distemper virus

A

true

311
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause clinical signs in horses

A

true

312
Q

Retroviruses are enveloped, their resistance is low

A

true

313
Q

Retroviruses carry an integrase enzyme

A

true

314
Q

Tremor, spasms, and torticollis are clinical signs of Newcastle disease

A

true

315
Q

BSE prion spreads from the cow to the calf

A

false

316
Q

Feline immunodeficiency virus causes horizontal and vertical infection

A

true

317
Q

Anthrax is a chronic disease in ruminants

A

false

318
Q

Newcastle disease virus can cause CNS signs in dogs

A

false

319
Q

Bovine coronavirus causes watery diarrhoea in calf up to 3 months

A

true

320
Q

Brucella canis is shed in the semen

A

true

321
Q

Sexual infection of cattle is the main way of infection with brucellae

A

false, per os

322
Q

The causative agent of tularaemia cannot infect humans

A

false

323
Q

“Zebra striping” in the large intestine can be seen in the case of rinderpest

A

true

324
Q

The feline coronavirus causes viraemia

A

true

325
Q

Human brucellosis is one of the most frequently seen bacterial zoonosis on Earth

A

true

326
Q

Nasal discharge and saliva contain large amount of ephemeral fever virus

A

false

327
Q

After abortion aborted foetus, foetal membranes and blood sample of dam must be
send to the diagnostic institute

A

true

328
Q

Brucella ovis and B. canis are koster-negative

A

true

329
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep cannot be eradicated from a flock

A

false

330
Q

Carriers of agent of strangles can detected with ELISA using paired sera

A

false

331
Q

Tumour formation in the lungs, liver and spleen is typical in ovine pulmonary
adenomatosis

A

false

332
Q

Clostridium botulinum has a wide host range

A

true

333
Q

Avian leukosis virus causes the malignant transformation of B lymphocytes

A

false

334
Q

Brucella suis can cause orchitis and vertebral abscess in boars

A

true

335
Q

Struck is generally a wound infection

A

false

336
Q

Equine infectious anaemia virus is mainly transmitted by respiratory discharge

A

false

337
Q

Clostridium septicum is a frequent agent of malignant oedema

A

true