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Anatomy > Nervous System > Flashcards

Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What are your unpaired cranial bones?

A

Frontal
Occipital
Sphenoid
Ethmoid

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2
Q

What are your unpaired facial bones?

A

Vomer

Mandible

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3
Q

[Junctions of the skull]

Frontal + temporal + parietal + greater wing of sphenoid

A

Pterion

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4
Q

[Junctions of the skull]

parietomastoid + occipitomastoid + lamboid

A

Asterion

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5
Q

[Junctions of the skull]

coronal + saggital suture

A

Bregma

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6
Q

[Junctions of the skull]

labdoid + saggital suture

A

Lambda

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7
Q

The anterior fontanelle is the future site of

A

Bregma

close by 18 months

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8
Q

The posterior fontanelle is the future site of

A

lamda

close during the first few months after birth

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9
Q

Hematoma in the temple is most likely due to a tear of

A

MMA

can cause epidural hematoma

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10
Q

The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the

A

maxillary of external carotid artery

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11
Q

[Where is the fracture]

blood or CSF to escape from the ear, hearing loss and facial nerve damage

A

Fracture of the petrous portion of the temporal bone

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12
Q

[Where is the fracture]

anosmia, periorbital bruising/raccoon eye and CSF leakage from the nose/rhinorrhea

A

Anterior cranial fossa

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13
Q

What are the contents of the petrous portion of the temporal bone

A
  1. Vestibulocochlear organ
  2. ICA
  3. Petrosal sinus
  4. Branch of CN VII, VIII, IX, X, XII
  5. petrosal and sigmoid sinus
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14
Q

What houses the anterior cranial fossa?

A
  1. Cribiform plate of the ethmoid

2. CN 1

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15
Q

What are the layers of the scalp?

A 
Skin
Connective
Aponeurosis
Loose connective tissue
Pericranium/Periosteum
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16
Q

What are the three primary bran vesicles?

A
  1. Prosencephalon/Fore brain
  2. Midbrain/Mesencephalon
  3. Hindbrain/Rhombencephalon

Remember, P comes first with R, F comes first with H.

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17
Q

What are your secondary brain vesicles?

A

Remember, TD MsMtMe

  1. Telencephalon
  2. Diencephalon
  3. Mesencephalon
  4. Metencephalon
  5. Myelencephapon
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18
Q

What are your adult brain structures?

A

Remember:

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Diencephalon
  3. Midbrain
  4. SC
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19
Q

What are the components of your cerebral hemisphere?

A
  1. Cortex
  2. White matter
  3. Basal nuclei
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20
Q

What are the components of your diencephalon?

A
  1. Thalamus
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Epithalamus
  4. Retina
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21
Q

What are the adult structures of your Metencephalon?

A
  1. Pons

2. Cerebellum

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22
Q

What are your neural crest derivative?

A
  1. Pigment cells of retina
  2. Cells of the adrenal medulla
  3. Meninges
  4. Neurolemnal sheath of peripheral nerve
  5. Sensory ganglia of cranial and spinal nerves
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23
Q

Absence of neural crest cell migration in Hirschsprung disease is due to ___

A

RET mutation

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24
Q

What are the three protective membranes of the brain and spinal cord?

A
  1. Dura Mater
  2. Arachnoid mater
  3. Pia mater
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25
Q

What is the inner surface of skull bones?

A

Endosteal layer

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26
Q

What separates the endosteal layer and meningeal layer?

A

Venous sinus

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27
Q

What are the septa that divide the cranial cavity into freely communicating spaces?

A
  1. Falx cerebri - sickle shaped
  2. Tentorium cerebelli - crescent shaped
  3. Falk cerebelli - small, sickle shaped
  4. Diaphragma sella - circular
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28
Q

The dura mater receives its sensory nerve supply from the

A
  1. C1 to C3

2. Trigeminal nerve

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29
Q

Referred headache and face is related to what nerve supplying the dura above the tentorium

A

Trigeminal nerve

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30
Q

Headache referred to the back of the head

A

Cervical nerves

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31
Q

___ lines the pia mater and dura mater

A

arachnoid mater

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32
Q

what is the potential space between arachnoid mater and dura mater?

A

Subdural space

Remember:

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33
Q

What is the potential space between the pia mater and he arachnoid mater?

A

Subarachnoid space

Remember: Ara is on top of Pia

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34
Q

What covers the gyri of the brain?

A

pia mater

composed of mesothelial cells

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35
Q

Wha is the functional classification of the cerebrum?

A

Brodmann classification

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36
Q

BA 44, 45

A

Broca = frontal = motor

Bro youre 44, were 22

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37
Q

BA 22

A

Wernicke = temporal = sensory

Bro your 44, were 22

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38
Q

[Brodmann classification]

pre-central gyrus

A

Primary Motor area = BA 4

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39
Q

[Brodmann classification]

somatosensory area

A

Post central gyrus

BA 312

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40
Q

[Brodmann classification]

primary visual area

A

BA 17

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41
Q

[Brodmann classification]

priamry auditory area

A

BA 41, 42

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42
Q

[Wernicke/Broca]

cannot comprehend
can speak nonsensical senstences

A

Wernicke = word salad

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43
Q

[Wernicke/Broca]

can comprehend
difficulty putting words together

A

Broca = broken speech

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44
Q

[Stroke presentation]

LE > UE weakness
contralateral paralysis
contralateral sensory loss

A

Anterior cerebral

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45
Q

[Stroke presentation]

UE > LE weakness

Contralateral paralysis of face, UE
Contralateral sensory loss of face and UE

A

MCA

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46
Q

[Stroke presentation]

contralateral hemianopia, with macular sparing

A

Posterior CA

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47
Q

[UMNL vs UMNL]

spastic paralysis, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, positive babinski, positive clonus, no atrophy

A

UMNL

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48
Q

[Thalamic nuclei]

Emotions

A

Anterior/Dorsomedial

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49
Q

[Thalamic nuclei]

sensory

A

VPL/VPM

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50
Q

[Thalamic nuclei]

motor

A

Ventral anterior

Ventral lateral

51
Q

[Thalamic nuclei]

Vision

A

Lateral geniculate Body

52
Q

[Thalamic nuclei]

hearing

A

Medial Geniculate Body

53
Q

___ syndrome

pure hemilateral sensory loss without lesion, hemilateral pain

A

Dejerine-Roussy Syndrome

cross below the the thalamus

54
Q

[Cerebellum]

Coordination of limb movements while being executed, regulate muscle tone

A

Anterior lobe = Paleocerebellum or Spinocerebellum

55
Q

[Cerebellum]

coordinate voluntary movements

A

Posterior lobe = neocerebellum of cerebrocerebellum

56
Q

[Cerebellum]

coordinate paraaxial muscle associated with equilibrium

A

Floculonodular lobe = Archicerebellum = vestibulocerebellum

57
Q

[Cerebellum: syndrome]

Ataxia, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesa

A

All voluntary = posterior

58
Q

[Cerebellum: syndrome]

marked gait instability, loss of coordination in the LE

A

gait = anterior lobe syndrome

59
Q

[Cerebellum: syndrome]

truncal ataxia

A

flocculonodular lobe syndrome

60
Q

Draw your CSF flow

A

Remember:

Lat, 3, 4, sah
moon, sylvia, luschka magendie, villi

61
Q

What is the volume of your CSF?

A

130mL

62
Q

What are the layers traversed by the needle during lumbar puncture?

A
  1. Skin
  2. Superficial fascia
  3. Supraspinous ligament
  4. Interspinous
  5. Ligamentum flavin
  6. Epidural space
  7. Dura Mater
  8. Arachnoid
  9. Subarachnoid

SSS ILEDAS

63
Q

What are the components of your basal ganglia?

A
  1. Caudate nucleus

2. Lentiform nuclei (Globus pallidus, putamen)

64
Q

What are the roles of you basal ganglia

A
  1. Initiate voluntary movements

2. control of postural adjustments associated with voluntary movements

65
Q

Dyskinesa refers to

A

Involuntary movements

66
Q

What disease is associated with degeneration of your substantia nigra?

A

parkinsons disease

67
Q

___ involuntary, irregular, jerking movement affecting the limb and axial muscle groups

A

Chorea

due to degeneration of striatal neurons

68
Q

___ large flailing movements if one extremity or the arm and the leg on one side

A

hemiballismus

69
Q

the degeneration of striatal neurons result in

A

chorea

70
Q

damage to the contralateral subthalamic nucleus results to ___

A

hemiballismus

usually, PCA stroke

71
Q

Clasp-knife spasticity is associated with what lesion?

A

UMN

72
Q

Lead-pipe rigidity is associated with what lesion

A

basal ganglia lesions

NO PARALYSIS HERE!

73
Q

Cranial nerves that has mixed sensory and motor function

A

CN 9, 10, 7, 5

Remember, 
Oh | Some
Oh | Say 
Oh | Money
To | Maters
Touch | But
And | My
Feel a | Brother
Virgin | Says
Girls | Big
Vagina | Brains 
A | Matter
H | More
74
Q

What are the nerves in your midbrain

A

CN III
CN IV

Mid 34

75
Q

What are the nerves in your pons

A

CN V
CN VI
CN VII
CN VIII

Pons 5-8

76
Q

What are the nerves in your medulla

A

CN IX
CN X
CN XI
CN XII

Medulla 9-12

77
Q

Which cranial nerves have a parasympathetic component?

A

CN 9
CN 10
CN 7
CN 3

78
Q

What exits the optic canal?

A

CN 2

Ophthalmic artery

79
Q

What exits the SOF

A
  1. CN 3, 4, 6 V1
  2. Ophthalmic vein
  3. Lacrimal, Frontal, Nasociliary nerve
80
Q

What exits the Foramen Rotundum

A

V2

81
Q

What exits the foramen ovale

A

V3

82
Q

What exits the Jugular foramen?

A
  1. CN 9, 10, 11

2. Sigmoid sinus to IJV

83
Q

What exits the hypoglossal canal

A
  1. CN XII
84
Q

What exits the Internal Acoustic Meatus?

A
  1. CN 7, 8
85
Q

What exits the foramen magnum

A
  1. CN 12 roots
  2. Medulla and meninges
  3. Vertebral arteries
86
Q

What are the foramens located in the middle cranial fossa

A
  1. Optic Cana
  2. Superior orbital fissure
  3. Foramen rotondum
  4. Foramen ovale
87
Q

What exits the posterior cranial fossa?

A
  1. Jugular foramen
  2. Hypoglossal canal
  3. Internal acoustic meatus
  4. Foramen magnum
88
Q

[Bone of skull]

Cribiform plate

A

Ethmoid

89
Q

[Bone of skull]

optic canal

A

lesser wing of sphenoid

90
Q

[Bone of skull]

superior orbital fissure

A

between lesser and greater wing of sphenoid

91
Q

[Bone of skull]

foramen rotundum

A

greater wing of sphenoid

92
Q

[Bone of skull]

foramen ovale

A

greater wing of sphenoid

93
Q

[Bone of skull]

foramen spinosum

A

greater wing of sphenoid

94
Q

what are the contents of your foramen spinosus

A
  1. Middle meningeal artery and vein

2. Meningeal branch of mandibular nerve

95
Q

[Bone of skull]

Internal acoustic meatus

A

Petrous part of temproal bone

96
Q

[Bone of skull]

jugular foramen

A

between petrous part of temporal and occipital

97
Q

[Bone of skull]

hypoglossal canal

A

occipital

98
Q

[Bone of skull]

foramen magnum

A

occupital

99
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected]

Diplopia, eye down and out, ptosis, dilated and fixed pupil

A

CN 3

100
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected]

diplopia, extorsion of the eye, downward gaze

A

CN 4

SO4 pulls the eye upward inward

101
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected]

diplopia, medial deviation
abductor paralysis

A

CN 6

LR6 abducts the eye

102
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected]

Facial paralysis
loss of corneal/blink reflex
hyperacusis
dry mouth
loss of lacrimation
loss of taste (anterior 2/3)
A

CN 7: Bells palsy

103
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected]

facial hemianesthesia, paralysis of muscle of mastication
ipsilateral jaw deviation, loss of general sensation (anterior 2/3)

A

CN V

104
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected, be specific]

  1. paralysis of lower face
  2. forehead not wrinkled
  3. eyebrows not raised
  4. flat nasolabial fold
  5. eye does not close
A

CN 7, peripheral

105
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected, be specific]

  1. paralysis of lower face
  2. forehead wrinkled
  3. eyebrows raised
  4. eyes closes but with weakness
A

CN 7, central

106
Q

the facial nerve synapses at which part of thebrain?

A

pons

107
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected, be specific]

Dysphonia, dysphagia, loss of gag, deviation of uvula

A

CN 9: Glossopharyngeal

108
Q

arnolds nerve refers to the

A

auricular branch of vagus nerve

109
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected]

weakness in turning head toward opposite side and shrugging shoulder

A

CN 11

110
Q

[Clinical correlates: cranial nerve affected]

tongue hemiparalysis, deviation towards the weak side

A

CN 12

111
Q

What are the branches of the arch of the aorta

A
  1. Brachiocephalic trunk
  2. Left common carotid
  3. Left subclavian
112
Q

What are the branches of your external carotid artery?

A
  1. Superior thyroid
  2. Ascending pharyngea
  3. Linguial
  4. Facial
  5. Occipital
  6. Posterior auricular
  7. Superficial temporal
  8. Maxillary

SAL FOPS Max

113
Q

What are the terminal branches of your internal carotid artery?

A
  1. Anterior cerebral artery

2. Middle meningeal artery

114
Q

What divides the subclavian artery in to 3 parts?

A

Scalaneus anterior muscle

115
Q

What are the branches of the first part of the subclavian artery?

A
  1. Vertebral
  2. Thyrocervical
  3. Internal thoracic
116
Q

What are the branches of the second part of your subclavian artery?

A
  1. costocervical trunk
117
Q

What is the relationship of the scalaneus anterior and subclavian artery?

A

The subclavian artery is posterior to the scalaneus anterior muscle

118
Q

The left subclavian artery originates from the?

A

arch of the aorta

119
Q

The right subclavian artery originates from the?

A

right brachiocephalic artery

120
Q

[Part of the circle of willis]

Internal carotid

A
  1. Ophthalmic
  2. Posterior comminicating
  3. Anterior cerebral
  4. Middle cerebral
121
Q

[Part of the circle of willis]

vertebral

A
  1. PICA
  2. Ant/Post spinal meningeal
  3. Medullary
122
Q

[Part of the circle of willis]

basilar

A
  1. Post cerebral
  2. Superior cerebellar
  3. Pontine
  4. Labyrinthine
  5. AICA
123
Q

Most commonly involved artery in rupture berry aneurysm

A

ACom

Anatomy (37 decks)

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