NASM STUDY EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client’s feet turn out. Which stretch should be use to lengthen the overactive muscles?

A

standing calf

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2
Q

Which macronutrient should be consumed in the highest percentage for a healthy diet?

A

carbohydrate

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3
Q

what is a primary focus of stabilization training?

A

Enhanced control of posture

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4
Q

A high-protein diet consisting of more than 35% of total caloric intake from protein can potentially lead to which adverse health effects?

A

Additional stress on the kidneys

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5
Q

Which type of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?

A

functional

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6
Q

When performing a _____, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.

A

standing triceps extension

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7
Q

“From our discussion, I understand that your primary goal is to lose 10 pounds in the next 2 months. Is that correct?” This statement is an example of what type of question?

A

close ended question

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8
Q

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of:

A

4 years

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9
Q

When assessing your clients resting heart rate, what location provides the most accurate measurement?

A

radial artery

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10
Q

Davis’s law states what ?

A

Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.

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11
Q

A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Resistance development

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12
Q

Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement ?

A

synergistic dominance

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13
Q

When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is:

A

external rotation of feet

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14
Q

A client’s shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which muscles may be underactive?

A

mid and lower trapezius

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15
Q

Which of the following is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?

A

3 - 5 minutes

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16
Q

What is a proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat?

A

knee over second toe

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17
Q

A client’s maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3-minute step test. This is achieved by:

A

subtracting the client’s age from 220.

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18
Q

A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, what would be an appropriate regression?

A

Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.

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19
Q

Under the supervision of which professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet?

A

Medical physician

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20
Q

What term refers to the elevation of the body’s metabolism after exercise?

A

EPOC

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21
Q

Which movement dysfunction will create abnormal stress throughout the kinetic chain?

A

Over-pronation of the foot

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22
Q

To maintain certification with NASM, the Certified Personal Trainer must earn:

A

2 CEUs within 2 years.

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23
Q

Which vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?

A

Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc

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24
Q

What contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet?

A

Loss of water

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25
Which is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity?
ATP - PC
26
what core-training exercises is best for a new client?
Prone Iso-ab
27
A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system?
circuit training system
28
contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Exercise in a supine position after the first trimester.
29
How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as:
cardiac output
30
which is a measuring site of the Durnin–Womersley formula?
Subscapular
31
which muscle is the prime mover when a client performs a row?
Latissimus dorsi
32
part of the marketing mix?
place
33
expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client?
120 mm Hg
34
What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high protein, low carbohydrate diet?
A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced
35
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
16 to 24 ounces
36
When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as:
reflections
37
which test is most useful for assessing an athlete's lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Shark skill test
38
When performing a _____, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction.
standing cable row
39
what should an endurance athlete consume 2-4 hours before exercising to ensure adequate stores of muscle glycogen?
Baked potato
40
Dehydration affects the body by increasing:
heart rate
41
Although quality and brand recognition are important, people ultimately buy personal training services based on the desire to produce a meaningful outcome. Therefore, all buying decisions are based on:
emotions
42
For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which method to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?
Heart rate response
43
what should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
44
in what situation can a Certified Personal Trainer refer a client to a medical practitioner?
When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.
45
an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?
Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
46
What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training?
76% to 85%
47
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is:
quickness
48
an example of an appropriate spotting technique?
The spotter should spot at the wrists when clients are performing a dumbbell exercise.
49
which muscle is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?
Rhomboids
50
what should a trainer determine during the first step in the Ten Steps to Success?
Desired annual income
51
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
20 seconds
52
The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because:
it allows lengthening of the muscle.
53
a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
54
In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program?
increasing load
55
Which muscle is a synergist when a client is performing a chest press?
anterior deltoid
56
the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength and Power Phases of the OPT model?
12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
57
The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of:
specificity
58
When manually monitoring a client's pulse, the trainer counts 17 beats in 6 seconds. What is the client's heart rate?
170
59
a category of subjective information?
medical background
60
what muscle is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome?
Transverse abdominis
61
Based on Overhead Squat Assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended?
Adductor static stretch
62
an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
2 - 4
63
If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which muscle is considered overactive?
Upper trapezius
64
what information is considered objective?
Movement assessment
65
Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as:
subjective information
66
statement that is true concerning client goal setting?
Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.
67
occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?
Abduction
68
During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is probably overactive?
Latissimus dorsi
69
ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
12 to 13
70
If a client’s knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which muscle is overactive?
Adductor longus
71
Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme?
Attainable
72
A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. What is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?
Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
73
what is not part of the 5 kinetic chain check points ?
hand-wrist complex.
74
A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which disorder?
Metabolic syndrome
75
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of:
reciprocal inhibition.
76
The client is ready to progress from Phase: Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. What would be the best resistance training portion for her new Strength Endurance workout?
Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
77
It is lawful for a Certified Personal Trainer who possesses no additional certifications or licensure to do what?
Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.
78
best describes the code of conduct for a fitness professional?
Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
79
an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?
60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
80
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
stomach
81
a component of the sliding filament theory?
The result of two Z lines moving closer together.
82
a split routine in a resistance training program
a way of training that works different body parts on different days.
83
which muscle is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt?
Gluteus maximus
84
When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement?
3 - 5 seconds
85
exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?
Single-leg squat touchdown
86
Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity?
150 minutes
87
After completing the Three-Minute Step Test, a 20-year-old male scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when he does cardio training?
76% to 85% of HR max
88
muscle that is part of the core local stabilization system?
Transverse abdominis
89
what should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?
Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
90
innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Endomysium
91
What is the FIRST step a fitness professional should take when coming across an emergency situation that will require CPR?
Check the scene for hazards.
92
third step in the Stages of Change model?
preparation
93
in the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with which type of intensity?
low
94
a statement that indicates that your client has successfully implemented a SMART goal?
"I want to run a 5k in 45 days."
95
To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of:
dorsiflexion.
96
When a client practices self-myofascial release, what physiological change is the goal?
An increase in Golgi tendon organ activity results in relaxation of a muscle.
97
describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?
Seeking a client's perspective.
98
A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?
neuromuscular
99
a Power Level balance exercise?
Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
100
To avoid muscle strains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue, what concept should be implemented ?
Periodization