Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NCLEX > Musculoskeletal system > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal system Flashcards

1
Q

Risk factors accosicated with Musculoskeletal disorders

A
  1. Autoimmune disorders
  2. Calcium deficiency
  3. Falls
  4. Hyperuricemia
  5. Infection
  6. Medications
  7. Metabolic disorders
  8. Obesity
  9. Postmenopausal status
  10. Trauma & injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Athrocentesis

A

Used to diagnose joint inflammation and infection. Done by aspirating synovial fluid, blood or pus via a needle inserted into the joint cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Arthrography

A

Radiographic examination of the soft tissue of the joint structures. Used to diagnose trauma to the joint capsule or ligaments. Contrast dye is injected into joint followed by an x-ray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Arthroscopy

A

Endoscopic joint exam used to diagnose and treat acute disorders of the joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dual X-Ray Absorptiometry

A

Measures bone mass of the spine, wrist, hip and total body. Used to diagnose metabolic some disease and monitor bone density changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bone Scan

A

Used to identify, evaluate and stage bone cancer and used to detect fractures. Radioisotope is injected and collects in areas of abnormal bone metabolism and fractures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Electromyography (EMG)

A

Measures electrical potential of skeletal muscle contractions by inserting needles into muscle and activity is recorded on an oscilloscope. Used to evaluate muscle weakness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sprains are treated with…

A

R - Rest
I - Ice
C - Compression
E - Elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Closed/Simple fracture

A

Skin over the fracture is in intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

Bone is splintered or crushed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Complete fracture

A

Bone broken into two parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Depressed fracture

A

Bone fragments are driven inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

One side of the bone is broken the other is bent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Impacted fracture

A

Part of the fractured bone is driven into another bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Incomplete fracture

A

Fracture does not go all the way through the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Oblique fracture

A

Fracture runs at an angle across the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Open/compound fracture

A

Bone exposed to the air increasing the risk of infection and soft tissue injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pathological fracture

A

Fracture caused by weakening of the bone structure by a pathological process such as neoplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Neoplasia

A

Abnormal growth of new tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Transverse fracture

A

Bone fractured straight across

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Closed reduction

A

Manual manipulation of a bone fracture to restore bone alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Open reduction

A

Surgical intervention to realign bone fracture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fixation

A

Insertion of screws, pins or plates to repair damaged bone. May include removal of parts of bone and immediate stabilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Skeletal traction

A

Applied mechanically to the bone with pins, wires or tongs. Typical weight is 25-40 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Skin traction

A

Applied using elastic bandages or adhesive, foam boot or a sling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dunlop’s traction

A

Horizontal traction used to align fractures of the humerus. Vertical traction maintains proper alignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Isometric exercises

A

Prevent muscle atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Monitor a casted extremity for…

A
  1. Pain
  2. Swelling
  3. Discoloration
  4. Tingling
  5. Numbness
  6. Coolness
  7. Diminished pulses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Fat embolism

A

Complication of fracture. Originates in the bone marrow and occurs after a fracture when a fat globule is released into the bloodstream. Usually occurs in a long bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Symptoms of a fat embolism

A
  1. Restlessness
  2. Hypoxemia
  3. Mental status changes
  4. Hypotension
  5. Dyspnea
  6. Tachypnea
  7. Petechial rash upper chest
31
Q

Petechiae

A

Pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin as a result of bleeding. The bleeding causes the petechiae to appear red, brown or purple. Commonly appear in clusters and may look like a rash.

32
Q

Compartment syndrome

A

Pressure increase in on or more compartments leading to decreased blood flow, tissue ischemia, and neurovascular impairment. Neurovascular impairment becomes permanent if not treated within 4-6 hours of onset.

33
Q

Paraesthesia

A

Loss of sensation

34
Q

Signs and symptoms of compartment syndroms

A
  1. Increased pain in dumb
  2. Distal tissue is pale, dusky or edematous
  3. Paint with passive moment
  4. Paresthesia
  5. Pulselessness (late sign)
35
Q

Intervention for compartment syndrome

A

Notify HCP and prepare to assist with fasciotomy to relieve pressure and restore perfusion. Losses tight dressings or bivalve a restrictive cast.

36
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammatory response of the bone tissue which can be caused by microorganisms invading the bone causing localized infection.

37
Q

Treatment for osteomyelitis

A
  1. Long term IV antibiotic therapy
  2. Hyperbaric oxygen
  3. Surgery and bone grafts
38
Q

Avascular necrosis

A

Fracture which interrupt the blood supply to the bone causing bone death. Necrotic tissue must be removed.

39
Q

Intracapsular Fractured Hip

A

Femoral head is broken with the joint capsule. Slow to heal as less blood supply to the head, skin traction post-op. Treated with THR or open internal fixation with head replacement.

40
Q

Extracapsular Fractured Hip

A

Fracture outside the joint capsule. Repaired with open reduction with internal fixation. Post-op lie flat with head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees for meals only. Weight bearing is restricted. Leg kept elevated, extended and supported.

41
Q

Dislocation

A

Ligament injury which leads to separation of the articular surfaces of the joint.

42
Q

Subluxation

A

Incomplete displacement of joint surfaces when forces disrupt the tissue surrounding the joints.

43
Q

Cervical disk herniation, pain radiates to

A
  1. Shoulder
  2. Arms
  3. Hands
  4. Scapulae
  5. Pectoral muscles
44
Q

Motor and sensory deficits of cervical disk herniation

A
  1. Paresthesia
  2. Numbness
  3. Weakness of upper extremities
45
Q

Diskectomy

A

Removal of herniated disk tissue and related matter

46
Q

Discectomy with fusion

A

Fusion of vertebrae with bone graft

47
Q

Laminectomy

A

Excision of part of the vertebrae (lamina) to remove disk.

48
Q

Laminotomy

A

Division of the lamina of the vertebrae

49
Q

Neuroma

A

Growth of tumor or nerve tissue

50
Q

Amputation of lower extremity - positioning the patient

A
  1. First 24 hours - elevate foot of bed, then keep bed flat to prevent hip flexion
  2. 24-48 hours position patient prone to stretch the muscles.
51
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Chronic, systemic inflammatory disease that leads to destruction of connective tissue and synovial membrane within the joints.

52
Q

Signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  1. Inflammation, pain and tenderness at the joint
  2. Low grade temperature
  3. Fatigue
  4. Weakness
  5. Anorexia and weight loss
  6. Anemia
  7. Elevated ESR
53
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed…

A

Via a blood test.
Non-reactive - 0-39
Weak reactive - 40-79
Reactive 80+

54
Q

Synovectomy

A

Treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, surgical removal of the synovial to help maintain joint function.

55
Q

Arthrodesis

A

Bony fusion of joint used to treat rheumatoid arthritis.

56
Q

Arthroplasty

A

Joint replacement

57
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Bone buildup and loss of articular cartilage with progressive deterioration of the joints.

58
Q

Crepitus

A

Grating or crackling sounds or sensation under the skin at the joints.

59
Q

Osteotomy

A

Bone resected to correct joint deformity and promote realignment and reduce stress in osteoarthritis.

60
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Bone demineralization, loss of calcium and phosphorus salts leading to fragile bones.

61
Q

Primary osteoporosis

A

Occurs in postmenopausal women and low testosterone men.

62
Q

Secondary osteoporosis

A

Caused by prolonged use of corticosteroids, thyroid reducing medications, aluminum containing antacids and anticonvulsants. Also associated with alcoholism, immobility and malnutrition.

63
Q

Treatment for osteoporosis

A
  1. Assess risk and prevent injury
  2. Provide a diet high in protein, calcium, vitamins C and D, and iron
  3. Avoid alcohol and coffee
64
Q

Gout

A

Systemic disease in which urate crystals deposit in joints and other body tissues.

65
Q

Asymptomatic gout

A

No symptoms but an increase in uric acid levels.

66
Q

Acute gout

A

Excruciating pain and inflammation

67
Q

Intermittent gout

A

Intermittent periods with no symptoms between attacks

68
Q

Chronic gout

A

Repeated episodes of acute gout resulting in crystal deposits under the skin and in organs.

69
Q

Treatment for gout

A
  1. Low purine diet (no organ meats, wine or aged cheeses),
  2. 2000mL intake per day to reduce stone formation
  3. Increase urine pH
  4. Bed rest
  5. Heat/cold compress
  6. Analgesics, anti-inflammatories, uricosuric agents.
70
Q

How should a casted extremely be elevated after cast applied?

A

Elevate for first 24-48 hours to minimize swelling and promote venous return.

71
Q

What is normal arterial oxygen level?

A

80-100 mmHg

72
Q

What is an early sign of fat embolus?

A

Altered mental state

73
Q

What is the main concern with limb amputation?

A

Excessive edema. Compression bandages are essential.

74
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis

A
  1. Asian
  2. White
  3. Smoker
  4. Long term corticosteroid use
  5. Small boned
  6. Fair skinned
  7. Long term anticonvulsant use
  8. Early menopause
  9. Family history
  10. Sedentary lifestyle.

NCLEX (48 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions