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Physiology 1 > MT #3 Hematology +inner environment > Flashcards

MT #3 Hematology +inner environment Flashcards

1
Q

Who created the idea of “milieu interieur” ?

a. Cl. Bernard
b. A. L. Lavoisier
c. W. Harvey
d. K. Landsteiner

A

a. Cl. Bernard

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2
Q

Which of the following statements belong to Claude Bernard?

a. pricking of the third ventricle can increase the blood sugar
b. the liver and the muscle contain glycogen
c. pancreatic juice contains carbohydrate-splitting enzymes
d. the heart is the center of circulation

A

b. the liver and the muscle contain glycogen

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3
Q

What are the characteristics of environmental stability?

a. isovolaemia, isothermia, isohydria, isoionia
b. isoionia, isovolaemia, isometria, isotonia
c. isotonia, isohydria, isovolaemia, isoionia
d. isohydria, isothermia, isotonia, isoionia

A

c. isotonia, isohydria, isovolaemia, isoionia

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4
Q

What does isotonia mean?

a. constant ionic composition
b. constant pH
c. constant water content of the blood plasma
d. constant osmotic pressure

A

d. constant osmotic pressure

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5
Q

What does isoionia mean?

a. constant ionic combination
b. constant osmotic pressure
c. constant pH
d. constant water content of the blood plasma

A

a. constant ionic combination

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6
Q

What does isohydria mean?

a. constant osmotic pressure
b. constant pH
c. constant water content of the blood plasma
d. constant ionic combination

A

b. constant pH

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7
Q

What does isovolaemia mean?

a. constant osmotic pressure
b. constant ionic composition
c. constant volume
d. constant pH

A

c. constant volume

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8
Q

What is a compartment?

a. anatomical space
b. part of the anatomical space
c. the fluid volume of an organ
d. a complex term is not identical with the anatomical space

A

d. a complex term is not identical with the anatomical space

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9
Q

How do water molecules occur in the cells?

a. in four molecular clusters
b. bound to proteins
c. entirely dissociated
d. forming irregular clusters

A

a. in four molecular clusters

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10
Q

Which pair below represents the two most important types of barriers?

a. plasma membrane, nuclear membrane
b. cell membrane, capillary wall
c. blood-brain barrier, epithelial membrane
d. cell membrane, epithelial membrane

A

b. cell membrane, capillary wall

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11
Q

What is typical of the cell membrane in terms of permeability?

a. it is a non-selective membrane
b. it works as a dialysing membrane
c. it is only permeable for water and selective for many other materials
d. it is not permeable to water

A

c. it is only permeable for water and selective for many other materials

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12
Q

What is typical of the capillary wall in terms of permeability?

a. it withholds all material except colloids
b. it is only permeable to water
c. it is permeable to colloids
d. it only keeps out the the colloids and is permeable all other material

A

d. it only keeps out the the colloids and is permeable all other material

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13
Q

What percentage of the body’s mass is water?

a. 60-65%
b. 30-40%
c. 80-90%
d. 10-20%

A

a. 60-65%

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14
Q

What percent of the blood is water?

a. 75%
b. 90%
c. 22%
d. 10%

A

b. 90%

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15
Q

What kind of materials make up those parts of the membrane which determine the transport?

a. mostly carbohydrates
b. steroid compounds
c. lipids and complex proteins
d. heavy metals and calcium

A

c. lipids and complex proteins

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16
Q

What is typical of active transport?

a. its biological importance is negligible
b. it can work only by using indirect energy sources
c. it can work only by using direct energy sources
d. facilitated diffusion is a major representative of this type of transport

A

d. facilitated diffusion is a major representative of this type of transpor

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17
Q

What is typical of the facilitated diffusion?

a. it is a type of passive transport
b. it is a type of active transport
c. it belongs neither to the active nor the passive transport group
d. it can be regarded as active and passive transport

A

a. it is a type of passive transport

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18
Q

Which statement is true concerning material transport across membranes?

a. receptors are not involved
b. membrane channels are involved in this process
c. it runs exclusively with the help of carrier proteins
d. complex proteins are not i

A

b. membrane channels are involved in this process

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19
Q

Which statement concerning the total water space is correct?

a. it is about 60 ml/kg bwt
b. most of it is plasma water
c. its major part is the intracellular space
d. it is uniformly distributed between the EC and the IC space

A

c. its major part is the intracellular space

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20
Q

Which statement is true for extracellular space?

a. it isuniformly distributed between the EC and the IC space
b. it is not part of the total water space
c. it is about 65% of the total water space
d. it is about 35% of the total water space

A

d. it is about 35% of the total water space

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21
Q

What is true for the volume of interstitial space of soft tissues?

a. it is 120-150 ml/ kg bwt
b. it is less than the fibrotic tissue space
c. its value is it is 250 ml/kg bwt
d. it is less than the volume of the plasm

A

a. it is 120-150 ml/ kg bwt

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22
Q

What is typical for the extracellular space?

a. it does not involve the interstitial space
b. it is not a uniform space
c. it is the biggest part of the transcellular space
d. substracting from it the transcellular space results in the interstitial space

A

b. it is not a uniform space

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23
Q

How can you calculate the volume of the intravascular space?

a. plasma volume + transcellular space
b. interstitial space - transcellular space
c. extracellular space - (interstitial space + transcellular space)
d. plasma volume - red blood cell volume

A

c. extracellular space - (interstitial space + transcellular space)

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24
Q

What is typical for intracellular space?

a. it is a uniform space
b. it consists of one compartment
c. it contains two spaces
d. it can be regarded as uniform, though it consists of many smaller compartments

A

d. it can be regarded as uniform, though it consists of many smaller compartments

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25
Q

What is typical of the transcellular space?

a. it is isolated from the other compartments of the EC space by an epithelial membrane
b. its volume is 150 ml/bwkg
c. it is a single anatomical space
d. it is the volume of the gastrointestinal tract

A

a. it is isolated from the other compartments of the EC space by an epithelial membrane

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26
Q

Which one of the following statements is valid for the Stewart dilution principle?
a. during the application of the principle there is no need to make any difference between living organisms and inorganic systems

b. it is the general method of the determination of fluid compartments
c. with the help of this method, the velocity of the moving fluid in biological systems can be determined
d. when using this method an indicator of unknown amount is carried in the investigated system

A

b. it is the general method of the determination of fluid compartments

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27
Q

What kind of factors should be investigated during the use of Stewart dilution principle in living organisms?

a. in practice non metabolisable, non extractable substances are used which do not cross the barriers
b. there is no need to take the extracted amount of substance into account
c. no such substance is known which could comply with all of the requirements
d. the sample is taken immediately after the administration of the indicator

A

c. no such substance is known which could comply with all of the requirements

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28
Q

What kind of operation is made during calculation based on the Stewart dilution principle?
a. Co is determined by measurement

b. S is determined by extrapolation

c. the outflown amount of S gives the actual concentration of the given substance
d. V = (S given in- S flowed out) / Co

A

d. V = (S given in- S flowed out) / Co

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29
Q

What method can be used for quantifying the total body water?

a. tritiated water or antipirin
b. only with quantifying density
c. inulin
d. exsiccation at 50(C

A

a. tritiated water or antipirin

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30
Q

Which one of the following can be a possible method of the determination of total body water?

a. Evans-blue injecting based on the dilution principle
b. dehydration of the organism until it is a constant mass at a temperature of 105(C
c. it can be calculated after the estimation of fat content of the body
d. quantifying the density of the tissue in vitro

A

b. dehydration of the organism until it is a constant mass at a temperature of 105(C

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31
Q

How can the volume of the interstitial compartment be determined?

a. by the injection of a substance which leaves the blood stream completely, but unable to cross cell membranes
b. with the help of Na, Cl, Br isotopes
c. in an indirect way (EC-intravasal volume)
d. by the injection of Evans-blue

A

c. in an indirect way (EC-intravasal volume)

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32
Q

What is the meaning of LBM (lean body mass)?

a. the amount of the fat in the body
b. total body water
c. total body mass
d. fat free body mass

A

d. fat free body mass

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33
Q

Which one of the following statements is valid for the fat free body mass?

a. its water content is 73 % of the body mass
b. its water content is varying significantly
c. its density is varying
d. fat free body mass= TBW x 0.73

A

a. its water content is 73 % of the body mass

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34
Q

How can the volume of the extracellular compartment be determined?

a. it can not be quantified based on the dilution principle
b. with the help of Na, Cl, Br isotopes
c. with antipirin
d. with mannitol, inulin and tritiated water

A

b. with the help of Na, Cl, Br isotopes

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35
Q

What kind of properties should an appropriate indicator of the extracellular compartment own?

a. it can permeate the cell memrane, but can not permeate the capillary wall
b. it can not permeate the cell membrane and the capillary wall
c. it can permeate the capillary wall, but can not permeate the cell membrane
d. it can permeate the cell membrane and the capillary wall as well

A

c. it can permeate the capillary wall, but can not permeate the cell membrane

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36
Q

What kind of distribution occurs during determination of the extracellular

a. the slow period of distribution is followed by a rapid one
b. it consists of 5 well distinguished periods
c. monophasic
d. it consists of more phases

A

d. it consists of more phases

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37
Q

What kind of substance is suitable for the determination of the intravascular compartment?

a. 131-I albumin
b. a substance which permeates the capillary wall
c. inulin
d. no such substance exists

A

a. 131-I albumin

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38
Q

Which one of the following statements is valid for the blood cell compartment?
a. it is part of the transcellular compartment

b. Evans-blue is not suitable for its determination
c. its determination is possible only from the value of the plasma compartment
d. its determination is not possible with marked red blood cells

A

b. Evans-blue is not suitable for its determination

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39
Q

How can the intracellular compartment be determined?

a. it can be measured only directly
b. IC = TBW / EC
c. it can be measured only by calculation
d. IC = TBM - EC

A

c. it can be measured only by calculation

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40
Q

What method can the intracellular compartment be measured with?
a. inulin is used for its determination

b. Evans-blue is used for its detemination
c. in practice for its determination a substance is used which exits in total amount in the interstitium
d. no such substance exists, by which it can be measured

A

d. no such substance exists, by which it can be measured

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41
Q

Which one of the following statements is true?
a. water is made to move by osmotic and hydrostatic forces

b. the maintainance of isosmosis of the intracellular compartment is secondary

c. towards the maintainance of isovolaemia
the osmolality of the IC and EC is equalized in a few hours

d. capillary wall is the main barrier in the movement of water

A

a. water is made to move by osmotic and hydrostatic forces

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42
Q

Which one of the following statements is true?
a. the maintainance of isovolaemia of the EC compartment is primary

b. the primary task is the originating of isosmosis between EC and IC
c. the composition of ions between EC and IC compartments are balanced in a few minutes
d. the movement of water is promoted by active transport

A

b. the primary task is the originating of isosmosis between EC and IC

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43
Q

When can hypovolaemia develop?

a. its hyperosmotic form develops when burning occurs
b. its isosmotic form develops in hypoadrenocorticalism
c. its isosmotic form develops in diarrhoea
d. in diabetes insipidus none of its forms develop

A

c. its isosmotic form develops in diarrhoea

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44
Q

When can hypovolaemia develop?

a. its hyperosmotic form develops in hemorrhage
b. endocrine dysfunction can not play a role in its development
c. its hyperosmotic form develops in case of decreased evaporation
d. its isosmotic form does not develop in case of changes in salt intake

A

d. its isosmotic form does not develop in case of changes in salt intake

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45
Q

In what kind of form can hypervolaemia develop?

a. its hypoosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction
b. its hyperosmotic form can not develop because of fluid intake
c. its hypoosmotic form is oedema
d. its hyperosmotic form is charasteristic of diabetes insipidus

A

a. its hypoosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction

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46
Q

When can hypervolaemia develop?

a. its isosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction
b. its hypoosmotic form can develop because of exaggerated water uptake as well
c. its hyperosmotic form is oedema
d. its hypoosmotic form is charasteristic of diabetes insipidus

A

b. its hypoosmotic form can develop because of exaggerated water uptake as well

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47
Q

Which statement is charasteristic of the regulating process of the fluid compartments?
a. the movement of substances starts in a few hours after the changes

b. it is more difficult for the organism to tolerate the volume shifts than to tolerate the shifts in isosmolality
c. the balance between the osmolality of EC and IC is a result of the “shift”
d. the development of isovolaemia can last for 1-2 weeks

A

c. the balance between the osmolality of EC and IC is a result of the “shift”

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48
Q

What is charasteristic of “shift”?

a. its result is that isovolaemia will be originated first
b. it can influence the balance of the osmolality of EC and IC only very slowly
c. it does not influence the balance of the osmolality of EC and IC
d. it means the circulation of the osmotically active substance

A

d. it means the circulation of the osmotically active substance

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49
Q

How much is the concentration of urea in the blood plasma?

a. 4-5 mmol/l
b. 3-15 mmol/l
c. 15-30 mmol/l
d. 3-10 mmol/l

A

d. 3-10 mmol/l

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50
Q

How much is the concentration of glucose in mammals (except ruminants)?

a. 4-5 mmol/l
b. 2-3 mmol/l
c. 3-10 mmol/l
d. 4-5 g/l

A

a. 4-5 mmol/l

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51
Q

How much is the concentration of Na-ions in the plasma?

a. 144 mmol/l
b. 150 mmol/l
c. 110 mmol/l
d. 95 mmol/l

A

b. 150 mmol/l

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52
Q

How much is the concentration of Cl-ions in the plasma?

a. 27 mmol/l
b. 150 mmol/l
c. 110 mmol/l
d. 5 mmol/l

A

c. 110 mmol/l

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53
Q

How much is the value of the oncotic pressure?

a. kb. 1,6 kPa
b. 4,3-5,7 kPa
c. 1,2-1,5 kPa
d. 2,7-3,4 kPa

A

d. 2,7-3,4 kPa

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54
Q

How can the proteins get across the wall of the capillary?

a. by transcellular way, with cytosis
b. through the interendothelial channels and with diffusion
c. only through diffusion
d. they can not get through at all

A

a. by transcellular way, with cytosis

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55
Q

Which one is the most important process of material exchange?

a. pino- or exocytosis
b. diffusion
c. transcellular processes
d. receptor mediated uptake

A

b. diffusion

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56
Q

What is HPLC?

a. ionexchange chromatography
b. affinity chromatography
c. a type of liquid chromatography
d. a type of electrophoresis

A

c. a type of liquid chromatography

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57
Q

Which components of blood plasma can be separated by paper-electrophoresis?

a. all proteins of plasma
b. albumin and subclasses of globulins
c. alpha-, beta- and gammaglobulins
d. albumin and fibrinogen

A

d. albumin and fibrinogen

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58
Q

Which formula describes osmotic pressure?

a. P = r x C x R x T
b. P = r x C x T
c. P = C/V
d. P = (C/R) x T

A

a. P = r x C x R x T

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59
Q

What is the reflection coefficient?

a. the ratio of particles passing across the membrane
b. it is the measure of permeability
c. it gives the pressure, which is needed by the particle to cross the membrane
d. it is the concentration of permeable substances

A

b. it is the measure of permeability

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60
Q 
Where are betaglobulins produced?
a. in the epithelium
b. in the liver
c. in the plasma cells
d. in the bone marrow
3
A

c. in the plasma cells

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61
Q

In which cases can hypoproteinaemia develop?

a. during inflammation
b. as a result of genetic defect
c. in case of malignant tumours
d. hunger, disease of kidney

A

d. hunger, disease of kidney

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62
Q

What is paraproteinaemia?

a. appearance of abnormal new proteins in the plasma
b. lack of a protein fraction
c. a change of the ratio of protein fractions
d. the increase of the proportion of one protein fractions

A

a. appearance of abnormal new proteins in the plasma

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63
Q

What does the principle of electroneutrality say?

a. the product of the concentration of diffusible ions is equal on both sides of the membrane
b. the concentration of anions and cations must be the same in each space
c. the pH is equal on both sides of the membrane
d. no chemical reactions occur on either sides of the membrane

A

b. the concentration of anions and cations must be the same in each space

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64
Q

What is true for the volume and osmolarity of the intracellular fluid?

a. high fluctuations can be tolerated
b. the slightest change threatens life
c. small fluctuations can be tolerated
d. it is independent from the EC volume and osmolarity

A

c. small fluctuations can be tolerated

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65
Q

What does “molarity” mean?

a. the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution
b. the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 kg of solution
c. the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 litre of solution
d. the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 kg of solvent

A

a. the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution

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66
Q

What does “molality” express?

a. the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution
b. the amount of the dissolved substance in mol in 1 kg of soluition
c. the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 litre of solution
d. the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 kg of solvent

A

b. the amount of the dissolved substance in mol in 1 kg of soluition

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67
Q

What is the freezing point depression of 1 mol of urea solution?

a. -3.72 ░C
b. the freezing point depression is related to the molar concentration
c. -1.86 ░C
d. only electrolytes can decrease the freezing point depression of water

A

c. -1.86 ░C

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68
Q

What is the freezing point depression of 1 mol of NaCl solution?

a. only electrolytes can decrease the freezing point depression of water
b. the freezing point depression is related to the molar concentration
c. -1.86 ░C
d. -3.72 ░C

A

d. -3.72 ░C

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69
Q

How much is the freezing point depression of blood plasma?

a. -0.56 ░C
b. -1.86 ░C
c. -3.72 ░C
d. -0.3 ░C

A

a. -0.56 ░C

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70
Q

What is the osmolality of blood that can be deduced from its freezing point depression?

a. 150 mosmol/kg
b. 300 mosmol/kg
c. 400 mosmol/kg
d. 30 mosmol/kg

A

b. 300 mosmol/kg

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71
Q

How much is the osmotic pressure of a solution with a concentration of 1 mol/liter ?

a. 2.27 kPa
b. 1.52 MPa
c. 2.27 MPa
d. 5.6 MPa

A

c. 2.27 MPa

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72
Q

What percentage do the ions represent of the total dissolved substances in the body fluids?

a. More than 90%
b. around 50%
c. around 30%
d. there are no free ions in the blood plasma

A

a. More than 90%

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73
Q

What is the protein concentration of blood plasma?

a. 30-40 gram/liter
b. 60-80 gram/liter
c. 15-20 gram/liter
d. 3-5 mmol/liter

A

b. 60-80 gram/liter

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74
Q

How much is the remnant nitrogen concentration in blood plasma?

a. 50-100 mmol/liter
b. 15-20 gram/liter
c. 15-25 mmol/liter
d. 30-35 gram/liter

A

c. 15-25 mmol/liter

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75
Q

Pick the substance which is not considered to be remnant nitrogen!

a. creatine
b. urea
c. amino acids
d. albumin

A

d. albumin

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76
Q

Which one of the below mentioned substances is a remnant nitrogen?

a. creatinine
b. globulin
c. transferrin
d. hemoglobin

A

a. creatinine

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77
Q

Which of the below describes the different protein fractions of the blood properly?

a. 40% albumin, 60% globulin
b. 60% albumin, 40% globulin
c. 90% albumin, 10% globulin
d. 20% albumin, 80% globulin

A

b. 60% albumin, 40% globulin

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78
Q

Which globulin fractions can be separated from blood by electrophoresis?

a. alpha, beta, gamma
b. alpha, beta, gamma, delta
c. alpha1, alpha2, beta, gamma
d. globulin fractions can not be separated further

A

c. alpha1, alpha2, beta, gamma

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79
Q

Give the molecular weight range of the gamma globulin?

a. 50-800 kDa
b. 45-200 kDa
c. 60-70 kDa
d. 150-1000 kDa

A

d. 150-1000 kDa

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80
Q

Give the molecular weight range of the beta globulin?

a. 90-350 kDa
b. 60-70 kDa
c. 45-200 kDa
d. 50-800 kDa

A

a. 90-350 kDa

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81
Q

Which one of the tissue types mentioned below produce albumin?

a. the intestinal epithelium
b. the liver
c. the lymph nodes
d. the thymus

A

b. the liver

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82
Q

Where is the VLDL produced?

a. in the lymph nodes
b. in the liver
c. in the intestinal epithelium
d. in the brain

A

c. in the intestinal epithelium

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83
Q

How much is the effective hydrostatic pressure in the arterial side of the capillary?

a. around 5 kPa
b. around -0.7 kPa
c. around 2.5 kPa
d. around 1.6 kPa

A

d. around 1.6 kPa

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84
Q

How much is the effective filtration pressure in the venous side of the capillary?

a. around -0.7 kPa
b. around 2.5 kPa
c. around 1.6 kPa
d. around 5 kPa

A

a. around -0.7 kPa

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85
Q

How much is the net filtration?

a. around 30-40 ml/min/100 kg body weight
b. around 3-4 ml/min/100 kg body weight
c. around 8-10 ml/min/100 kg body weight
d. around 1-2 ml/min/100 kg body weight

A

b. around 3-4 ml/min/100 kg body weight

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86
Q

How much is the protein content of the interstitial fluid?

a. 60-80 g/l
b. 120-130 g/l
c. 20-30 g/l
d. 10-15 g/l

A

c. 20-30 g/l

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87
Q

How much is the potassium content of the intracellular compartment?

a. 40-60 g/l
b. 20-30 mmol/l
c. 60-80 g/l
d. 95 mmol/l

A

d. 95 mmol/l

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88
Q

How much is the protein content of the intracellular compartment?

a. 40-60 mmol/l
b. 60-80 g/l
c. 20-30 mmol/l
d. 40-60 g/l

A

a. 40-60 mmol/l

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89
Q

How much is the sodium content of the interstitial fluid?

a. 150 mmol/l
b. 144 mmol/l
c. 20-30 mmol/l
d. 10-15 mmol/l

A

b. 144 mmol/l

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90
Q

What is the range for the molarity of the body fluids?

a. mmol/ml
b. Ámol/l
c. mmol/l
d. mmol/100 ml

A

c. mmol/l

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91
Q

In how many percentage do the plasma proteins play a role in the buffering capacity of the blood?

a. 7%
b. 15%
c. 3%
d. 45%

A

a. 7%

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92
Q

What is the percentage of hemoglobin that plays a significant role in the buffering capacity of blood?

a. 7%
b. 35%
c. 15%
d. hemoglobin does not take part in the buffering of blood

A

b. 35%

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93
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

a. serum is free of proteins
b. serum contains fibrinogen
c. plasma contains fibrinogen
d. fibrin can be found in the plasma

A

c. plasma contains fibrinogen

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94
Q

What does hematocrit mean?

a. the number of blood cells in unit volume of blood
b. the volume ratio of red blood cells and the volume of plasma
c. the volume of plasma in relations to the full volume of blood
d. the volume ratio of corpuscular elements in the blood

A

d. the volume ratio of corpuscular elements in the blood

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95
Q

Which species has the quickest blood sedimentation?

a. horse
b. cow
c. pig
d. dog

A

a. horse

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96
Q

Which species has the slowest blood sedimentation?

a. pig
b. cow
c. horse
d. dog

A

b. cow

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97
Q

What is the physiological pH of blood?

a. 7.2-7.55
b. 7.1-7.6
c. 7.35-7.45
d. 7.0-7.3

A

c. 7.35-7.45

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98
Q

In which case does normocytemic hypervolemia happen?

a. In the heat ofsummer
b. As an effect of sympathetic stimulation
c. in the case of obesity
d. after excessive blood transfusion

A

d. after excessive blood transfusion

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99
Q

In which case can you observe oligocytemic hypervolemia?

a. after excessive fluid intake
b. in case of long-lasting obesity
c. in fasting animals
d. in the second part of pregnancy

A

a. after excessive fluid intake

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100
Q

In what case can normocytemic hypovolemia be detected?

a. in case of permanent starving
b. immediately after blood loss
c. in summer heat, after heavy sweating
d. as an the effect of sympathetic stimulation

A

b. immediately after blood loss

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101
Q

In what case can polycytemic hypovolemia be detected?

a. in summer heat
b. in laying position
c. shortage of water, in case of thirst
d. oxygen deficiency

A

c. shortage of water, in case of thirst

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102
Q

In what case can oligocytemic normovolemia be detected?

a. in the first part of gestation
b. after transfusion
c. in case of acute blood loss
d. within a couple of hours following blood loss

A

d. within a couple of hours following blood loss

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103
Q

What method is known for measuring the blood volume?

a. measuring the plasma volume by Evans-blue and then calculating it based on the hematocrit
b. injecting deuterium into the circulation
c. using tricium marked water
d. with isotpically labelled sodium

A

a. measuring the plasma volume by Evans-blue and then calculating it based on the hematocrit

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104
Q

What percentage of the bloods buffer capacity is ensured by bicarbonates?

a. 35%
b. 53%
c. 47%
d. 18%

A

b. 53%

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105
Q

What percent of the blood’s buffer capacity is ensured by non bicarbonate buffers?

a. 53%
b. 35%
c. 47%
d. 5%

A

c. 47%

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106
Q

What is the average value of the hematocrit?

a. 0.62
b. 0.32
c. 0.46
d. 0.4

A

d. 0.4

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107
Q

What is the density of whole blood(g/l)?

a. 1060
b. 1048
c. 1090
d. 1030

A

a. 1060

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108
Q

What’s the value for the blood volume(ml/kg bwt)?

a. 45
b. 80
c. 35
d. 120

A

b. 80

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109
Q

What is the value for the blood cell volume (ml/kg bwt)?

a. 120
b. 45
c. 35
d. 80

A

c. 35

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110
Q

Which formula is used for calulating the blood volume?

a. V = blood6 cell volume x 0.9 hematocrit
b. V = blood cell volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)
c. V = plasma volume / 0.9 hematocrit
d. V = plasma volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)

A

d. V = plasma volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)

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111
Q

The blood volume increases due to the effect of which factor?

a. gestation
b. increase in the amount of body fat
c. cold environment (winter)
d. starving

A

a. gestation

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112
Q

The blood volume decreases due to the effect of which factor?

a. shortage on oxygen
b. standing position
c. decrease in the amount of the body fat
d. warm environment (summer)

What is the definiton of the minimal osmotic resistance?
the NaCl concentration where 10% of the red blood cells hemolyze
the NaCl concentration where hemolysis hasn’t started yet
the NaCl concentration where hemolysis has just started
the NaCl concentration where hemolysis becomes complete
3
24
3
What ensures the red blood cells ability of changing shapes?
red blood cells can change their shape only in a negligible degree
the actin and myosin content of the red blood cell membrane
the elasticity of the red blood cell’s lipid component
the spectrin molecules in the red blood cell membrane
4

A

b. standing position

113
Q

The blood volume decreases due to the effect of which factor?

a. shortage on oxygen
b. standing position
c. decrease in the amount of the body fat
d. warm environment (summer)

A

b. standing position

114
Q

What is the definiton of the minimal osmotic resistance?

a. the NaCl concentration where 10% of the red blood cells hemolyze
b. the NaCl concentration where hemolysis hasn’t started yet
c. the NaCl concentration where hemolysis has just started
d. the NaCl concentration where hemolysis becomes complete

A

c. the NaCl concentration where hemolysis has just started

115
Q

What ensures the red blood cells ability of changing shapes?
a. red blood cells can change their shape only in a negligible degree

b. the actin and myosin content of the red blood cell membrane
c. the elasticity of the red blood cell’s lipid component
d. the spectrin molecules in the red blood cell membrane

A

d. the spectrin molecules in the red blood cell membrane

116
Q

What percent of the total amount of the blood is reticulocyte in a healthy animal?

a. 0.1-0.2 %
b. 1-2 %
c. 5 %
d. 2-3 %

A

a. 0.1-0.2 %

117
Q

What’s the average lifetime of a red blood cell?

a. 60 day
b. 120 day
c. 80 day
d. 30 day

A

b. 120 day

118
Q

What is the MCHC?

a. the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte
b. the volume of the erythrocyte
c. the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte
d. the diameter of the erythrocyt

A

c. the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte

119
Q

What is MCH?

a. the volume of the erythrocyte
b. the diameter of the erythrocyte
c. the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte
d. the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte

A

d. the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte

120
Q

What is MCV?

a. the volume of the erythrocyte
b. the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte
c. the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte
d. the diameter of the erythrocyte

A

a. the volume of the erythrocyte

121
Q

Which chemical effects cause membrane hemolysis?

a. shaking
b. acids, lipid solvents
c. heating
d. freezing, defrosting

A

b. acids, lipid solvents

122
Q

Which physical effects cause membrane hemolysis?

a. detergents
b. solvents
c. shaking
d. spinning in a centrifuge

A

c. shaking

123
Q

What happens to the erythrocyte in a slightly hyposmotic solution?

a. their shape does not change
b. they hemolyze
c. they shrink
d. they become swollen

A

d. they become swollen

124
Q

What happens to the erythrocyte in a hyperosmotic solution?

a. they shrink
b. they become swollen
c. they hemolyze
d. their shape does not change

A

a. they shrink

125
Q

What is meant by the maximal osmotic resistance?

a. hemolysis is just beginning4ns
b. the hemolysis becomes complete
c. 90% of the erythrocytes hemolyze
d. the erythrocytes do not start to hemolyze yet

A

b. the hemolysis becomes complete

126
Q

How much is the molecular weight of a hemoglobin tetramer?

a. 150 000 Da
b. 32 000 Da
c. 65 000 Da
d. 6 800 Da

A

c. 65 000 Da

127
Q

How many subunits are present in one hemoglobin

a. 8
b. 2
c. 6
d. 4

A

d. 4

128
Q

How much is the hemoglobin content of the blood?

a. 80-160 g/l
b. 1.5-2 g/l
c. 80-160 mmol/l
d. 15-30 mmol/l

A

a. 80-160 g/l

129
Q

How many globin molecules form one hemoglobin molecule?

a. 4
b. 1
c. 6
d. 2

A

b. 1

130
Q

How many polypeptide chains does a globin molecule have?

a. 6
b. 1
c. 4
d. 2

A

c. 4

131
Q

What is the composition of an adult globin?

a. 2 beta + 2 gamma chains
b. 2 alpha + 2 gamma chains
c. 1 alpha + 1 beta chain
d. 2 alpha + 2 beta chains

A

d. 2 alpha + 2 beta chains

132
Q

What is the composition of a fetal hemoglobin molecule?

a. 2 alpha + 2 gamma chains
b. 2 alpha +2 beta chains
c. 2 beta + 2 gamma chains
d. 1 alpha + 1 gamma chain

A

a. 2 alpha + 2 gamma chains

133
Q

What is the difference between the fetal and the adult hemoglobin molecule?

a. the adult hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity
b. the fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity
c. the fetal hemoglobin is not present after birth
d. the adult hemoglobin is the only form present after birth

A

b. the fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity

134
Q

How many oxygen molecules can be bound by one hemoglobin at full saturation?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8

A

c. 4

135
Q

How does the hem bind the oxygen?

a. Fe3+ reversible
b. Fe2+ irreversible
c. Fe3+ irreversible
d. Fe2+ reversible

A

d. Fe2+ reversible

136
Q

What percentage of the total blood CO2 is transported as carbamino-HB?

a. 20 %
b. 16 %
c. 5 %
d. 0.003 %

A

a. 20 %

137
Q

What is typical of the hemoglobin binding affinity?
a. the O2 affinity is 200 times higher than the CO-affinity

b. the CO affinity is 22 times higher than the oxygen affinity
c. the CO2 affinity is 200 times higher than the oxygen affinity
d. there is no important differences between the CO and the O2 affinities

A

b. the CO affinity is 22 times higher than the oxygen affinity

138
Q

What is the percentage of total blood buffering capacity belonging to hemoglobin?

a. 50 %
b. 15 %
c. 35 %
d. 5 %

A

c. 35 %

139
Q

What is the basis for the hemoglobin’s buffering character?

a. the deoxygenated Hb is a stronger base than the oxygenated
b. the deoxygenated Hb is a weaker base than the oxygenated
c. the oxygenated Hb is a weaker acid than the deoxygenated
d. the deoxyigenated Hb is a weaker acid than the oxygenated

A

d. the deoxyigenated Hb is a weaker acid than the oxygenated

140
Q

Which organ is the site of erythrocyte degradation?

a. the spleen
b. the venous plexus of the skin
c. the kidney
d. the red bone marrow

A

a. the spleen

141
Q

What percentage of erythrocytes die daily?

a. 0.1 %
b. 1 %
c. 2-3 %
d. 5 %

A

b. 1 %

142
Q

Where does the major processes of hemoglobin degradation occur?

a. in the blood
b. in the kidney
c. in the macrophages
d. in the liver

A

c. in the macrophages

143
Q

Is there any free hemoglobin present in the blood of a healty animal?

a. no
b. yes but only in negligible amounts
c. yes and sometimes it also appears in the urine
d. yes in relatively high concentrations

A

a. no

144
Q

Which part of the hemoglobin molecule recycles?

a. the iron and the hem
b. the iron and the amino acids of the globin
c. the hem and the amino acids of the globin
d. all parts of it do recycle

A

b. the iron and the amino acids of the globin

145
Q

What form of the hem is present in the phagocyte?

a. biliverdin
b. bilirubin-II
c. bilirubin
d. urobilinogen

A

c. bilirubin

146
Q

In what form is the bilirubin found in the blood vessels?

a. there is no bilirubin in the blood vessels in healthy animals
b. in free form
c. in haptoglobin bound form
d. in albumin bound form

A

d. in albumin bound form

147
Q

What happens with the bilirubin in the hepatocytes?

a. it is conjugated with glucoronic acid and with sulphates
b. it is oxidated
c. it is reduced
d. it is secreted to the bile in unchanged form

A

a. it is conjugated with glucoronic acid and with sulphates

148
Q

What is the bilirubin -II?

a. albumine bound bilirubin
b. bilirubin -glucuronid
c. free bilirubin
d. oxidased bilirubin

A

b. bilirubin -glucuronid

149
Q

What is the urobilinogen?

a. the oxidased product of the bilirubin -I
b. the reduced product of the biliverdin
c. the reduced product of the bilirubin -I
d. the oxidased product of the bilirubin-II

A

c. the reduced product of the bilirubin -I

150
Q

Where does the bilirubin-urobilinogen transformation take place?

a. in the gall-bladder
b. in the kidney
c. in the liver
d. in the lumen of the gut

A

d. in the lumen of the gut

151
Q

What happens with the urobilinogen that is reabsorbed from the intestinal tract?

a. it passes to the systemic circulation throughout the vv.haemorrhoidales and is excreted from the kidney
b. through the v.portae it goes to the liver, where it is reduced to bilirubin
c. through the v.portae it goes to the liver, where it is reduced to biliverdin
d. goes to the circulation and is reabsorbed in full measure from the renal tubules

A

a. it passes to the systemic circulation throughout the vv.haemorrhoidales and is excreted from the kidney

152
Q

Where are the red blood cells produced?

a. in the yellow bone marrow
b. in the red bone marrow
c. in the liver
d. in the spleen

A

b. in the red bone marrow

153
Q

Which red blood cell precursor can be found in the blood?

a. proerythroblast
b. normoblast
c. reticulocyte
d. committed progenitor cell

A

c. reticulocyte

154
Q

In which red blood cell does hemoglobin synthesis take place?

a. only in the non dividing normoblasts
b. in the reticulocytes of the bone marrow
c. in the committed progenitor cells
d. in the proerythroblasts and normoblasts

A

d. in the proerythroblasts and normoblasts

155
Q

The expulsion of the nucleus takes place in which red blood cell precursor?

a. in the non dividing normoblasts
b. in the proerythroblasts
c. in the dividing normoblasts
d. in the reticulocytes of the bone marrow

A

a. in the non dividing normoblasts

156
Q

Which are the most important physiological factors that have an influence on erythropoiesis?

a. nutrient-, microelement-, vitamin supply
b. oxygen supply, kidney, age
c. liver function, spleen
d. environmental temperature

A

b. oxygen supply, kidney, age

157
Q

Where is the erythropoietin produced?

a. in the liver
b. in the spleen
c. in the kidney
d. in the red bone marrow

A

c. in the kidney

158
Q

How long do the blood platelets live?

a. 3-5 days
b. 60 days
c. 120 days
d. 5-10 days

A

d. 5-10 days

159
Q

In which species do thrombocytes show phagocyting activity?

a. thrombocytes of the birds
b. thrombocytes of the carnivores
c. thrombocytes of the herbivores
d. none of the above

A

a. thrombocytes of the birds

160
Q

What is typical of the motion of the blood platelets?

a. only the platelets of birds are able to move actively
b. they are unable to move actively
c. they drift passively attached to other blood cells
d. they are able to actively migrate in every species

A

b. they are unable to move actively

161
Q

What species have platelets that contain a nucleus?

a. the herbivores
b. the carnivores
c. the birds
d. none of the above

A

c. the birds

162
Q

How many thrombocytes could be found in the blood per litre?

a. 5-11 x 10^9
b. 2-3 x 10^12
c. 5-15 x 10^11
d. 2-8 x 10^11

A

d. 2-8 x 10^11

163
Q

Platelets derive from which primordial cell line?

a. from megakaryocytes
b. from monoblasts
c. from myeloblasts
d. from normoblasts

A

a. from megakaryocytes

164
Q

What do the alpha-granules of the platelets contain?

a. glycogen granules
b. blood clotting factors
c. hydrolases and catalases
d. peroxidases and prostaglandins

A

b. blood clotting factors

165
Q

What do the dense-granules of platelets contain?

a. peroxidases and prostaglandins
b. acid hydrolases and catalase
c. serotonin taken from plasma
d. blood clotting factors

A

c. serotonin taken from plasma

166
Q

What do the dense-tubules of the platelets contain?

a. catalases and acid hydrolases
b. serotonin
c. blood clotting factors
d. peroxidases and prostaglandins

A

d. peroxidases and prostaglandins

167
Q

What is the role of the actin edge of the platelets?

a. its contraction helps the emptying of the alpha-granules
b. it hinders the shrinking of the clot
c. its high CAM content helps the adhesion
d. ensures active cell motion

A

a. its contraction helps the emptying of the alpha-granules

168
Q

What is the role of the microtubular edge of the platelet?

a. ensures adhesion
b. helps retraction and emptying of blood clotting substances
c. it is the transport system of the granule
d. the granules pass out of the cell along it

A

b. helps retraction and emptying of blood clotting substances

169
Q

Which species has “neutrophilic” blood?

a. the pig
b. cattle
c. the horse
d. the birds

A

c. the horse

170
Q

Which species has “lymphocytic” blood?

a. the cat
b. the dog
c. the horse
d. cattle

A

d. cattle

171
Q

How many leukocytes are in the blood per litre on the average?

a. 5-15 x 109
b. 5-15 millions
c. 7-11 x 1012
d. 5000-15000

A

a. 5-15 x 109

172
Q

Which is the largest leukocyte?

a. lymphocyte
b. monocyte
c. neutrophil granulocyte
d. eosinophil granulocyte

A

b. monocyte

173
Q

What do the granules of neutrophil granulocytes contain?

a. destroyed bacterium particles
b. stored nutritients
c. enzymes (dizmutae, phosphatase etc.)
d. histamine and serotonin

A

c. enzymes (dizmutae, phosphatase etc.)

174
Q

How long does a circulating neutrophil granulocyte live?

a. 6-7 days
b. 3-5 days
c. 2-3 days
d. 6-7 hours

A

d. 6-7 hours

175
Q

What is the lifespan of a neutrophil granulocyte?

a. 2-3 days
b. 6-7 hours
c. 3-5 days
d. 6-8 days

A

a. 2-3 days

176
Q

What is the colour of the granules in a neutrophil granulocyte?

a. red
b. purple-red
c. purple-blue
d. light blue

A

b. purple-red

177
Q

When is the shift of the blood-count to the left?

a. when there are many old neutrophil granulocytes
b. when there are many granulocytes with lobular nuclei
c. when there are many young neutrophil granulocytes
d. when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 3-5 lobes in the nuclei

A

c. when there are many young neutrophil granulocytes

178
Q

When is the shift of the blood-count to the right?
a. when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 3-5 lobated nuclei

b. when there are many Jugend granulocytes
c. when there are many Staab cells
d. when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 5-10 nuclear lobes

A

d. when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 5-10 nuclear lobes

179
Q

What cell elements help the active motion of neutrophil granulocytes?

a. the bean-shaped nucleus of young granulocytes
b. the microtubuli
c. the actin filaments
d. the stick-shaped nucleus of old granulocytes

A

c. the actin filaments

180
Q

What is the clathrin?

a. a protein, which has a role in the motion of cells
b. a protein, which helps in the active migration of the cells
c. a protein which plays a role in exocytosis
d. a complex which take2s part in endocytosis

A

d. a complex which take2s part in endocytosis

181
Q

What is the opsonisation?
a. immunglobulines connected to the antigenes activate the phagocytosis, by connecting to the Fc receptors of eosinophilic granulocytes

b. the antigen-antibody complex activate the complement-system, the antigen-C3b complex stimulate the phagocytosis
c. the phagocyted particles fuse with the granules of the cells during this reaction
d. the number of the granules decrease in the neutrophilic granulocytes during this reaction

A

a. immunglobulines connected to the antigenes activate the phagocytosis, by connecting to the Fc receptors of eosinophilic granulocytes

182
Q

What is immunadherence?

a. inhibition of immune processes
b. complement activated phagocytosis
c. intracellular digestion
d. granule exocytosis

A

b. complement activated phagocytosis

183
Q

What is the main task of eosinophil granulocytes?

a. phagocytosis
b. allergic effect
c. antiallegic effect
d. they produce antigen specific antibodies

A

c. antiallegic effect

184
Q

What is the lifespan of eosinophil granulocytes in the circulation?

a. 2-3 days
b. 6-7 days
c. 3-5 days
d. 3-8 hours

A

d. 3-8 hours

185
Q

What is the lifespan of the eosinophil granulocytes in tissues?

a. 3-5 days
b. 3-8 hours
c. 2-3 days
d. 6-7 hours

A

a. 3-5 days

186
Q

What is the colour of the granules of eosinophil granulocytes?

a. purple-blue
b. reddish
c. purple-red
d. dark purple

A

b. reddish

187
Q

What do the granules of eosinophil granulocytes contain?

a. hyaluronidase, myeloperoxidase
b. histamine and serotonin
c. histaminase and aryl-sulphatase
d. contractile particles

A

c. histaminase and aryl-sulphatase

188
Q

What is the chemotaxis?

a. the passive movement of cells
b. emtying of chemical substances
c. synthesis of peptide signals
d. directed motion towards chemical signal

A

d. directed motion towards chemical signal

189
Q

What is the main task of basophil granulocytes?

a. they are loosening the tissues to support antigen elimination.
b. they phagocytose the antigen
c. they produce enzymes with antiallergetic effect
d. they take up the IgM from the plasma

A

a. they are loosening the tissues to support antigen elimination.

190
Q

What kind of enzymes play a central role in “respiratory burst”?

a. protease, lysosim, nuclease
b. NADH-oxidase, superoxid-dizmutase, myeloperoxidase

c. NADH-reductase, acid and alkaline phosphatase
d. phosphatases, proteases

A

b. NADH-oxidase, superoxid-dizmutase, myeloperoxidase

191
Q

Which is not chemotaxin?

a. histamine
b. tissue debris
c. immunglobulins
d. complement factors

A

c. immunglobulins

192
Q

What is the main task of eosinophil granulocytes?
a. activating the complement system

b. phagocyting the broken fragments of cells
c. activating the materials made by basophil granulocytes
d. inactivation of the metabolites made by basophil granulocytes

A

d. inactivation of the metabolites made by basophil granulocytes

193
Q

What colours are the granules of basophil granulocytes?

a. dark purple
b. red
c. purple-blue
d. purple-red

A

a. dark purple

194
Q

What do the granules of the basophil granulocytes contain?

a. nucleases, phosphatases
b. histamine, heparin, serotonin
c. dismutase, peroxidase
d. hyaluronidase, dismutase, nuclease

A

b. histamine, heparin, serotonin

195
Q

What is the processs of degranulation?
a. the granules of granulocytes fuse with phagocytosed particles

b. the growth of the granules in the granulocytes
c. IgE binding causes the empying of basophil granulocytes
d. the content of the granule of the cell depletes the cytoplasm

A

c. IgE binding causes the empying of basophil granulocytes

196
Q

What causes the degranulation?

a. specific antigens
b. certain factors of the complement system
c. the Fc part of the IgE
d. the IgE - antigen complex

A

d. the IgE - antigen complex

197
Q

What causes the non-specific degranulation?

a. Certain parts of the complement system
b. the specific antigen
c. the Fc part of the IgG molecule
d. the IgE-antigen complex

A

a. Certain parts of the complement system

198
Q 
What is the primary function of the mononuclear macrophages?
a. antiallergic effect
b. antigen presentation
c. antigen elimination
d. anti-body production
2
A

b. antigen presentation

199
Q

What is the characteristics of the phagocytosis of the macrophages?

a. they are not able to take up big particles
b. they phagocytose liquids only
c. they phagocytose not only unfamiliar substances, but the aging, dead cells of the organism too
d. the macrophages are not able to phagocytose

A

c. they phagocytose not only unfamiliar substances, but the aging, dead cells of the organism too

200
Q

Which substance produced by the MPS cell has a role in loosening the tissues?

a. interferon
b. histamine
c. prostaglandin
d. collagenase

A

d. collagenase

201
Q

Which of the following MPS cells encourages the immune response?

a. interleukin-1
b. collagenase
c. serotonin
d. angiotensin convertase

A

a. interleukin-1

202
Q

What effect has interleukin-1 on the marrow?

a. incerases the IL-2 production of the pre-blood cells
b. increases the production of the neutrophil granulocytes
c. acute phase proteins are produced
d. the process of cell-division is inhibited

A

b. increases the production of the neutrophil granulocytes

203
Q

How does interleukin-1 influence the function of the T lymphocyte?

a. IL-2 production is inhibited
b. immune processes are inhibited
c. IL-2 production grows
d. anti-body production increases

A

c. IL-2 production grows

204
Q

What kind of granules can be found in the cytoplasm of lymphocytes?

a. granules that contain immunoglobulin and are painted a purplish colour
b. there are no granules
c. a few basophil granules
d. just a few azurophil granules

A

d. just a few azurophil granules

205
Q

What kind of particles can lymphocytes phagocyte?

a. they do not have phagocytotic activity
b. they can only phagocyte liquid antigens
c. they can only phagocyte small solid parti4cles
d. they can phagocyte both liquid and solid substances

A

a. they do not have phagocytotic activity

206
Q

What is the job of B lymphocytes?

a. they are the main element of the cellular immune response
b. after becoming a plasma cell they produce immuneglobulins
c. they eliminate tumor cells and virus-infected cells
d. they present antigens

A

b. after becoming a plasma cell they produce immuneglobulins

207
Q

What is the role of the T lymphocytes?

a. they produce immuneglobulins
b. they perform phagocytosis
c. they take part in the cellular immune response
d. they inhibit the formation of humoral immune response

A

c. they take part in the cellular immune response

208
Q

In what organ does the formation of blood cell take place?

a. Lymph nodes
b. in the spleen
c. in the liver
d. in the red bone marrow

A

d. in the red bone marrow

209
Q

Which pre-blood cell (progenitor cell) settles down outside the marrow during the fetal period?

a. T progenitor cell
b. B progenitor cell
c. proerythroblast
d. megakaryoblast

A

a. T progenitor cell

210
Q

Who discovered the blood-groups?

a. K. Landsteiner
b. C. Bernard
c. H. Starling
d. W. Einthoven

A

a. K. Landsteiner

211
Q

What are hemagglutinogens?

a. anti-bodies found in the red blood plasma
b. antigens found on the surface of the red blood cells
c. protein molecules found on the surface of blood cells
d. genetically determined antigens appearing in the blood plasma

A

b. antigens found on the surface of the red blood cells

212
Q

What kind of molecules are hemagglutinogens?

a. glucoproteids
b. oligosaccharides
c. glucolipids and glucoproteins
d. proteids

A

c. glucolipids and glucoproteins

213
Q

What hemagglutinogens belong to the same blood-group?

a. chemically very similar antigens
b. they are coded by genes located on the same chromosome
c. they are coded by genes located on gene locuses that are near each other
d. genes that are located on the same gene locus

A

d. genes that are located on the same gene locus

214
Q

What kind of molecules are the agglutinogens of the human AB0 blood-group?

a. glucolipids
b. glucoproteids
c. oligosaccharids
d. proteids

A

a. glucolipids

215
Q

What blood-group forms without the presence of the H antigen?

a. all kinds of blood-groups can appear
b. no blood-group appear
c. 0 blood-group
d. only A or B blood-groups

A

b. no blood-group appear

216
Q

What blood-group antigen is the gene of the N-acetylgalactose transferase enzyme responsible for?

a. B blood-group antigen
b. 0 blood-group antigen
c. A blood-group antigen
d. it is not in connection with blood group antigens

A

c. A blood-group antigen

217
Q

What blood-group antigen is the gene of the galactosil transferase enzyme responsible for?

a. 0 blood-group antigen
b. A blood-group antigen
c. B blood-group antigen
d. it is not in connection with blood group antigens

A

c. B blood-group antigen

218
Q

What are hemagglutinins?

a. antibodies that agglutinate stranger red blood cells
b. antigens found on the surface of red blood cells
c. protein markers found on the surface of red blood cells
d. genetically determined glucoproteid molecules found in the plasma

A

a. antibodies that agglutinate stranger red blood cells

219
Q

What are natural hemagglutinins?
a. antibodies produced against
b.hemagglutinogens, which are always found in the plasma
c. antibodies present without previous immunization
d. antibodies produced after blood transfusion
antibodies that agglutinate the red blood cells of animals belonging to the same species

A

b.hemagglutinogens, which are always found in the plasma

220
Q

What are artificial hemagglutinins?
a. antibodies produced solely against blood-group antigens brought artificially into the organism

b. these kind of antibodies are not formed after blood transfusion
c. antibodies forming just after previous immunization
d. antibodies produced against blood-group antigens of animals belonging to different races

A

c. antibodies forming just after previous immunization

221
Q

What are heteroagglutinins?

a. substances present in the preformed plasma
b. they can be seen in blood plasma after blood transfusion
c. they agglutinate red blood cells of different blood-group antigens of the same race
d. they agglutinate the red blood cells of a different race

A

d. they agglutinate the red blood cells of a different race

222
Q

What are isohemagglutinins?

a. they agglutinate the red blood cells of the same race
b. they agglutinate the red blood cells of different races
c. they are always present in the preformed plasma
d. its presence is characteristic to human AB0 blood-group only

A

a. they agglutinate the red blood cells of the same race

223
Q

What is characteristic of the hemagglutinins of the human ABO blood group system?

a. they are present in the plasma even at birth
b. they develop postnatally
c. their concentration is independent of the age
d. they appear in the plasma after an incompatible transfusion

A

b. they develop postnatally

224
Q

What does biochemical polymorphism mean?

a. structural units with different function but with same chemical structure
b. molecules with similar biochemical function of different species
c. molecules of simular function but different structure
d. a synonym for blood groups

A

c. molecules of simular function but different structure

225
Q

How many human blood group systems are known?

a. 5
b. 2
c. 4
d. 15

A

d. 15

226
Q

To which class of immunglobulins belong the heamagglutinins of the human ABO blood goup?

a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgM and IgG

A

a. IgM

227
Q

What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of “A blood group” contain?

a. anti-A
b. anti-B
c. anti-A and anti-B
d. no antibody

A

b. anti-B

228
Q

What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of “B blood group” contain?

a. anti-B
b. anti-A and anti-B
c. anti-A
d. no antibody

A

c. anti-A

229
Q

What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of “AB blood group” contain?

a. anti-B
b. anti-A and anti-B
c. anti-A
d. no antibody

A

d. no antibody

230
Q

What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of “0 blood group” contain?

a. anti-A and anti-B
b. anti-A
c. anti-B
d. no antibody

A

a. anti-A and anti-B

231
Q

Do the hemagglutinins of the “AB0 blood group” damage the incompatible fetus?

a. yes
b. no,because they are unable to get to the placenta
c. yes, but only after the second pregnancy
d. generally not,but occasionally it may happen

A

b. no,because they are unable to get to the placenta

232
Q

What happens with the RBCs of the donor in case of an incompatible transfusion?

a. red blood cells agglutinate
b. red blood cells hemolyze
c. red blood cells agglutinate,then hemolyze
d. it depends of the amount of RBCs transfused

A

c. red blood cells agglutinate,then hemolyze

233
Q

What is characteristic of the human Rh blood type system?

a. hemagglutinins appear in elderly persons
b. codominant inheritance
c. natural antibody can be found in the plasma
d. no preformed antibody can be found

A

d. no preformed antibody can be found

234
Q

The anti-Rh antibody belongs to which class of immunglobulins?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgM ad IgG

A

a. IgG

235
Q

In which case does Rh incompatibility emerge?

a. father Rh- / mother Rh+ / fetus Rh+
b. father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh+
c. father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh-
d. father Rh- / mother Rh+ / fetus Rh-

A

b. father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh+

236
Q

Is the fetus damaged in case of Rh incompatibility?

a. yes,during the first pregnancy
b. yes,but only at third or fourth pregnancy
c. yes,at second pregnancy and later
d. no, because antibodies are unable to get through the placenta

A

c. yes,at second pregnancy and later

237
Q

What happens the in case of Rh+ blood transfusion to a Rh- person?

a. a harmful reaction
b. in the first mistaken transfusion, the transfusion-sickness appears only in mild form
c. red blood cell agglutination,then hemolyzation
d. hemolyzis is experienced only after the second transfusion

A

d. hemolyzis is experienced only after the second transfusion

238
Q

What procedure can be used for animal blood typing?

a. immunization, and systematic saturation
b. immunization, then separation of the required antibody
c. antibody separation from the plasma of known blood-group
d. synthesis of the required antibody

A

a. immunization, and systematic saturation

239
Q

Which species has the largest number of blood group systems?

a. cattle
b. the pig
c. the dog
d. the horse

A

b. the pig

240
Q

What is a freemartin?

a. the infertile male of a set of twins of different genders
b. a fetal defect, mainly in horses
c. infertile female of a set of twins of different genders
d. twins who have the same blood type

A

c. infertile female of a set of twins of different genders

241
Q

What is a chimer?
a. the infertile male of a set of twins of different genders

b. fetal defect, mainly in horses

c. infertility caused by hormones
d. both of the twins have the same blood groups because the hemopoietic primordial cells migrate

A

d. both of the twins have the same blood groups because the hemopoietic primordial cells migrate

242
Q

Which species can be a blood donor to another species in the case of emergency ?

a. cat to dog
b. dog to cat
c. horse to pig
d. horse to cattle

A

b. dog to cat

243
Q

Which animal species may display mother/newborn incompatibility?

a. dog
b. sheep
c. horse and pig
d. cattle

A

c. horse and pig

244
Q

How can you treat the mother/newborn incompatibility?

a. the colostrum is given only 24 hours after birth
b. an immediate exchange transfusion is required in the newbornpage
c. milk should be given instead of colostrum
d. the newborn should be nursed by another mother in the first 72 hours

A

d. the newborn should be nursed by another mother in the first 72 hours

245
Q

What is the correct order of the major steps of the hemostasis?

a. vessel reaction, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting
b. thrombocyte reaction, vessel reaction, blood clotting
c. fibrinolysis, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting
d. thrombocyte reaction, fibrinolysis, blood clotting

A

a. vessel reaction, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting

246
Q

What are the causes of the hemophilia?

a. the increase of clot formation
b. the decrease of clot formation
c. the increase of clot removing intensity
d. the decrease of clot removing intensity

A

b. the decrease of clot formation

247
Q

What can cause thrombosis?
a. decrease of local clot formation

b. increase of the intesity of clot-removing processes
c. increase of clot-forming processes or decrease of clot-removing processes
d. increase of clot-forming processes or increase of the intensity of clot-removing processes

A

c. increase of clot-forming processes or decrease of clot-removing processes

248
Q

What is characteristic of the blood-vessel-reaction in hemostasis?

a. it lasts only a few hours
b. it is not a reflex process
c. it is a result of smooth-muscle hyperpolarisation
d. thromboxane-A2 has a role in the process

A

d. thromboxane-A2 has a role in the process

249
Q

What is true for thromboxane-A2?

a. it is an eicosanoid
b. it is a product of erythrocytes
c. it has no role in the blood-vessel-reaction
d. it causes blood-vessel-reaction by itself

A

a. it is an eicosanoid

250
Q

What are the characteristics of the thrombocyte-reaction?

a. as a result of it, red thrombus forms
b. the collagen fibers of the injured blood-vessels have a role in this process
c. red blood cells adhere to the wound
d. the thrombocytic cAMP production begins

A

b. the collagen fibers of the injured blood-vessels have a role in this process

251
Q

Which of the following statements is true for blood-clotting?

a. its final product is prothrombin
b. its extrinsic way is started by the appearance of collagen fibers
c. it is due to a proteolytic cascade-reaction
d. its intrinsic way is started by the elastic fibers of vessels

A

c. it is due to a proteolytic cascade-reaction

252
Q

What is true for fibrin?

a. it is the precursor of fibrinogen
b. the loose form of it develops from its stable form
c. it stimulates the prothrombine activating complex
d. the factor XIII has an important role in stabilizing it

A

d. the factor XIII has an important role in stabilizing it

253
Q

On what processes does thrombin have an effect on?

a. proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
b. it inactivates factors No. I. and XIII.
c. it is the antihemophilic factor IX
d. it stimulates blood-clotting via protein C

A

a. proaccerelin-accerelin transformation

254
Q

What is the characterisctic of thrombin?

a. it is an albumin fraction
b. it has effects on both fibrinogen and fibrin
c. it inhibits plasminogen
d. it prevents blood-clotting

A

b. it has effects on both fibrinogen and fibrin

255
Q

What is true for the extrinsic way of blood-clotting?

a. it can be prevented by thromboplastin
b. it joins with the intrinsic way when convertin is activated
c. factor III. has a direct and an indirect effect on factor No.X.
d. it is regulated by the proconvertin feed-back

A

c. factor III. has a direct and an indirect effect on factor No.X.

256
Q

What is true for thromboplastin?

a. it activates the Christmas-factor
b. being released from wounded tissues, it activates thrombokinase
c. it is another name for the Stuart-Prower factor
d. it activates factor No.X.

A

d. it activates factor No.X

257
Q

Which of the following statements is true for the intrinsic way of blood-clotting?

a. the Hageman-factor can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent during the process
b. it starts because the positive charge of the collagen fibers of the vein wall are exposed
c. it begins with the activation of factor X
d. Hageman-factor is stimulated by the Christmas-factor in this process

A

a. the Hageman-factor can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent during the process

258
Q

Which statement is true for the Christmas-factor?

a. it is a transmitter
b. it has an important role in actiavting the Stuart-Prower factor
c. it has an important role in the extrinsic way of blood-clotting
d. it can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent

A

b. it has an important role in actiavting the Stuart-Prower factor

259
Q

Which statement is true for fibrinolysis?

a. macrophages loosen the blood clot from outside
b. plasminogen is the active enzyme of this process
c. blood flow sweeps away parts of the blood clot
d. it starts a few weeks after the blood-cotting

A

c. blood flow sweeps away parts of the blood clot

260
Q

What is plasmin?

a. a structural protein typical of the red blood cells
b. a small molecular weight substance
c. a lipid cleaving enzyme
d. an efficient protease

A

d. an efficient protease

261
Q 
Which statement is true for thrombolysis?
a. thrombin activates the plasminogen
b. plasmin acts in an uncontrolled way
Ca2+ ions trigger it
c. the dissolving of the white and red 
d. thrombus is separated in time
A

a. thrombin activates the plasminogen

262
Q

What is the characterisic of viamin K?

a. it is a water soluble vitamin
b. its role in blood-clotting is explained by its coenzyme function
c. its lack does not causes clot-forming deficiency
d. it can phosphorilate blood-clotting factors

A

b. its role in blood-clotting is explained by its coenzyme function

263
Q

Which statement is true for vitamin K?

a. agonists can prevent the coemzyme function of it
b. its oxidated form is the coenzyme of the carboxylation of the glutamin
c. clot-forming problems preventing its function can be caused by melilotus and warfarin
d. its main role in blood-clotting is producing the vessel reaction

A

c. clot-forming problems preventing its function can be caused by melilotus and warfarin

264
Q

What is the primary step in the thrombocyte reaction?

a. the von Willebrand factor is inhibited
b. the PGI2 and NO production stops
c. the thrombocytes produce blood-clotting factors
d. the thrombocyte sticks to the collagen fibers exposed

A

d. the thrombocyte sticks to the collagen fibers exposed

265
Q

Which process is concerned with the self-strengthening functions of thrombin?

a. proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
b. fibrinogen-fibrin transformation
c. the stabilization of the loose fibrin net
d. the activation of protein C and plasminogen

A

a. proaccerelin-accerelin transformation

266
Q

Which process ensures the self-inhibiting function of the thrombin?

a. the thrombocyte aggregation and adhesion
b. protein C and plasminogen activation
c. the increase of proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
d. stabilisation of the loose fibrin net

A

b. protein C and plasminogen activation

267
Q

What is the basic function of the thrombin?

a. activation of the proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
b. helping the thrombocyte aggregation and adhesion
c. fibrinogen-fibrin transformation, fibrin stabilization
d. protein C and plasminogen activation

A

c. fibrinogen-fibrin transformation, fibrin stabilization

268
Q

What activates blood-clotting factor No. XII.?

a. Ca2+ ions
b. blood-clotting factor No. XIa.
c. blood-clotting factor No. XIIIa.
d. the injury of the vessel endothel, kininogen, kallikrein

A

d. the injury of the vessel endothel, kininogen, kallikrein

269
Q

Which substances belong to the “activator complex” helping factor No.X.?

a. IXa, Ca2+, VIIIC, TF3
b. XIa, Ixa, Ca2+
c. VIIIC, TF3, Xia
d. XIIa, Xia, Ca2+, TF3

A

a. IXa, Ca2+, VIIIC, TF3

270
Q

Which enzyme dissolves the fibrin net of the bood clot?

a. thrombin
b. plasmin
c. collagenase
d. trypsin

A

b. plasmin

271
Q

Which plasma protein is activated by thrombin in the process of anticoagulation?

a. plasmin
b. antiplasmin
c. protein C
d. plasminogen

A

c. protein C

272
Q

Which enzyme is activated by the thrombin in the process of fibrinolysis?

a. protein C
b. antiplasmin
c. plasmin
d. plasminogen

A

d. plasminogen

273
Q

After blood loss ceases what kind of processes follow?

a. Vascular reaction decrease, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls
b. Vascular reaction, coagulation cascade inactivation, reparation of vessel walls
c. Transmission of white or red thrombus, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls
d. Thrombocyte reaction, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis

A

a. Vascular reaction decrease, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls

274
Q

Where can be the enzymes responsible for coagulation found?

a. In the thrombocytes
b. In the blood plasma and the thrombocytes
c. In the blood plasma
d. In the endothel cells

A

b. In the blood plasma and the thrombocytes

275
Q

Which coagulation factor is first common one for the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway?

a. factor III
b. factor VII
c. factor X
d. factor IV

A

c. factor X

276
Q

Which is the most important enzyme of the coagulation?

a. fibrin-stabilizing factor
b. accerelin
c. Stuart-Prower factor
d. thrombin

A

d. thrombin

277
Q

Which coagulation factor is responsible for the balance of coagulation-anticoagulation mechanisms?

a. thrombin
b. factor IV
c. fibrinogen
d. factor XIII

A

a. thrombin

278
Q

Which coagulation factors initiate the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?

a. IV., X.
b. III., VII., XII.
c. IX., XI.
d. X., VIII., IV.

A

b. III., VII., XII.

279
Q

Which factor fixes and activates the enzymes of the cascade?

a. X.
b. V.
c. IV.
d. II.

A

c. IV.

Physiology 1 (42 decks)

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