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Physiology 1 > MPQ- MIDTERM 8 > Flashcards

MPQ- MIDTERM 8 Flashcards

1
Q

The resting membrane potential is a value between??

A

-50 mV and -100mV

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2
Q

What is characteristic of the function of ventral posteromedial (VPM) thalamic nuclei?
A. They belong to the so-called bypass nuclei
B. The trigeminal nerve is the most important afferent of them
C. Afferent informations come from the spinothalamic tract
D. there is no somatotopic localization in them

A

B. The trigeminal nerve is the most important afferent of them

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3
Q

What is characteristic of the bypass nuclei of the thalamus?
A. afferent informations come from the spinothalamic tract
B. the trigeminal nerve is the most important afferent of them
C. none of the axons of its neurons leave the thalamus
D. their other name is “relay nuclei”

A

C. none of the axons of its neurons leave the thalamus

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4
Q

Which is true for the cortical sensory areas?
A. The secondary sensory area can be found in the postcentral gyrus
B. by removal the localization of the pain does not change
C. the main function of them is to establish the emotional aspects of pain
D. the postcentral gyrus is the main center of the tactile, mechanical and thermal sensation as the primary sensory area

A

D. the postcentral gyrus is the main center of the tactile, mechanical and thermal sensation as the primary sensory area

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5
Q

Which is true for the “columnar module” ?
A. each of them contains about 2500 cells of which 5% are pyramidal cells
B. pyramidal cells are the main afferent cells of it
C. Martinotti cells are the main efferent cells of it
D. Cajal`s cells belong to the efferent group of the column

A

A. each of them contains about 2500 cells of which 5% are pyramidal cells

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6
Q

Knowing the somatotopic localization of the cortex, which is true for the postcentral gyrus of different species?
A. in the dog 60% of the sensory area represents the lip
B. in the rabbit 60% of the sensory area represents the lip
C. in the monkey 30% of the sensory area represents the anterior limb
D. in the rabbit 90% of the sensory area represents the periocular

A

B. in the rabbit 60% of the sensory area represents the lip

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7
Q

Which area initiates the movements in the brain ?
A. the praecentral motor cortex
B. the area of the basal ganglia
C. limbic, orbitofrontal or hypothalamical area
D. association cortex

A

C. limbic, orbitofrontal or hypothalamical area

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8
Q

Which area is the main motility planning area in the brain ?
A. the praecentral motor cortex
B. the area of the basal ganglia
C. the limbic, orbitofrontal or hypothalamical area
D. the association and motor cortex

A

D. the association and motor cortex

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9
Q 
Which area is responsible for the execution of movements in the brain ?
A. the preacentral cortex
B. the area of the basal ganglia
C. the postcentral cortex
D. the association and motor cortex
A

A. the preacentral cortex

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10
Q 
Which of the followings belongs to the so-called Sherrington`s "final common pathway" of the motor systems?
A. to the upper motor system ( UMS )
B. to the lower motor system ( LMS)
C. to the motor planning system
D. to the brain stem motor center
A

B. to the lower motor system ( LMS)

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11
Q 
What is true for the macula of the of vestibular apparatus?
A. it senses the rotational acceleration
B. it records dynamical changes
C. it mediates static informations
D. it can be found in the ampullas
A

C. it mediates static informations

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12
Q

What happens if the sterocilia move toward the kinocilium in the vestibular apparatus?
A. the membrane of the receptors hyperpolarize
B. the mean discharge frequency does not change significantly in the vestibular nerve
C. the mean discharge frequency decreases in the vestibular nerve
D. potassium influx and consequent depolarization

A

D. potassium influx and consequent depolarization

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13
Q

What is true for the vestibular tract?
A. centripetal fibers go to the lateral (Deiters) nucleus of the vestibular ganglion from the ganglion Scarpae
B. efferent fibers go to the sacculus from the nucleus Deiters
C. fibers go to the oculomotor nuclei from the vestibular nuclei without switching over
D. no direct fibers go to the cerebellum from the nucleus Deiters

A

A. centripetal fibers go to the lateral (Deiters) nucleus of the vestibular ganglion from the ganglion Scarpae

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14
Q

Which transection leads to decebrate rigidity?
A. below vestibular ganglia
B. between nucleus ruber and nucleus Deiters
C. under the nucleus of the phrenical nerve
D. over the ruber nucleus

A

B. between nucleus ruber and nucleus Deiters

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15
Q

What is the function of the statocinetic reflexes?
A. anti gravitational support
B. connecting eye and neck muscles
C. they responsible for postural refexes evoked by kinetic stimuli
D. they responsible for the support of body mass centre in place

A

C. they responsible for postural refexes evoked by kinetic stimuli

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16
Q 
Which postural reflex is initiated during dropping a cat turned upside down?
A. tonic reflex
B. statocinetic reflex
C. stepping out reflex
D. erecting reflex
A

D. erecting reflex

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17
Q

In which order are the centers of the motor cortex acivated?
A. supplementer cortex, premotor cortex, primary motor cortex
B. supplementer cortex is the last in order
C. primary motor cortex is the first in order
D. the premotor cortex is the last in order

A

A. supplementer cortex, premotor cortex, primary motor cortex

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18
Q

What is the function Brodman 8 area of the motor cortex ?
A. this is the primary motor center
B. as a “stare”-center directs the eye movements in concert with body movements
C. this is the secondary motor center
D. as a supplementer cortex initiates movements

A

B. as a “stare”-center directs the eye movements in concert with body movements

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19
Q

What happens at the unilateral transection of the pyramidal tract in primates?
A. voluntary movements are ceased
B. decebration rigidity takes place
C. flaccid paralysis of muscles on the other side
D. fine movements are undamaged

A

C. flaccid paralysis of muscles on the other side

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20
Q 
What percentage of the pyramidal tract is crossed over in the pyramidum?
A. about one third of it
B. 100%
C. about half of it
D. 80%
A

D. 80%

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21
Q

Which of the following functions do not belong to the basal ganglia related to the direction of movements?
A. sends direct efferentation to the alpha-motoneurons of the spinal cord
B. movements are initiated here
C. influences the extent of thalamocortical activity
D. gives emotional afferentation for the regulation of movements

A

A. sends direct efferentation to the alpha-motoneurons of the spinal cord

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22
Q

Which symptom takes place in Parkinson disease?
A. thalamocortical activity decreases
B. dopamin production is ceased in the substantia nigra
C. pallidum activity decreases
D. the brain stem is under increased inhibition

A

B. dopamin production is ceased in the substantia nigra

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A. vestibulocerebellum is phylogenetically the newest part of the cerebellum
B. the efferent function of spinocerebellum is realized by the Fastigial nucleus
C. the efferent function of spinocerebellum is realized by the dentate nucleus
D. cerebrocerebellum gets information from the motor cortex by the thalamus

A

C. the efferent function of spinocerebellum is realized by the dentate nucleus

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24
Q

What is true for the cerebellar module ?
A. afferentation reaches the module bypassing the cerebellar nuclei
B. mossy fibers reach directly the Purkinje cells from the olive
C.climbing fibers synaptize on the granular cells
D. it has three inhibitory neuron: Pukinje cells,stellar cells and basket cells

A

D. it has three inhibitory neuron: Pukinje cells,stellar cells and basket cells

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25
Q

What is characteristic of the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum?
A. they inhibit the efferent nuclei of the cerebellum
B. they faciltate the efferent nuclei of the cerebellum
C. their activity decrease by increasing the activity of granular cells
D. their neurotransmitter is glutamate

A

A. they inhibit the efferent nuclei of the cerebellum

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26
Q

What does dys-diacho-kinesis mean?
A. flaccid, paralysed state
B. Incoordination of fast, alternating movements because of an injury of the cerebellum
C. placing reflex of the limbs is diminished
D. impaired distance estimation during movements because of removal of cerebellum

A

B. Incoordination of fast, alternating movements because of an injury of the cerebellum

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27
Q

What is the reason of after-hyperpolarization?
A. influx of sodium ions
B. calcium influx into the cell
C. slight chlorid ion outflow occurs
D. voltage-dependent potassium channels close too slowly

A

D. voltage-dependent potassium channels close too slowly

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28
Q

Which statement is true for the propagation of action potential?
A. TTX-sensitive sodium channels can only be found at the nodes of Ranvier along the myelinated fibre
B. between the nodes the resistence is low
C. between the nodes the capacity is very high
D. in the nodes of Ranvier the response propagates with a decrement

A

A. TTX-sensitive sodium channels can only be found at the nodes of Ranvier along the myelinated fibre

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29
Q 
What is the internationally accepted term for unmyelinated, naked nerve fibers?
A. Erlanger-Gasser type Alpha Group
B. Lloyd-Hunt Type Group IV
C. Erlanger-Gasser Type Agamma Group
D. Lloyd-Hunt Type Group I.
A

B. Lloyd-Hunt Type Group IV

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30
Q

Which statement is characteristic of the electric synapses consisting of gap junctions?
A. they consist of three connexin peptides
B. they are characterized by slow conduction
C. they conduct in both directions, sometimes they rectify
D. they made up of six pairs of connexin peptides

A

C. they conduct in both directions, sometimes they rectify

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31
Q

Which is not true for the metabotropic mechanism?
A. it generates a slow, long lasting response
B. in most of the cases it causes a long lasting alteration of calcium conductance
C. A typical example of it is the intracelular cAMP-reducing effect of norepinephrine
D. fast response, generated by IPSP or EPSP

A

D. fast response, generated by IPSP or EPSP

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32
Q

Which is the correct classification of the receptor of hearing?
A. according to the type of its receptor cells the organ of hearing contains secondary receptors
B. the organ of hearing is a primary sensory organ
C. the organ of hearing is a tertiary sensory organ
D. according to the degree of adaptation the organ of hearing contains fast adapting receptors

A

A. according to the type of its receptor cells the organ of hearing contains secondary receptors

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33
Q

Which of the following receptors have free nerve endings?
A. the pacinian corpuscle
B. the pain- and temperature sensing exteroceptors
C. the Krause corpuscle
D. the Merkel cell ending

A

B. the pain- and temperature sensing exteroceptors

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34
Q

What happens in the receptor during “transduction”?
A. the external sitmulus opens voltage-dependent sodium channels
B. the external stimulus generates an action potential
C. the external stimulus creates a generator potential
D. a frequency coded electric signal is generated

A

C. the external stimulus creates a generator potential

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35
Q 
How many major parts does the voltage-dependent sodium channel consist of?
A. 7 transmembrane components
B. 3 peptide chains
C. 9 subunits
D. 5 transmembrane components
A

D. 5 transmembrane components

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36
Q

Which statement is true for the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor?
A. the skeletal muscle type receptor consists of 2 alpha, 2 beta and 1 delta units
B. the neural type receptor is particularly sensitive to the curare
C. the neural type receptor contains three alpha subunits
D. its agonist is the isoproterenol

A

A. the skeletal muscle type receptor consists of 2 alpha, 2 beta and 1 delta units

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37
Q

Which statement is true for the glutamate receptor?
A. it is activated only by high frequency presynaptic AP
B. it has three subtypes: NMDA, AMPA and kainate
C. it primarily can be found on the postsynaptic membranes of the peripheral nervous system
D. its opening causes selective sodium influx

A

B. it has three subtypes: NMDA, AMPA and kainate

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38
Q 
Which of the following receptors belongs to the group stimulating the opening of the G-protein coupled cation channel?
A. adrenerg beta2 receptor
B. AMPA receptor
C. dopamine-D2 receptor
D. nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
A

C. dopamine-D2 receptor

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39
Q

What is characteristic of the so-called energy sensor receptor?
A. when it is activated, potassium leaves the cell
B. it is opened, closed or inactivated by neurotransmitters
C. its operation is G-protein dependent
D. its specific activator is the increse of the intracellular ATP level

A

D. its specific activator is the increse of the intracellular ATP level

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40
Q

What is characteristic of the so-called ryanodine sensitive calcium channel?
A. it is located on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. it acts as a voltage sensor
C. it carries calcium from the cytoplasm to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. it opens upon electric stimulus

A

A. it is located on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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41
Q

What is characteristic of the so-called DHP (dihydropyridine) sensitive calcium channel of the skeletal muscle?
A. it is located on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. it activates the ryanodine sensitive calcium channel as a voltage sensor
C. it carries calcium from the cytoplasm to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. it opens upon chemical stimulus

A

B. it activates the ryanodine sensitive calcium channel as a voltage sensor

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42
Q 
Which substance opens the ligand dependent intracellular calcium channel?
A. DAG
B. aldosterone
C. IP3
D. thyroxines
A

C. IP3

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43
Q

What is the cause of the summation?
A. inactivation of voltage dependent cation channels
B. summation of the electric effects of the stimulus
C. outflow of anions from the cell due to repeated stimuli
D. presence of a relatively slow cation-removing system

A

D. presence of a relatively slow cation-removing system

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44
Q

Which is the proper definition for chronaxia?
A. chronaxia is the time period necessary for generating an AP in the case of stimulation with the double of the rheobasis
B. chronaxia is the extent of the stimulus twice as large as the treshold stimulus
C. chronaxia means the time period necessary for achieving the firing level in the case of maximal stimulation
D. the measure for chronaxia is mV or V

A

A. chronaxia is the time period necessary for generating an AP in the case of stimulation with the double of the rheobasis

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45
Q 
How many major components compose the classical spinal cord refelex?
A. afferent and efferent parts
B. 5 major components
C. receptor, center and effector parts
D. central and peripheral pathways
A

B. 5 major components

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46
Q

What is the proper definition for the disinhibition occurring in the neural networks?
A. stimulation of the neurons generating EPSP
B. inhibition of the facilitating neurons
C. inhibition of the neurons generating IPSP
D. facilitation of the reverberation cycle

A

C. inhibition of the neurons generating IPSP

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47
Q 
occurs on the postsynaptic membrane in case of monosynaptic inhibition?
A. EPSP
B. Increased AP discharge
C. MEPP
D. IPSP
A

D. IPSP

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48
Q

What is characteristic of the movement patterns of the spinal cord?
A. stereotypia
B. they cover one segment
C. they are not repetitive
D. they ceased immediately after the stimulation

A

A. stereotypia

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49
Q

Which is characteristic of the myotatic reflex?
A. it is composed of a polysynaptic reflex arc
B. it is composed of a monosynaptic reflex arc
C. the response lasts long after the stimulation
D. this reflex is “fatigable”

A

B. it is composed of a monosynaptic reflex arc

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50
Q

What is characteristic of the exteroceptive reflex?
A. monosynaptic reflex arc
B. it is not fatigable
C. it is composed of a widespread polysynaptic network
D. it does not evoke contralateral responses

A

C. it is composed of a widespread polysynaptic network

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51
Q 
Which of the following reflexes - also used in the clinical practice - is proprioceptive?
A. scrotum reflex
B. patelar reflex
C. whither reflex
D. plantar reflex
A

D. plantar reflex

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52
Q 
Which of the followings is an exteroceptive reflex also used in the clinical practice?
A. withers reflex
B. patella reflex
C. frontal carpus reflex
D. the dorsal reflex bellow hock
A

A. withers reflex

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53
Q

Which definition describes most appropriately the Babinski reflex?
A. this reflex is a typical proprioceptive reflex
B. dorsal flexion of the toe is characteristic of this reflex because of the deficiency of cortical control
C. the reflex is a normal flexor reflex
D. pathological response, which takes place while evoking patella reflex

A

B. dorsal flexion of the toe is characteristic of this reflex because of the deficiency of cortical control

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54
Q

Which of the following factors is the most important according to the up-to-date explanation of inverse myotatic reflex?
A. the Golgi’s tendon receptors
B. the cortical modulation
C. the deep type III receptors during active physical work of the muscle
D. the sudden passive tension of the muscle

A

C. the deep type III receptors during active physical work of the muscle

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55
Q

Which statement is true for the “extensor-thrust” phenomenon?
A. It is a typical exteroceptive reflex
B. the flexion of the interosseal muscles is characeteristic of it
C. it plays an important role in defense
D. its role is to ensure the support during executing a step

A

D. its role is to ensure the support during executing a step

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56
Q

What is the role of the Renshaw cells in the spinal chord in the course of myotatic reflex?
A. inhibitory cells blunting the strong afferent effects
B. they facilitate the function of the gamma loop
C. they inhibit the motor neurones of contralateral flexors
D. they transmit the effects of the vestibulospinal pathways

A

A. inhibitory cells blunting the strong afferent effects

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57
Q 
What kind of fibers conduct the action potential from the Golgi's tendon receptors?
A. type Ia
B. type Ib
C. type II
D. type C unmyelinated fibers
A

B. type Ib

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58
Q

Which statement is true for the pathway of fine tactile sensation of the skin (Goll - Burdach)?
A. the first switching over takes place in the thalamus
B. it is constituted of four neurons
C. the first switching over takes place in the medulla oblongata
D. the first neuron is typically bipolar

A

C. the first switching over takes place in the medulla oblongata

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59
Q

Which statement is true for the dorsal spinocerebellar tract?
A. the first switching over takes place in the thalamus
B. it is identical with the Gowers’ pathway
C. the pathway bypasses the Clarke nucleus
D. its third neuron is in cerebellum

A

D. its third neuron is in cerebellum

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60
Q

Which statement is true for the lateral spinothalamic tract?
A. its second neuron is in the substantia gelatinosa Rolandi
B. It conducts unconscious informations
C. the axon of the third neuron does not leave the thalamus
D. it bypasses the Lissauer bundle

A

A.its second neuron is in the substantia gelatinosa Rolandi

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61
Q 
Which of the following pathway is not efferent?
A. tectospinal tract
B. Flechsig's pathway
C. the reticulospinal tract
D. the rubrospinal tract
A

B. Flechsig’s pathway

62
Q 
Which of the following spinal cord pathways is the most important motor pathway in
A. the tectospinal tract
B. the Gowers's tract
C. the rubrospinal tract
D. the vestibulospinal tract
A

C. the rubrospinal tract

63
Q 
Which of the following phenomenona is not part of the immediate consequence of spinal transection?
A. areflexia
B. hypotonia
C. poikylothermia
D. active incontinence
A

D. active incontinence

64
Q 
How are the zones of the skin called that belong to certain splanchnic areas?
A. Head zones
B. dermatomes
C. intersegmental zones
D. splanchnic zones
A

A. Head zones

65
Q

Which of the following phenomenona is not the result of decortication?
A. the inability for independent food intake
B. cessation of reaction to pain
C. the inability for recognition of the owner
D. cessation of emotions like happiness and fear

A

B. cessation of reaction to pain

66
Q

Which of the following manipulations provides information about a very small brain area on living animal?
A. computer tomography
B. electroencephalography
C. examination using stereotaxic apparatus
D. nucleomagnetic resonanse examination

A

C. examination using stereotaxic apparatus

67
Q

Which of the following statements is true for electroencephalography?
A. it applies X-rays for mapping the brain
B. it measures the action potencials of brain activity
C. It measures the activity of dendrites running paralell with the skull
D. It measures the postsynaptic activity of dendrites running perpendicular to the skull

A

D. It measures the postsynaptic activity of dendrites running perpendicular to the skull

68
Q

What is characteristic of the alpha waves of the EEG?
A. it can be recorded in a conscious resting state, as an 50 mV amplitude potential oscillation
B. it can be recorded in sleeping, resting state
C. it is a significantly desynchronized waveform recordable in conscious state
D. it is exhibited in the REM phase of sleeping

A

A. it can be recorded in a conscious resting state, as an 50 mV amplitude potential oscillation

69
Q

Which of the following features is the most typical of computer thomography (CT)?
A. it gives the highest resolution, nearly anatomical precision image of the brain
B. its resolution is not so high as of NMR
C. the velocity of metabolic processes in the brain can be demostrated by this method
Dthe amount of blood flow of the brain is measurable by this method

A

B. its resolution is not so high as of NMR

70
Q

Which of the following features is the most typical of positron emission tomography (PET)?
A. it creates images of the brain with the help of X-rays
B. its resolution is higher than images based on NMR
C. the velocity of metabolic processes in the brain can be demostrated by this method
D. the electronic activity of the brain can be measured by this method

A

C. the velocity of metabolic processes in the brain can be demostrated by this method

71
Q

Which of the following features is the most typical of nuclear magnetic resonance (MRI or NMR) examination?
A. it creates images of the brain with the help of X-rays
B. it reveals hormone-receptor interactions in the brain
C. the velocity of metabolic processes in the brain can be demostrated by this method
D. its resolution is the highest among the in vivo brain imaging methods therefore it gives the most exact “living-anatomy” image about the brain

A

D. its resolution is the highest among the in vivo brain imaging methods therefore it gives the most exact “living-anatomy” image about the brain

72
Q 
Which of the following functions does not belong to the functions of the reticular formation?
A. control of emotions
B. regulation of sleep-wake cycle
C. vegetative coordination
D. control of posture
A

A. control of emotions

73
Q

Which statement is true for sleeping?
A. sleeping is a passive resting process
B. the serotonin production of raphe nuclei is determinant of evoking sleep
C. the noradrenalin production of locus coeruleus is determinant of evoking sleep
D. the reticular formation has only permissive effect in evoking sleep

A

B. the serotonin production of raphe nuclei is determinant of evoking sleep

74
Q

Which of the following statements is true for the REM phase of sleeping?
A. during REM phase sleeping is superficial
B. during REM phase the individual is in an entirely relaxed state
C. during REM phase paradox sleep takes place
D. REM phase is a long period of sleeping, lasting for several hours

A

C. during REM phase paradox sleep takes place

75
Q

Which of the following feature is true for thermoreception?
A. the sensation of hot and cold depends on the two state of the same receptor
B. the mean discharge frequency of the receptores is significant on any external temperature, there is no neutral zone
C. the pain and thermal sensation is the function of the same receptors
D. at 48-50 degree Celsius environmental temperature paradox cold sensation takes place

A

D. at 48-50 degree Celsius environmental temperature paradox cold sensation takes place

76
Q 
Which of the following features is the most typical about fast pain sensation?
A. it produces flexor reflex
B. it causes blood fall of pressure
C. it causes sweating
D. it causes nausea
A

A. it produces flexor reflex

77
Q

Which statement is correct regarding to the molecular explanation of sensitization?
A. glutamate is released presynaptically
B. calcium channels are inhibited in the synaptic terminal
C. the NMDA receptors are released from the inhibitory effect of
D. serotoninerg facilitation takes place

A

D. serotoninerg facilitation takes place

78
Q

Which statement is correct regarding to the molecular explanation of hippocampal mid-term learning?
A. acethylcholine is released presynaptically
B. calcium channels are inhibited in the presynaptic terminal
C. the NMDA receptors are released from the inhibitory effect of magnesium
D. serotoninerg facilitation takes place

A

C. the NMDA receptors are released from the inhibitory effect of magnesium

79
Q 
Which behaviour belongs to the so called "signalling" behaviour group?
A. distance keeping
B. reproductive behavior
C. exploration
D. game
A

A. distance keeping

80
Q 
Which of the following behaviors belongs to the group of instincts?
A. distance-keeping
B. reproductive behavior
C. modal action series
D. play
A

C. modal action series

81
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the structure of the retina?
A. the horizontal cells constitute the connection between cones and rods
B. the bipolar cells maintain connection between ganglion cells and pigment cells
C. the most distant layer from the lens in the retina is the layer of ganglion cells
D. the light reaches first the ganglion cells and afterwards it passes to the cones and rods

A

D. the light reaches first the ganglion cells and afterwards it passes to the cones and rods

82
Q

Which statement is correct about the structure of the macula lutea?
A. in the macula only red and green light sensitive cones can be found
B. the macula is thicker then other areas of retina, because this is the place where the visual acuity is the greatest
C. the layer of ganglion cells is thickest in the macula
D. the macula is placed nasally from the optic disk

A

A. in the macula only red and green light sensitive cones can be found

83
Q

What is the Mariotte’s experiment used for?
A. for examination of refracting parts of the eye
B. for demonstration of the presence of the blind spot
C. for measuring the introcular pressure
D. for determination of the refracting power of the lens

A

B. for demonstration of the presence of the blind spot

84
Q

Which of the following pairs are the most determining of the refracting power of the eye?
A. aqueous humor - frontal surface of the lens
B. back surface of the lens - vitreous humor
C. air - cornea
D. vitreous body

A

C. air - cornea

85
Q

Which of the Purkinje-Sanson pictures changes mostly by the effect of focusing at a near object
A. the smaller upright picture
B. the larger upright picture
C. the three pictures change about the same degree
D. the reduced inverted picture

A

D. the reduced inverted picture

86
Q 
How much is the refractive power of the air-cornea border?
A. 42,5 D
B. 62,5 D
C. 12 D
D. 20 D
A

A. 42,5 D

87
Q

Why is the focusing to a near object more exhausting then focusing to long distance?
A. because during focusing to a near object the ciliary muscles contract
B. because during focusing to a near object the Zinn’s fibers are stretched
C. because during focusing to a near object spinchter muscles of the pupil constrict
D. because during focusing to a near object the lens recoil into a more convex state

A

A. because during focusing to a near object the ciliary muscles contract

88
Q

Which of the following statements is characteristic of the hyperopia?
A. the parallel rays of light brought to a focus in front of the retina
B. the parallel rays of light brought to a focus behind the retina
C. some of the refractory surfaces has more refractory power
D. the diameter of the eyeball is longer then the normal

A

B. the parallel rays of light brought to a focus behind the retina

89
Q 
What kind of lens is able to correct the myopia?
A. convex lens
B. cylindric lens
C. concave lens
D. biconvex lens
A

C. concave lens

90
Q 
Which of the followings does not participate in the reflex of accomodation?
A. the Edinger-Westphal nucleus
B. the ciliary ganglion
C. the praetectal area
D. the lateral geniculate body
A

D. the lateral geniculate body

91
Q 
of the following substances is the transmitter produced by cones and rods?
A. glutamate
B. acetylcholine
C. GABA
D. serotonin
A

A. glutamate

92
Q

Which statement is correct?
A. the dark current leads to the release of serotonin
B. in darkness the cones and rods produce significant amount of glutamate
C. the cones respond to light by increased release of glutamate
D. the cones and the rods release different transmitters

A

B. in darkness the cones and rods produce significant amount of glutamate

93
Q

Which statement is correct?
A. the synthesis of cGMP in the outer segment of the cones is ceased in darkness
B. light produces sodium entry into the cones and rods
C. in darkness the phosphodiesterase enzyme of the outer segment of cones is inactive
D. light activates the synthesis of cGMP in cones and rods

A

C. in darkness the phosphodiesterase enzyme of the outer segment of cones is inactive

94
Q

Which statement is correct?
A. in darkness the cones hiperpolarize
B. light produces hiperpolarization lasting for about 100 msec
C. in darkness the phosphodiesterase enzyme of the outer segment of cones is inactive
D. in darkness the rods depolarize

A

D. in darkness the rods depolarize

95
Q

Which statement is correct?
A. the receptive field is the area of the retina from which a given ganglion cell receives information
B. the receptive field is about 1x1 mm area of the retina
C. the receptive field contains either “off” or “on” cells
D. 2-5 receptive fields belong to one ganglion cell

A

A. the receptive field is the area of the retina from which a given ganglion cell receives information

96
Q

What is the reaction of an on-center ganglion cell to a small ray of light projected into its receptive field?
A. decreased AP frequency
B. increased AP frequency
C. increased AP frequency when the light is turned off
D. decreased AP frecvency either when the light is turned off or on

A

B. increased AP frequency

97
Q 
What is the reaction of an on-center ganglion cell to a ray of light projected onto the whole receptive field?
A. decreased AP frequency
B. unchanged AP frequency
C. increased AP frequency
D. the AP discharge is terminated
A

C. increased AP frequency

98
Q

Which of the following statements describe best the trichromatic (Young-Maxwell-Helmholtz) theory of color vision?
A. the trichromatic vision accomplish the sensation of the white, the black and the colored parts of pictures
B. the cones and rods together are sensitive to three different light wave specifically
C. the sensation of any color can be produced by sensing green, red and yellow colors
D. the sensation of any color can be produced by sensing green, red and blue colors

A

D. the sensation of any color can be produced by sensing green, red and blue colors

99
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A. the cones are sensitive either to red or to blue color
B. the rods are sensitive to colors
C. some of the cones are sensitive to the wavelength of light
D. the rods are sensitive only to light intensity

A

D. the rods are sensitive only to light intensity

100
Q 
Which of the following pairs is true for the theory of opponent color pairs elaborated by Mach-Hering?
A. red - green
B. yellow - red
C. green - blue
D. green - yellow
A

A. red - green

101
Q

Which of the following statements is correct for the luminosity curve?
A. the photopic vision is achieved by rods
B. the maximum of the scotopic luminosity curve is at the wavelength of 510 nm
C. the eye is the most sensitive to the blue color
D. the eye is the most sensitive to the red color

A

B. the maximum of the scotopic luminosity curve is at the wavelength of 510 nm

102
Q

Which statement is correct for the retinal cones and rods?
A. photopic vision is associated with cones
B. the photopic luminosity curve has a maximum at a wavelength of 650 nm
C. the cones have predominant importance in object vision
D. the perception of the wavelength of light is the function of the rods

A

C. the cones have predominant importance in object vision

103
Q

What does “visus” mean?
A. it means the binocular vision
B. it means the ability of differention of contrasts
C. it means the measerment of refraction of light
D. it means the least angle what is perceptible as two different point, projected from two points to one of the eyes

A

D. it means the least angle what is perceptible as two different point, projected from two points to one of the eyes

104
Q

Which of the following parameters is determined by the functional mosaic of the retina?
A. it determines the effective visual acuity
B. it determines the ability to binocular vision
C. it determines the fine discrimination of colour vision
D. it determines the theoretical visual acuity

A

A. it determines the effective visual acuity

105
Q 
Which kind of vision is characteristic of the prey animals?
A. monocular
B. binocular
C. of high visual acuity
D. high contrast of colour vision
A

A. monocular

106
Q 
Which kind of vision is characteristic of the predators?
A. monocular
B. binocular
C. wide visual field
D. decreased ability to colour vision
A

B. binocular

107
Q

What is the horopter ?
A. it means the sphere what is covered by monocular vision
B. it means the sphere what is covered by binocular vision
C. it means the whole visual field
D. it means the place of ponts in the space which are projected to correspondaning retinal points

A

D. it means the place of ponts in the space which are projected to correspondaning retinal points

108
Q

What does the concept of dysparate points mean?
A. it means the points of the visual field which are not corresponding on the two retinas
B. the places of colour vision on the retina which exclude each other
C. it means the points which are out of visual field
D. It means the points of field of binocular vision which are covered by each other

A

A. it means the points of the visual field which are not corresponding on the two retinas

109
Q

What is the basis of stereoscopic vision in the case of binocular vision?
A. the presence of corresponding and dysparate points
B. the differences of light intensity coming into the two eyes
C. the effect of different contrast
D. informations resulting from the head movements

A

A. the presence of corresponding and dysparate points

110
Q 
Which instrument is designed to measure the stereoscopic vision?
A. perimeter
B. stereoscope
C. visus table
D. stroboscope
A

A. perimeter

111
Q 
Wich type of movements can not be executed by the muscles of eye?
A. horizontal
B. protrusional
C. rotational
D. vertical
A

B. protrusional

112
Q 
What is the maximal angle of the eye movement of which most mammals are capable without head movement while tracking an object?
A. 25 degree
B. 35 degree
C. 15 degree
D. 5 degree
A

C. 15 degree

113
Q 
What the minimal angle of motion of an object which is already followed by motion of the head of the cat?
A. 25 degree
B. 35 degree
C. 15 degree
D. 5 degree
A

D. 5 degree

114
Q

Which of the following statements is correct related to the movement of the pupil?
A. dilation of pupil is called “mydriasis”
B. The m. sphincter pupillae is innervated by the sympatethic nerves
C. The myosis is the result of the contraction of m. dilatator pupillae
D. looking at a short distance the pupil is slightly dilates

A

A. dilation of pupil is called “mydriasis”

115
Q

Which statement is true for the innervation of eyemuscles?
A. The m. rectus lateralis is innervated by the n. oculomotorius
B. The m. rectus lateralis is innervated by the n. abducens
C. The m. obliqus ventralis is innervated by the n. trochlealis
D. The m. obliqus dorsalis is innervated by the n. abducens

A

B. The m. rectus lateralis is innervated by the n. abducens

116
Q

Which statement is true for the chiasma opticum?
A. the fibers originated from the ventral part of the retina cross here
B. the optical tract fibers terminate here
C. the fibers originated from the nasal part of the retina cross here
D. the fibers originated from the temporal part of the retina cross here

A

C. the fibers originated from the nasal part of the retina cross here

117
Q

Which statement is true for the optical tract?
A. the fibers of the lateral bundle terminate mostly at the praetectal area
B. the lateral bundle is much smaller in diameter than the medial
C. the greater part of the medial bundle terminate at the geniculate body
D. the greater part of medial bundle terminates at the superior colliculis

A

D. the greater part of medial bundle terminates at the superior colliculis

118
Q

What is true for the function of pretectal region?
A. here happens the integration of pupillary dilation
B. this area is part of optical radiation
C. secunder auditory fibers terminate here
D. this is the one of centers of colour vision

A

A. here happens the integration of pupillary dilation

119
Q

Which statement is true for the dorsal (superior) colliculus?
A. here happens the integration of pupillary dilation
B. this area is the center of the saccadical eye movements
C. this area gets informations from the vestibular nucleus
D. here happens the decoding of the properties of the appercipiated object

A

B. this area is the center of the saccadical eye movements

120
Q

What is true for the lateral geniculate body?
A. it gets only afferentation from the optical nerve
B. this area is the center of the saccadical eye movements
C. this filters a part of the retinal information going to higher centers
D. the parvocellular part of it gets informations from the retinal M-cells

A

C. this filters a part of the retinal information going to higher centers

121
Q

Which area is the place of the primary visual cortex in the brain?
A. the parietal lobe
B. the Brodmann’s area number 18
C. the orbitofrontal lobe
D. the Brodmann’s area number 17 in the occipital lobe

A

D. the Brodmann’s area number 17 in the occipital lobe

122
Q

What does the concept of “ocular dominance” mean?
A. it means the organisation of the information originating from the ipsilateral and contralateral eyes
B. it means the priority of visual sensation over audial sensations
C. it means the organisation of the basic shape recogniton forms in the visual cortex
D. it means the organisation of representation of opposite colour pairs in the visual cortex

A

A. it means the organisation of the information originating from the ipsilateral and contralateral eyes

123
Q 
Which of the following areas gets direct information from the retina?
A. the suprachiasmatic nucleus
B. the pineal body
C. the amygdala
D. the medial geniculate body
A

A. the suprachiasmatic nucleus

124
Q

Does the vestibulocerebellum get direct fibers from the retina?
A. no
B. yes, because it coordinates the spatial orientation movements
C. direct contact can be found only in some species
D. it gets direct fibers only from the auditory organ

A

B. yes, because it coordinates the spatial orientation movements

125
Q 
What is the speed of sound in water?
A. 3 km/sec
B. about 300 m/sec
C. 1500 m/sec
D. in water it is much less than in air because of its high density
A

C. 1500 m/sec

126
Q 
Which data-pair is lineraly proportional to the speed of sound?
A. frequency-pitch
B. amplitude-sound pressure
C. frequency-amplitude
D. wavelength-frequency
A

D. wavelength-frequency

127
Q

Which statement is true for the definition of sound intensity?
A. physiological definition that expresses the sound pressure ratio
B. it gives the physical measure of the sound performance
C. its unit of measure is N/m2
D. its unit of measure is phon

A

A. physiological definition that expresses the sound pressure ratio

128
Q

Why the phon scale had to be established in physiolgy?
A. in order to describe the sensibility of the ear by a physical index
B. because sounds that have the same sound pressure ratio but different frequency can cause sound sensation at a different extent
C. because the bel scale does not measurue the sound pressure by a physical unit of measure
D. because the phon-scale describes the sound intensity more exactly

A

B. because sounds that have the same sound pressure ratio but different frequency can cause sound sensation at a different extent

129
Q 
Where does the foot plate of the stapes attach?
A. in the round window
B. in the malleus
C. in the oval window
D. in the incus
A

C. in the oval window

130
Q 
To Wich extent rises the pressure because of the surface difference of the ear drum and the foot plate of the stapes?
A. 2 times
B. 1 to 3 times
C. 22 times
D. 17 times
A

D. 17 times

131
Q 
To which extent rises the pressure because of the lever function of the auditory ossicles?
A. 2 times
B. 1 to 3 times
C. 22 times
D. 17 times
A

B. 1 to 3 times

132
Q

Which statement is characteristic of the inner ear?
A. in the scala media perilymph can be found
B. the perilymph is rich of potassium
C. there is a high potassium concentration in the endolymph
D. the scala tympani is closed by the oval window

A

C. there is a high potassium concentration in the endolymph

133
Q

Which statement is true for the organ of Corti?
A. the innervation of the row of inner hair cells is characterised by a large convergence
B. the innervation of the row of inner hair cells is characterised by a large divergence
C. it contains medial hair cells in 3-4 rows
D. it contains outer hair cells in 3-4 rows

A

D. it contains outer hair cells in 3-4 rows

134
Q

Which statement is true for the organ of Corti?
A. 95% of the afferent fibers in the cochlear nerve comes from the inner hair cells, which represents the lower amount of cells
B. 95% of the afferent fibers in the cochlear nerve comes from the outer hair cells, which represents the higher amount of cells
C. the inner receptor cells are characterised by the convergence of 25 to 1
D. the inner receptor cells are characterised by divergence

A

A. 95% of the afferent fibers in the cochlear nerve comes from the inner hair cells, which represents the lower amount of cells

135
Q

Which statement is true for the basilar membrane of the inner ear?
A. its width decreases gradually towards the helicotrema
B. its width increases 5-times towards the helicotrema
C. its width is about 500 micrometers at the base of the cochlea
D. it forms the the upper border the organ of Corti

A

B. its width increases 5-times towards the helicotrema

136
Q

Which statement is true for the basilar membrane of the inner ear?
A. the high frequency sounds near the helicotrema
B. the high frequency sounds are captured near the base of the cochlea
C. it works as a frequency analyser
D. by contacting the hair cells it is able to move their stereocilia directly

A

C. it works as a frequency analyser

137
Q

Receptor cells can respond to

A

adequate and inadequate stimuli as well

138
Q

Where are the sympathetic preganglion neurons situated?

A

In the thoracolumbar segments of the spinal chord in the intestinal lateral nuclei of grey matter

139
Q

Short term memory is linked to the following anatomical structure?

A

Hippocampus

and Frontal lobe

140
Q

Propagation of AP fibers can be up to ? m/s

A

120 m/s

141
Q

How manny cavities does the cochlea have?

A

3

142
Q

What does the so-called duipiliety theory of vision mean?

A

If a rod becomes activated, it activates the neighbouring cone aswell

143
Q

Which statement is true for the intentional movement?

A

Basal ganglia plays a important role in movement execution

144
Q

Following animals have monocular vision?

A

Predators small monocular

Pray, large biocular?

145
Q

Followings belong to the medial hippocampus

A

Limbic ring (area piriformis)

146
Q

Nearst equation?

A

Describes equilibrium potential of a membrane

147
Q

About the cells in the spinal chord, sympathetic cells are located in the

A

Lateral horne

148
Q

Extitable tissue is?

A

Muscle tissue

149
Q

What is dis facilitation?

A

abolishing stimulating effect by inhibition

150
Q

How does the pupils react to pain?

A

Both dilate

Physiology 1 (42 decks)

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