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Physiology 1 > MPQ- MIDTERM 5 > Flashcards

MPQ- MIDTERM 5 Flashcards

1
Q 
In which species is microbial digestion a subordered role?
A. carnivores
B. omnivores
C. herbivores
D. ruminants
A

A. carnivores

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2
Q 
What portion of the gut in monogastric herbivores is the most developed?
A. stomach
B. colon and cecum
C. small intestine and cecum
D. colon
A

B. colon and cecum

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3
Q 
Where does the digestion of cellulose in the rabbit take place?
A. stomach
B. small intestine
C. colon
D. cecum
A

D. cecum

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4
Q 
Which products of microbial fermentation can be utilized by monogastric herbivores?
A. proteins
B. amino acids
C. volatile fatty acid
D. vitamines
A

C. volatile fatty acid

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5
Q 
Which products of microbial fermentation can be utilized by ruminants?
A. proteins
B. cellulose
C. volatile fatty acid
D. vitamines and volatile fatty acid
A

D. vitamines and volatile fatty acid

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6
Q 
Which species has the largest proportion of gut in comparison to their body-length?
A. horse
B. swine
C. cattle
D. dog
A

C. cattle

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7
Q 
Which species has the largest stomach?
A. horse
B. cattle
C. swine
D. dog
2
A

B. cattle

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8
Q 
Which species has the largest cecum?
A. horse
B. cattle
C. swine
D. rabbit
A

A. horse

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9
Q 
What does "passage time" mean?
A. duration of food in the gut
B. microbial digestion time of food
C. duration of food in the stomach
D. resorption time of food
A

A. duration of food in the gut

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10
Q 
Which species has the longest passage time?
A. cat
B. sheep
C. swine
D. dog
A

B. sheep

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11
Q

Which species has the shortest passage time?
A. horse
B. sheep
C. swine

A

C. swine

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12
Q

Receptors take part in the formation of the reflex of the rumino-reticular groove?
A. receptors of the pharyngeal wall and the oral cavity
B. esophageal receptors
C. Ruminal receptors
D. cardial receptors

A

A. receptors of the pharyngeal wall and the oral cavity

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13
Q 
Where does the rumino-reticular groove direct the milk to?
A. to the abomasum
B. to the non-functioning forestomach
C. to the omasum
D. to the small intestines
A

A. to the abomasum

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14
Q

How long does the GI physiology of the newborn ruminants resemble that of the monogastric herbivores?
A. Until weaning period
B. 3 weeks postpartum
C. until the blood concentration of volatile fatty acids are low
D. until the reflex of rumino-reticular canal can be provoked

A

B. 3 weeks postpartum

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15
Q

Why does the passage time elongate in adult monogastric herbivores?
A. because of the microbial fermentation in the forestomach
B. because the stomach enlarges compared to the other parts of the digestive tract
C. because of the pseudo-coprophagy
D. because of the long time spent in the colon

A

D. because of the long time spent in the colon

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16
Q 
What substance in the piglet has a very low production in newborns but a relatively higher one at 2-3 weeks of age?
A. salivary amylase
B. enzymes of the small intestine
C. enzymes of the pancreas
D. pepsine
A

A. salivary amylase

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17
Q 
In the piglet there is a substance whose production is very low in newborns and gradually increases from 2-weeks of age. What is it?
A. salivary amyalse
B. lactase in the small intestine
C. chloric acid
D. pepsine
A

D. pepsine

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18
Q 
In the piglet there is a substance whose production is high in newborns but gradually disappears from the age of 2-3 weeks. What is it?
A. salivary amylase
B. lactase of the small intestine
C. saccharase
D. pepsine
A

B. lactase of the small intestine

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19
Q 
Which species receive maternal immunity exclusively via the placenta?
A. Primates
B. predators
C. ruminants
D. rodents
A

A. Primates

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20
Q 
Which species receive maternal immunity partly via the placenta and partly from the?
A. Primates
B. lepidae
C. ruminants
D. predators
A

D. predators

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21
Q 
Which species receive maternal immunity exclusively from the colostrum?
A. Primates
B. rodents
C. ruminants
D. predators
A

C. ruminants

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22
Q 
Which immunglobuline can get through the placenta?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
A

A. IgG

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23
Q 
On which type of placenta can the largest quantity of maternal immunglobulin get through?
A. placenta epitheliochorialis
B. placenta syndesmochorialis
C. placenta endotheliochorialis
D. pacenta haemochorialis
A

D. pacenta haemochorialis

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24
Q 
Animals having this type of placenta recieve immunity of placental and colostral origin.
A. placenta epitheliochorialis
B. placenta syndesmochorialis
C. placenta endotheliochorialis
D. pacenta haemochorialis
A

C. placenta endotheliochorialis

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25
Q 
In which part of the alimentary canal are immunglobulines taken up?
A. small intestine
B. large intestine
C. stomach
D. appendix
A

A. small intestine

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26
Q

Why do immunglobulines stay intact after absorption?
A. intracellular digestion does not occur
B. intracellular digestion does occur but many molecules survive
C. lysosomal enzymes are not produced
D. exocytosis does not occur

A

B. intracellular digestion does occur but many molecules survive

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27
Q 
Where do immunglobulines go after exocytosis?
A. into lymph and intercellular channels
B. into capillaries
C. into enterocytes
D. into the lumen of intestine
A

B. into capillaries

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28
Q 
Which parts of alimentary canal is controlled mainly by the central nervous system?
A. initial and last section
B. small intestine
C. from stomach to rectum
D. small and large intestine
A

A. initial and last section

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29
Q 
Which parts of alimentary canal is mainly under local control?
A. initial and last section
B. small intestine
C. from stomach to rectum
D. small and large intestine
A

C. from stomach to rectum

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30
Q 
Which immunglobuline is predominant on the mucous membranes of the intestine?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
A

B. IgA

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31
Q 
What is the potential change during slow waves?
A. 5-15mV
B. 1-5mV
C. 90mV
D. 40mV
A

A. 5-15mV

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32
Q

What is basal electric rhythm(BER)?
A. complex electric activity caused by slow waves
B. action potential of smooth muscle cells
C. membrane potential
D. contraction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle cells

A

A. complex electric activity caused by slow waves

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33
Q 
What causes the basal electric rhythm?
A. slow Ca2+ ion inflow
B. Ca2+ leakage
C. slow,periodic change of the activity of Na+/K+ pump and presence of few Na+ and many Ca2+ channels
D. action potential
A

C. slow,periodic change of the activity of Na+/K+ pump and presence of few Na+ and many Ca2+ channels

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34
Q

What is a spike potential?
A. electric activity caused by slow waves
B. action potential of certain type of smooth muscle cells
C. membrane potential
D. contraction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle cells

A

B. action potential of certain type of smooth muscle cells

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35
Q 
At which membrane potential are spike potentials produced?
A. 5-15mV
B. 3-12mV
C. -90mV
D. -40mV
A

D. -40mV

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36
Q

What is a tonic contraction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle cells?
A. contraction of the gastrointestinal canal for minutes, maybe hours
B. typical, rhythmical contraction of the gastrointestinal canal
C. movement due to slow waves
D. movement due to increase of the

A

A. contraction of the gastrointestinal canal for minutes, maybe hours

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37
Q 
Which process operates merely under the control of nervous system?
A. gastric secretion, gastric motion
B. gastric juice production
C. evacuation of bile
D. defecation
A

D. defecation

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38
Q

Where is hunger center situated?
A. in the prefrontal cortex
B. in the amygdala
C. in the nucl. ventrolateralis of the hypothalamus
D. in the nucl. ventromedialis of the hypothalamus

A

C. in the nucl. ventrolateralis of the hypothalamus

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39
Q

Where is the satiety centre?
A. in the prefrontal cortex
B. in the amygdala
C. in the nucl. ventroateralis of hypothalamus
D. in the nucl. ventromedialis of hypothalamus

A

D. in the nucl. ventromedialis of hypothalamus

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40
Q

Where is the appetite centre?
A. in the hunger centre
B. in the amygdala and in the prefrontal cortex
C. in the nucl. ventroateralis of hypothalamus
D. in the nucl. ventromedialis of hypothalamus

A

B. in the amygdala and in the prefrontal cortex

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41
Q

What reduces the absorption of nutrients?
A. cholecystochinin, glucagon
B. low estrogen level
C. emptying of the digestive tract
D. reduction of temperature of the circulating blood

A

A. cholecystochinin, glucagon

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42
Q

What increases the absorption of nutrients?
A. ovariectomy
B. low insulin level
C. filling of the digestive tract
D. increased temperature of the circulating blood

A

A. ovariectomy

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43
Q 
Which plasma factor determines food uptake?
A. glucose
B. hormones
C. volatile fatty acids
D. temperature of circulating blood
A

A. glucose

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44
Q

Does the autonomic nervous system influence the gastointestinal nervous system?
A. no
B. yes, sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system have modulatory effect
C. yes, there is a sympathetic stimulation
D. yes, there is a parasympathetic inhibition

A

B. yes, sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system have modulatory effect

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45
Q

How do the sympathetic fibres influence the gastrointestinal smooth muscles?
A. norepinephrine causes hyperpolarization
B. norepinephrine causes depolarization
C. peristalsis increases
D. muscle tone increases

A

A. norepinephrine causes hyperpolarization

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46
Q

How does the parasympathetic influence affect the gastrointestinal smooth muscle cells?
A. acetylcholine hyperpolarizes the cells
B. acetylcholine stimulates epinephrine action
C. acetylcholine depolarizes smooth muscles
D. acetylcholine hyperpolarizes arteriolar smooth muscles

A

C. acetylcholine depolarizes smooth muscles

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47
Q

How many neurons are there in the enteral nervous system?
A. less than in the CNS
B. about two times higher than in the CNS
C. ten times more than in the CNS
D. about the same as in the spinal cord

A

D. about the same as in the spinal cord

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48
Q

What does the central nervous system consist of?
A. the plexus myentericus (Meissneri)
B. the plexus myentericus (Auerbachi)
C. the plexus submucosus
D. the plexus submucosus (Meissneri) and the plexus myentericus (Auerbachi)

A

D. the plexus submucosus (Meissneri) and the plexus myentericus (Auerbachi)

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49
Q

Which statement is true for the plexus submucosus?
A. plexus submucosus controls the local circulation, the secretion and the absorption
B. it regulates peristalsis
C. it increases the speed of peristalsis
D. it controls the intestinal movements

A

A. plexus submucosus controls the local circulation, the secretion and the absorption

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50
Q 
Which statement is true for the plexus myentericus?
A. it controls the local circulation
B. it controls secretion
C. it controls absorption
D. it stimulates hormone production
A

C. it controls absorption

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51
Q 
Which is not controlled by intrinsic regulation?
A. secretion
B. peristalsis
C. mixing movements
D. defecation
A

D. defecation

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52
Q

Where is the center of the reflex for gastric and colonic movements?
A. in the parasympathetic paravertebral ganglion
B. in the parasympathetic postvertebral ganglion
C. In the sympathetic paratvertebral ganglion
D. in the sympathetic praevertebral ganglion

A

D. in the sympathetic praevertebral ganglion

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53
Q 
Which reflex does not depend on the sympathic ganglion?
A. defecation
B. gastric-colon
C. colon-gastric
D. intestine-colon
A

A. defecation

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54
Q 
What is the effect of pain in the intestine tract?
A. dilatation of the colon
B. total paralysis
C. a strong contraction of colon
D. acceleration of peristalsis
A

B. total paralysis

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55
Q 
What is the collective name of the endocrine cells in the intestine?
A. AFDS
B. EEC
C. APUD
D. GIP
A

C. APUD

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56
Q

Where are there no endocrine cells?
A. In the wall of duodenum
B. In the wall of jejunum
C. In liver

A

C. In liver

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57
Q 
Which one of gastrointestinal peptides cause contraction of the bladder?
A. substance-P
B. CCK
C. endorphin
D. VIP
A

B. CCK

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58
Q 
Which of the following is a brain-gut peptide ?
A. gastrin
B. secretin
C. enteroglucagon
D. VIP
A

D. VIP

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59
Q 
What does secretin inhibit?
A. secretion of gastric acid
B. secretion of pancreatic juice
C. secretion of cholic acid
D. secretion of intestinal juice
A

A. secretion of gastric acid

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60
Q 
Which hormones are structurally related?
A. gastrin, CCK,VIP, GIP
B. VIP, GIP, enteroglucagon, substance P
C. motilin, somatostatin, CCK,VIP
D. secretin,GIP,VIP
A

D. secretin,GIP,VIP

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61
Q 
Which movement is more important in mixing of the intestinal chymus?
A. peristalsis
B. segmental movement
C. segmental movement and peristalsis
D. sphincter contraction
A

B. segmental movement

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62
Q

Do cats or dogs eat more frequently?
A. dogs, in one sitting they can eat more than 10% of their body weight
B. dogs eat more per body weight
C. cats eat more frequently, but eat less than dogs per body weight
D. no diference

A

C. cats eat more frequently, but eat less than dogs per body weight

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63
Q 
is the center responsible for chewing?
A. in the brain stem
B. in the nucl. Ventromedialis in the hypothalamus
C. in the cortex
D. in the spinal cord
A

A. in the brain stem

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64
Q 
What is the stimulus for closing the mouth?
A. gravity
B. streching of receptors of muscle
C. mechano receptors of mucous membrane
D. tone reduction
A

B. streching of receptors of muscle

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65
Q

How can you describe the pressure when swallowing and in the swallowing pause?
A. In the swallowing pause the pressure in the pharynx is the same as the atmospheric pressure
B. when swallowing the pressure in the pharyngeal cavity suddenly drops
C. the tone of pharyngo-oesophageal sphincter is 5-10 kPa
D. when swallowing the pressure of oesophagus is larger than the pressure in the pharynx

A

A. In the swallowing pause the pressure in the pharynx is the same as the atmospheric pressure

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66
Q

How can you describe the pressure in the esophagus?
A. the pressure in the cardia always exceeds the gastric tone
B. cardial tone is always larger than in esophagus
pressure of the esophagus exceeds the atmospheric pressure
C. the pressure of gastro-esopheagal sphincter exceeds D. the pressure in the cardia

A

A. the pressure in the cardia always exceeds the gastric tone

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67
Q 
Which gastric area is richest in muscle elements?
A. corpus
B. fundus
C. antrum
D. pylorus
A

C. antrum

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68
Q

Why is the intragastric pressure constant during filling?
A. because of automatic contraction
B. it is the result of regulated muscle function
C. it can be explained by the law of Laplace
D. the intragastric pressure is kept constant by sympathetic innervation

A

C. it can be explained by the law of Laplace

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69
Q

What is happennig during vomiting?
A. repeated expiration with closed glottis
B. intrapulmonary pressure falls
C. repeated expiration with opened cardia
D. repeated increase of the intrathoracic pressure

A

D. repeated increase of the intrathoracic pressure

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70
Q

What is happennig during vomiting?
A. repeated expiration with closed glottis
B. intrapulmonary pressure falls
C. repeated expiration with opened cardia
D. repeated increase of the intrathoracic pressure

A

D. repeated increase of the intrathoracic pressure

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71
Q 
When will the mixing movements in the stomach begin?
A. as soon as the bolus is swallowed
B. about half an hour after food uptake
C. a few minutes after food uptake
D. 2 - 3 hours after food uptake
A

B. about half an hour after food uptake

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72
Q 
Where does the gastric mixing movement begin?
A. from the middle of the corpus
B. from the cardia
C. from the antrum
D. from the pylorus
A

A. from the middle of the corpus

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73
Q

What causes the gastric emptying?
A. sympathetic stimulation
B. activity of the prepyloric part of antrum
C. pressure difference between duodenum and stomach
D. peristalsis of the fundus

A

C. pressure difference between duodenum and stomach

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74
Q 
Which is the major control mechanism for gastric movement?
A. bulbus duodeni
B. intrinsic regulation
C. extrinsic regulation
D. hormonal feed-back
A

B. intrinsic regulation

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75
Q 
Which hormone stimulates gastric emptying?
A. secretin
B. CCK
C. VIP
D. gastrin
A

D. gastrin

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76
Q

What is the direct stimulus for secretin secretion?
A. inhibition of gastric emptying
B. high intraluminal pressure
C. low fat content in the small intestine
D. low pH in duodenum

A

D. low pH in duodenum

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77
Q 
Which part of small intestine is emptied the slowest?
A. ileum
B. jejunum
C. duodenum
D. ileum and jejunum
A

A. ileum

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78
Q 
How much is the frequency (/min)of the segmentating movements of the small
A. 8-12
B. 4-5
C. 3-5
D. 1-2
A

A. 8-12

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79
Q 
How many hours is needed for the chymus to pass from the pylorus to the colon?
A. 8-12
B. 4-5
C. 3-5
D. 1-2
A

C. 3-5

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80
Q 
How many slow peristaltic waves occur per minute?
A. 8-12
B. 4-5
C. 3-5
D. 1-2
A

B. 4-5

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81
Q 
What material stimulates the function of villi?
A. villikinin
B. cholecystokinin
C. VIP
D. gastrin
A

A. villikinin

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82
Q 
What part of small intestine has primary pacemaker activity?
A. ileum
B. jejunum
C. duodenum
D. ileum and jejunum
A

C. duodenum

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83
Q 
What material inhibits the contraction of nonstriated muscle of the jejunum?
A. secretin
B. cholecystokinin
C. GIP
D. gastrin
A

A. secretin

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84
Q

What is the function of colon?
A. reabsorption of water and electrolytes
B. reabsorption of amino acids
C. secretion of cellulose cleaving enzymes
D. catabolism of proteins

A

A. reabsorption of water and electrolytes

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85
Q

What group of animals has the fastest movement in the colon?
A. ruminants
B. carnivorous animals, because of aboral mass peristalsis
C. horses, because of the colon’s antiperistaltic activity
D. herbivorous animals

A

B. carnivorous animals, because of aboral mass peristalsis

86
Q 
What regulates the defecation in animals?
A. hypothalamus
B. hypophysis
C. hypothalamus and cortex
D. hypophysis and cortex
A

A. hypothalamus

87
Q

Where does the innervation of the rectum originate from?
A. sympathetic L1-L4, parasympathetic sacral sections
B. symphathetic L4-L6, parasymphathetic sacral section
C. sympathetic L1-L3, parasymphatic lumbar section
D. sympathetic L4-L6, parasympathetic lumbar section

A

A. sympathetic L1-L4, parasympathetic sacral sections

88
Q 
Where is a pacemaker of the intestine situated?
A. in the middle portion of the colon
B. in the begining of caecum
C. in the begining and end of caecum
D. in the begining and end of colon
A

D. in the begining and end of colon

89
Q

Where do the slow waves of the colon begin?
A. from the circular muscle layer and then spread to the longitudinal muscles
B. from longitudinal muscles and then spread to circular musclea
C. from both muscles at the same time
D. from longitudinal muscle and spreads only whithin this layer

A

A. from the circular muscle layer and then spread to the longitudinal muscles

90
Q

What is true for the endocrine regulation in the colon?
A. gastrin: stimulates; secretin, CCK: inhibit
B. gastrin, CCK: stimulate; secretin: inhibits
C. CCK: stimulates; secretin,g astrin: inhibit
D. secretin, CCK: stimulate; gastrin: inhibits

A

B. gastrin, CCK: stimulate; secretin: inhibits

91
Q

What is the difference between serous and mucous saliva?
A. their composition is not significantly different
B. their viscosity differs
C. their electrolite composition differs
D. they contain different enzymes

A

B. their viscosity differs

92
Q 
Which salivary gland produces serous saliva?
A. parotid gland
B. mandibular gland
C. Sublingual gland
D. the small scattered salivary glands
A

A. parotid gland

93
Q 
What species contains a high quantity of ptyalin in their saliva?
A. pig, rat, rabbit
B. horse, dog, cat ruminants
C. horse, pig, ruminants
D. pig, ruminants, dog
A

A. pig, rat, rabbit

94
Q 
Which immunglobulin is present in saliva?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE and IgM
D. IgG
A

A. IgA

95
Q 
Which special component is present in adult ruminants?
A. iodine, heavy metals
B. lysosymes
C. urea
D. lipase
A

C. urea

96
Q

How can sodium and chloride get into the primary saliva?
A. through passive diffusion
B. through active secretion
C. by exocytosis
D. the primary saliva does not contain a significant quantity of sodium and chloride

A

B

97
Q

How can phosphate and bicarbonate get into the primary saliva in ruminants?
A. through passive diffusion
B. through active secretion
C. by exocytosis
D. the primary saliva does not contain a significant quantity bicarbonate

A

B. through active secretion

98
Q

What happens with the saliva in the tubules of the salivary gland?
A. Na+ and Cl- are secreted and the K+ and HCO3- are partly reabsorbed
B. Na+ and Cl- are partly reabsorpted and the K+ and HCO3- are secreted
C. Na+ and K+ are partly reabsorpted and the Cl- and HCO3- are secreted
D. Na+ and HCO3 are partly reabsopted and the K+ and Cl- are secreted

A

B

99
Q 
How would you decribe the secondary saliva in monogastric animals, with a normal excretion rate?
A.hypertonic
B. isotonic
C. hypotonic 88
D. its pH is below 3
A

C. hypotonic 88

100
Q

What is typical of saliva production in ruminants?
A. it is continuous
B. it is triggered only by feeding
C. aldosterone does not influence the composition of the saliva
D. stimulation of the tongue’s mechanoreceptors is necessary for saliva production

A

A. it is continuous

101
Q

Where is the center of the saliva production?
A. in the hypothalamus
B. in the nucl. salivatorius
C. in the cortex
D. in the cervical segment of the spinal cord

A

B. in the nucl. salivatorius

102
Q

What occurs due to a parasymphatetic stimulation in the salivary gland?
A. a large quantity of thin,protein poor saliva will be produced
B. the saliva production decreases
C. a small quantity of mucine rich saliva will be produced
D. a large quantity of mucine rich saliva will be produced

A

A. a large quantity of thin,protein poor saliva will be produced

103
Q

What occurs with symphathetic stimulation of the salivary gland?
A. a large quantity of thin, protein poor saliva will be produced
B. the saliva production increases
C. a small quantity of mucine rich saliva will be produced
D. a large quantity of mucine rich saliva will be produced

A

A. a large quantity of thin, protein poor saliva will be produced

104
Q

What happens with parasymphatic stimulation in the acinus cells of the salivary gland?
A. discharged acetylcholine activates the cAMP system
B. the saliva production decreases
C. intracellular Ca2+ level decreases
D. discharged acetylcholine increases saliva production indirectly by stimulating bradikinin production

A

D. discharged acetylcholine increases saliva production indirectly by stimulating bradikinin production

105
Q

What happens due to a symphathetic effect in the salivary gland?
A. epinephrine decreases the saliva production via IP3
B. adrenergic nerve endings activate the cAMP system
C. vasodilatation
D. intracellular Ca2+ level increases in the acinus cell

A

B. adrenergic nerve endings activate the cAMP system

106
Q 
In which area of the stomach can C-cells be found?
A. cardia
B. fundus
C. pylorus
D. in the aglandular part
A

C. pylorus

107
Q 
What is the main product of the cardia ?
A. mucine
B. pepsinogen
C. gastrin
D. hydrochloric acid
A

A. mucine

108
Q 
In which area of the stomach can chief cells be found?
A. cardia
B. fundus
C. pylorus
D. aglandular part
A

B. fundus

109
Q 
What best describes the gastric juice?
A. isosmotic
B. hyposmotic
C. hyperosmotic
D. its osmolarity depends on the foodstuff
A

A. isosmotic

110
Q

How can H+ ions get into the lumen of the stomach?
A. H+ ions originating from the dissociaton of water, get into the lumen by the H+/Cl- pump found in the luminal membrane of the oxyntic (parietal) cells
B. H+ ions originating from the dissociation of carbonic acid, get into the lumen by the H+/K+ pump found in the luminal membrane of the oxyntic (parietal) cells
C. H+ ions originating from the dissociation of metabolic water, get into the lumen by the H+/K+ pump
D. the H+/Cl- pump is found in the luminal membrane of the chief cells

A

C. H+ ions originating from the dissociation of metabolic water, get into the lumen by the H+/K+ pump

111
Q 
What does pepsin digest?
A. every peptide bond
B. denaturated peptides
C. peptide bonds of aromatic amino acids
D. peptide bonds of base amino acids
A

C. peptide bonds of aromatic amino acids

112
Q

What statement is correct for the cephalic phase of stomach secretion?
A. severing the n.vagus has no effect on it
B. it is mediated by peptide hormones
C. it is a CNS dependent reflex
D. chief cells are stimulated by this reflex

A

C. it is a CNS dependent reflex

113
Q

What statement is correct for the gastric phase of secretion ?
A. mechanical effects on G-cells stimulate it
B. it increases the gastric secretion hormonally
C. acetylcholine is the major inhibitor of this phase
D. the oxyntic cells do not have a function in this phase

A

B. it increases the gastric secretion hormonally

114
Q

What statement is correct for the intestinal phase of gastric secretion?
A. it is regulated exclusively by the vagus nerve
B. somatostatin increases the stomach secretion
C. GIP, VIP, CCK and secretin inhibit the gastric function
D. CCK, VIP and secretin increase the gastric motility

A

C. GIP, VIP, CCK and secretin inhibit the gastric function

115
Q 
What is needed for B12 vitamine absorption?
A. R protein
B. proteinX
C. transcortin
D. transcorrin
A

D. transcorrin

116
Q 
Where is absorbed the vitaminee B12 in the alimentary tract ?
A. stomach
B. ileum
C. doudenum
D. jejunum
A

B. ileum

117
Q 
What is the role of transcobalamine 1?
A. keeping cobalamine in the plasma
B. take cobalamine into the liver
C. take cobalamine into the cells
D. take cobalamine into the kidneys
A

A. keeping cobalamine in the plasma

118
Q 
What is the role of transcobalamine 2 ?
A. keeping cobalamine in the plasma
B. take cobalamine into the liver for excrete it
C. take cobalamine into the cells
D. take cobalamine into the kidneys
A

B. take cobalamine into the liver for excrete it

119
Q 
What is the role of transcobalamine 3?
A. keeping cobalamine in the plasama
B. take cobalamine into the liver for excrete it
C. take cobalamine into the cells
D. take cobalamine into the kidneys
A

C. take cobalamine into the cells

120
Q 
What hormone increases the bicarbonate secretion of the pancreas?
A. secretin
B. GIP
C. VIP
D. stomatostatin
A

A. secretin

121
Q

How does the composition of the pancreatic juice change during increased production rate?
A. HCO3- decreases, Cl- increases, Na+ does not change, K+ does not change
B. HCO3- increases, Cl- decreases, Na+ decreasse, K+ does not change
C. HCO3- increases, Cl- decreases, Na+ does not change, K+ does not change
D. HCO3- increases, Cl- decreases, Na+ does not change, K+ increases

A

C. HCO3- increases, Cl- decreases, Na+ does not change, K+ does not change

122
Q 
What kind of proensyme is stimulated dirctly by enteropeptidase ?
A. pepsinogen
B. proelastase
C. chymotrypsinogen
D. trypsinogen
A

D. trypsinogen

123
Q

What kind of secretion is produced during the cephalic phase by the pancreas?
A. high protein concentration but low quantity
B. low protein concentration but high quantity
C. high bicarbonate concentration
D. there is no pancreatic secretion during the cephalic phase

A

A. high protein concentration but low quantity

124
Q 
What is the main mediator of the increased bicarbonate production of the pancreas ?
A. secretin
B. gastrin
C. CCK
D. CCK and gastrin
A

A. secretin

125
Q 
What is the main mediator of the increas pancreatic secretion if the intestines contain large amounts of fat or peptide ?
A. secretin
B. gastrin
C. CCK
D. transcorrine
A

C. CCK

126
Q 
In which animal family do we find an Oddi-sphicter ?
A. carnivors
B. ruminants
C. monogastric herbivors
D. horses
A

A. carnivors

127
Q 
Where can you find the bile canaliculi ?
A. in the gall-bladder
B. in the sinusoides of the liver
C. in the perisinusoid fissures
D. between the two columns of hepatic cells
A

D. between the two columns of hepatic cells

128
Q 
What kind of chemical mediator increases the bicarbonate cocentration in the bile ?
A. secretin
B. gastrin
C. CCK
D. GIP
A

A. secretin

129
Q 
In which animal is the bile continuously emptied?
A. horse
B. dog
C. ruminant
D. rabbit
A

A. horse

130
Q

What is true for lecithin and cholesterol ?
A. the lecithin is in the micelles
B. the cholesterol is in the outer sheath of the micelles
C. the cholesterol is amphoteric
D. the lecithin increases the dissolved amount of cholesterol in the micelles

A

D. the lecithin increases the dissolved amount of cholesterol in the micelles

131
Q

What is a secondary bile acid?
A. bile acids conjugationed with taurine and glycine
B. dehydroxylated bile products by bacteria of the intestines
C. decarboxylated products in the intestines
D. cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid

A

B. dehydroxylated bile products by bacteria of the intestines

132
Q 
What`s the basic material of bile acids ?
A. cholesterol
B. taurine and glycine
C. amino acids
D. citric acid
A

A. cholesterol

133
Q

What happens to the bile acids in the alimentary tract ?
A. they are excreted entirely
B. most of them are rebsorbed passively
C. most of them gets fully degraded before getting to the rectum

A

D. most of them are actively reabsorbed

134
Q

What`s the coleretic effect of bile acids ?
A. resorbed bile acids decrease the bile formation
B. resorbed bile acids inhibit liver function
C. resorbed bile acids increase the bile quantity
D. the contraction of gall bladder decreases

A

C. resorbed bile acids increase the bile quantity

135
Q 
What increases the emptying of the gall bladder?
A. VIP
B. CCK
C. secretin
D. epinephrine
A

B. CCK

136
Q 
What prevents the emptying of the gall bladden?
A. VIP
B. CCK
C. secretin
D. acetylcholine
A

A. VIP

137
Q 
What is the pH in the small intestines ?
A. 8,2-8,6
B. 6,2-6,7
C. 2,6-3,6
D. 7,2-7,6
A

D. 7,2-7,6

138
Q

Where are produced the anorganic parts of intestinal juice ?
A. in the Lieberk³hn glands B. in the Brunners glands
C. in the apical region of the intestinal villi
D. in the aged enterocytes

A

A. in the Lieberk³hn` glands

139
Q

Where is producted the mucosal coating of the small intestines ?
A. in the Lieberk³hn glands B. in the apical region of the intestinal villi C. in the Brunners glands
D. in the aged enterocytes

A

C. in the Brunner`s glands

140
Q 
What is the product of the Lieberk³hn`s glands in the large intestine ?
A. mucous cells
B. muccine and bicarbonate
C. digestive enzymes
D. water
A

B. muccine and bicarbonate

141
Q

What is the role of the bicarbonate secretion of the colon?
A. buffering the high VFA content
B. buffering of bile acids
C. prevention of hydrogen loss
D. mechanical protection by complex formation with proteins

A

A. buffering the high VFA content

142
Q

Which factor enlarges the absorbing surface of the intestinal tract?
A. the surface of the intestinal tract as a tube
B. the folded nature of the inner surface of the intestinal tract
C. the presence of intestinal villi
D. the presence of the brush border

A

D. the presence of the brush border

143
Q

What is the role of the motion of the intestinal villi?
A. passage of the chyme
B. they stimulate the brush border motion
C. they enlarge the absorptive surface
D. facilitating the movement of nutrients into capillaries and lymph vessels

A

D. facilitating the movement of nutrients into capillaries and lymph vessels

144
Q 
Which material stimulates the cell division in the gut the most?
A. gastrin
B. secretin
C. GIP
D. CCK
A

A. gastrin

145
Q

Where are the monosaccharides absorbed the best?
A. in the jejunum
B. in the duodenum and the first part of the jejunum
C. in the ileum
D. in the jejunum and the first part of the ileum

A

B. in the duodenum and the first part of the jejunum

146
Q 
What does ptyalin split?
A. chain ending peptide bonds
B. alpha-1-4 glycoside bonds
C. alpha-1-6 glycoside bonds
D. beta-1-4 bonds
A

B. alpha-1-4 glycoside bonds

147
Q 
What does pancreatic amylase split?
A. chain ending peptidebonds
B. alpha-1-4 bonds
C. all saccharides
D. beta-1-4 bonds
A

B. alpha-1-4 bonds

148
Q

How does fructose absorption proceed in the small intestine?
A. With facilited passive transport
B. with the support of GLUT 2 transporter
C. with Na+ supported secondary active transport
D. with simple diffusion

A

A. With facilited passive transport

149
Q

How does fructose transport occur in the gut?
A. with active transport
B. with the support of GLUT 5 transporter
C. with Na+ supported secondary active transport
D. with simple diffusion

A

B. with the support of GLUT 5 transporter

150
Q

How does glucose absorption occur in the small intestine?
A. With facilited passive transport
B. With the support of GLUT 2 transporter
C. With calcium dependent secondary active transport
D. With simple diffusion

A

C. With calcium dependent secondary active transport

151
Q

How does the glucose transport occur in the gut?
A. with active transport
B. with the support of GLUT 2 transporter
C. with calcium dependent secondary active transport
D. with simple diffusion

A

B. with the support of GLUT 2 transporter

152
Q

What is the main buffer in the colon of horses and pigs?
A. bicarbonate
B. phosphate
C. both bicarbonate and phosphate are important
D. ammonium

A

A. bicarbonate

153
Q

What is the main buffer in the colon of dogs and cats ?
A. bicarbonate
B. phosphate
C. both bicarbonate and phosphate are importent
D. ammonium

A

B. phosphate

154
Q 
What is not a condition of microbial digestion in the colon?
A. long retention time
B. acid secretion
C. adequate quantity of liquid
D. absorption of metabolic products
A

B. acid secretion

155
Q

What has an effect on the transformation of pepsinogen to active pepsin?
A. hydrochloric acid
B. hydrochloric acid and pepsin
C. hydrochloric acid and enteropeptidase
D. hydrochloric acid and the aromatic aminoacids

A

B. hydrochloric acid and pepsin

156
Q 
How much is the pH optimum of the pepsin ?
A. 8.2 - 8.6
B. 1.3 -2.2
C. 1.8 - 3.8
D. 3.8 - 4
A

C. 1.8 - 3.8

157
Q

Where does the pepsin split?
A. on the C terminal
B. arginine or lysine containing bonds
C. tyrosine or phenylalanine containing bonds
D. phenylalanine, tyrosine or histidine containing bonds

A

D. phenylalanine, tyrosine or histidine containing bonds

158
Q

Where does the trypsine split?
A. on the C terminal
B. arginine or lysine containing bonds
C. tyrosine or phenylalanine containing bonds
D. phenylalanine, tyrosine and histidine containg bonds

A

B. arginine or lysine containing bonds

159
Q

Where does the chymotrypsin split?
A. on the C terminal
B. arginine or lysine contaning bonds
C. tyrosine or phenylalanine containg bonds
D. phenylalanine, tyrosine and histidine containing bonds

A

C. tyrosine or phenylalanine containg bonds

160
Q

Where do the carboxipeptidases split?
A. on the C terminal
B. arginine or lysine contaning bonds
C. tyrosine or phenylalanine containing bonds
D. phenylalanine, tyrosine and histidine containing bonds

A

A. on the C terminal

161
Q 
What enhances the emulsifying ability of bile acids?
A. lecithin
B. cholesterol
C. cholic-acid
D. the polyproteins
A

A. lecithin

162
Q 
Where does the reesterification of the fatty acids in the enterocyte occur?
A. in the SER
B. in the DER
C. in the cytoplasma
D. in the mitochondria
A

A. in the SER

163
Q

How do the chylomicrons leave the enterocyte?
A. by dissolvement on the basal membrane
B. by exocytosis on the basal membrane
C. by dissolvement on the lateral membrane
D. by exocytosis on the lateral membrane

A

D. by exocytosis on the lateral membrane

164
Q

Is there fat digestion in the stomach of an adult mammals?
A. no, because the pH of the stomach does not allow this type of digestion
B. no, because the stomach does not produce fat cleaving enzymes
C. yes , very intensive fat cleaving occurs in the stomach
D. the G-lipase splits the fat in the stomach, but not to an significant extent

A

D. the G-lipase splits the fat in the stomach, but not to an significant extent

165
Q

What and how does lipase split fats?
A. the result of this cleavage is two fatty acids and one 2-monoglyceride
B. it cleaves only the lecithin
C. it cleaves only the cholesterol esthers
D. it releases diglycerides

A

A. the result of this cleavage is two fatty acids and one 2-monoglyceride

166
Q 
What does phospholipase A2 decompose?
A. it cleaves the esther bonds of triglycerides in position 1,3
B. it cleaves the lecithin
C. it cleaves cholesterol
D. it cleaves all kinds of fats
A

B. it cleaves the lecithin

167
Q

What does cholesterol estherase decompose?
A. it cleaves the esther bonds of triglycerides in position 1,3
B. it cleaves the lecithin
C. it cleaves cholesterol esthers
D. it cleaves all kinds of fats

A

C. it cleaves cholesterol esthers

168
Q

How important is the brush border in the degradation of fats?
A. there is no enzymatic digestion bound to the brush border
B. digestion on the brush border is very important
C. digestion on the brush border is not significant
D. there is only digestion on the brush border

A

A. there is no enzymatic digestion bound to the brush border

169
Q

What is the task of apolipoprotein C?
A. signalling the LDL
B. it is the activator of lipoprotein lipase in the wall of capillaries
C. it is found only on micelles
D. it is found only on “remnant” chylomicrones

A

B. it is the activator of lipoprotein lipase in the wall of capillaries

170
Q

What is the task of apolipoprotein B48?
A. signalling the LDL
B. it is the activator of lipoprotein lipase in the wall of capillaries
C. it takes part only in the composition of micelles
D. it is a signal protein on the surface of “remnant” chylomicrones

A

D. it is a signal protein on the surface of “remnant” chylomicrones

171
Q

What is the task of apolipoprotein B100?
A. signalling the LDL
B. it is the activator of lipoprotein lipase in the wall of capillaries
C. it is the part of micelles
D. it is the part of “remnant” chylomicrones

A

A. signalling the LDL

172
Q 
In which part of the intestine does aldosterone increase the resorption of sodium?
A. small intestine
B. cecum
C. both in2 small and large intestines
D. only in the duodenum
A

A. small intestine

173
Q

What kind of Na+ transport is not found on the luminal side of the enterocyte?
A. Na+ - Cl- cotransport
B. cotransport of Na+ and other kinds of organic substances
C. absorption of Na+ by itself
D. Na+ -K+ antiport

A

D. Na+ -K+ antiport

174
Q 
In which part of the intestines do glucocorticoids increase the resorption of Na+?
A. duodenum
B. large intestine
C. both in small and large intestines
D. only in the cecum
A

C. both in small and large intestines

175
Q 
Where does the absorption of Ca2+ and Mg2+ occur?
A. intestinum crassum
B. only in the ileum
C. both intestinum crassum and tenue
D. in the fore-part of intestinum tenue
A

D. in the fore-part of intestinum tenue

176
Q 
Where does the absorption of iron occur?
A. in the large intestine, intestinum crassum
B. only in the ileum
C. in all segments
D. in the duodenum and jejunum
A

D. in the duodenum and jejunum

177
Q 
What binds the iron cations in the lumen of the intestines?
A. transferrin
B. transcorrin
C. ferritin
D. hemosiderin
A

A. transferrin

178
Q

What is the function of ferritin?
A. to absorb iron
B. to store and eliminate iron if it is excess
C. ferritin is the precursor of transferrin
D. the reduction of iron

A

B. to store and eliminate iron if it is excess

179
Q

How does n.vagus influence the forestomach?
A. the ventral branch of vagus supplies the reticulum first
B. the ventral branch of vagus supplies the rumen
C. vagus is the nerve of the abomasum only
D. in ruminants the vagus only supplies the intestines

A

A. the ventral branch of vagus supplies the reticulum first

180
Q 
In ruminants where do light boluses end up?
A. to the dorsal sac of the rumen
B. to the ventral sac of the rumen
C. to the cranial sac of the rumen
D. to the reticulum
A

A. to the dorsal sac of the rumen

181
Q 
In ruminants where do heavy boluses end up?
A. to the dorsal sac of the rumen
B. to the ventral sac of the rumen
C. to the cranial sac of rumen
D. to the reticulum
A

C. to the cranial sac of rumen

182
Q 
Which part of the forestomach can be perforated by foreign objects?
A. the rumen
B. the reticulum
C. the abomasum
D. the omasum
A

B. the reticulum

183
Q 
Which simplified formula describes the movements of the forestomach in rest?
A. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuV
B. Re2-RuD-RuC-RuV
C. RuC-RuC-RuD-RuV
D. Re3-RuC-RuD-RuV
A

A. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuV

184
Q 
Which simplified formula describes the movements of forestomach during rumination?
A. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuV
B. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuV
C. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuV
D. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuV
A

D. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuV

185
Q 
Which simplified formula describes the movements of forestomach during eructation?
A. Re2-RuC-RuC-RuD-RuV
B. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuD-RuV
C. Re3-RuC-RuD-RuD-RuV
D. Re3-RuC-RuC-RuD-RuV
A

B. Re2-RuC-RuD-RuD-RuV

186
Q 
Where does the biphasic contraction of the reticulum send the light food contents of reticulum?
A. to dorsal sac of rumen
B. to ventral sac of rumen
C. to cranial sac of rumen
D. to caudal sac of rumen
A

A. to dorsal sac of rumen

187
Q 
Which part of the rumen plays a leading role in mixing the contents of the reticulum?
A. dorsal and cranial sac of rumen
B. caudoventral and ventral sac rumen
C. cranial and caudal sac of rumen
D. dorsal and caudal sac of rumen
A

A. dorsal and cranial sac of rumen

188
Q 
How long do cattle spend on rumination in a day?
A. 8 hours
B. 15 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
A

A. 8 hours

189
Q 
What initiates regurgitation?
A. expiration with closed glottis
B. expiration with an open glottis
C. rythmic expiration and inspiration
D. inspiration with closed glottis
A

D. inspiration with closed glottis

190
Q 
What occurs in the esophageal part during regurgitation?
A. inspiration
B. expiration
C. apnoea
D. rythmic expiration and inspiration
A

B. expiration

191
Q

Where does the gas go from the esophagus during the eructation?
A. mainly into the spaces of the lung
B. through the oral cavity to the outside
C. through the nasal cavity to the outside
D. through the oral cavity and the nasal cavity to the outside

A

A. mainly into the spaces of the lung

192
Q

What is the composition of the eructated gas?
A. 50% methane, 25% carbon-dioxide, 10% nitrogen, 5% oxygen
B. 50% carbon-dioxide, 25% oxygen, 10% nitrogen, 5% methane
C. 50% nitrogen, 25% carbon-dioxide, methane, 10%, 5% oxygen
D. 50% carbon-dioxide, 25% methane, 10% nitrogen, 5% oxygen

A

D. 50% carbon-dioxide, 25% methane, 10% nitrogen, 5% oxygen

193
Q

What is the stimulus that elicits eructation?
A. cardia contacts the foamy gas phase
B. cardia contacts the compact rumen content
C. the tension of dorsal sac and the cardia contacts the gas phase
D. the reticulum fills with gas

A

C. the tension of dorsal sac and the cardia contacts the gas phase

194
Q

What function does not belong to the omasum?
A. decrease the particle size
B. enzymatic digestion
C. water and electrolite absorption
D. transport between forestomach and abomasum

A

B. enzymatic digestion

195
Q 
Which phase is the suction phase of the reticulo-omasicum?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 3
C. phase 2
D. phase 2-3
A

A. Phase 1

196
Q

Which statement is true for the rumen?
A. 40 C degrees temperature, aerobic, pH neutral
B. 40 C degrees temperature, anaerobic, pH acidic
C. 40 C degrees temperature, anaerobic, pH basic
D. 40 C degrees temperature, anaerobic, pH neutral

A

D. 40 C degrees temperature, anaerobic, pH neutral

197
Q 
Which volatile fatty acid is formed mostly in the rumen?
A. propionic acid
B. acetic acid
C. butyric acid
D. oleic acid
A

B. acetic acid

198
Q 
Which pH helps the volatile fatty acids absorb?
A. neutral
B. acidic
C. basic
D. it is independent of the pH
A

B. acidic

199
Q 
Which pH helps ammonia absorb?
A. neutral
B. acidic
C. basic
D. it is independent of the pH
A

C. basic

200
Q

Is the high lactic acid content in the ruminoreticulum advantageous for the animal
A. yes, because it transforms to propionic acid easily
B. no, because it harms mucous membrane and creates acidosis
C. yes, because it serves as energy source
D. yes, because it stimulates the absorption of glucose

A

B. no, because it harms mucous membrane and creates acidosis

201
Q 
What ion is needed for the function of rennin ?
A. Ca2+
B. Na+
C. K+
D. Mg2+
A

A. Ca2+

202
Q 
In which phase of abomasal activity does the mixing occur?
A. phase 1
B. phase 2
C. phase 3
D. phase 1-2
A

C. phase 3

203
Q

Which salivary gland is missing in birds?
A. Parotid gland
B. Mandibular gland
C. sublingual gland
D. they have all of the glands but there is not ptyalin production

A

A. Parotid gland

204
Q 
Why do birds display coprophagia?
A. they display caecotrophia
B. it is pathological problem
C. it is a bad habit
D. to take up more vitamin and nitrogen
A

D. to take up more vitamin and nitrogen

205
Q

What is the role of unicellular animals in the rumen?
A. the cellulose processing
B. the mechanical loosening of fodder fibres
C. the protein digestion
D. the fat digestion

A

B. the mechanical loosening of fodder fibres

206
Q 
What do the Entodinium species digest in the rumen?
A. chlorophyll
B. fat
C. amylose
D. cellulose
A

A. chlorophyll

207
Q 
What do the Isotrichidae species digest in the rumen?
A. cellulose
B. protein
C. amylose
D. chlorophyll
A

A. cellulose

208
Q 
Which bacterium do organic acids digest in the rumen?
A. Veilonella gasogenes
B. Bacterioides ruminicola
C. Lahnospira multiparus
D. Bacterioides ruminantium
1
A

A. Veilonella gasogenes

209
Q 
Which bacterium does hemicellulose digests in the rumen?
A. Veilonella gasogenes
B. Bacterioides ruminicola
C. Lahnospira multiparus
D. Bacterioides ruminantium
A

C. Lahnospira multiparus

210
Q 
Which bacterium does cellulose digest in the rumen?
A. Veilonella gasogenes
B. Bacterioides ruminicola
C. Bacterioides succinogenes
D. Bacterioides ruminantium
A

C. Bacterioides succinogenes

211
Q 
How many bacteria can be found physiologically in 1 ml of ruminal fluid?
A. 10 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 10 billion
A

D. 10 billion

212
Q 
How many ciliary bacteria can be found physiologically in 1 ml rumen fluid?
A. 10 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 10 billion
A

B. 1 million

Physiology 1 (42 decks)

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