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Physiology 1 > MPQ #6 - Endocrinology > Flashcards

MPQ #6 - Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q 
What is not the role of the pineal gland?
A. Influences the sexual cycle	
B. Increases pigment production	
C. Csychic effects	
D. Protection from free radicals
A

B. Increases pigment production

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2
Q 
How does a high melatonin level affect the sexual maturation of women?
A. doesn't affect it
B. inhibits it	
C. permissively
D. stimulates it
A

B. inhibits it

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3
Q 
Which species' sexual cycle is least dependent on illumination?
A. human's	
B. the dog's	
C. the horse's	
D. the goat's
A

A. human’s

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4
Q 
In which pair of animals does the increasing amount of sunshine stimulate the estrus?
A. in sheep and goat	
B. in horse and goat	
C. in cat and goat	
D. in cat and horse
A

D. in cat and horse

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5
Q 
In which pair of animals does a decreasing amount of sunshine stimulate oestrus?
A. in sheep and goat	
B. in horse and goat	
C. in cat and goat	
D. in cat and horse
A

A. in sheep and goat

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6
Q 
Which cells do the hormones of the thyroid gland affect?
A. neurons	
B. hepatocytes	
C. every body cell except the bone cells
D. every body cell
A

D. every body cell

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7
Q

How does an active thyroid gland appear?
A. cuboidal cells surround a decreased amount of colloid
B. follicles contain relatively little colloid; high cylindrical cells appear with resorption vacuoles
C. they are surrounded by cylindrical cells, the amount of colloid increases due to the active hormone production
D. high colloid content and squamous cells characterize it

A

B. follicles contain relatively little colloid; high cylindrical cells appear with resorption vacuoles

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8
Q 
How does hypothyroidism develop?	
A. due to the lack of iodine	
B. only naturally	
C. only artificially	
D. only surgically
A

A. due to the lack of iodine

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9
Q 
What is the symptom of thyroid deficiency in young animals?
A. acromegaly	
B. proportionate dwarfism	
C. disproportionate dwarfism	
D. apathy
A

C. disproportionate dwarfism

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10
Q 
What can be a symptom of thyroid deficiency in mature animals?
A. dwarfism	
B. disproportionate dwarfism	
C. acromegaly	
D. decreased metabolic rate
A

D. decreased metabolic rate

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11
Q 
What is the Basedow-sydrome?	
A. hypothyroidism	
B. hyperthyroidism	
C. myxodema	
D. cretinism
A

B. hyperthyroidism

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12
Q 
What can be the symptoms of the overproduction of thyroid hormones?
A. weight gain	
B. increased oxygen consumption	
C. apathy	
D. shivering
A

B. increased oxygen consumption

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13
Q

How is the plasma level of the thyroid hormones regulated?
A. the free T4 level plays a greater role than the T3 level
B. via long loop positive feed-back
C. via short loop posiive feed-back
D. the high T4 level of some hypothalamic cells inhibits the production of GnRH

A

A. the free T4 level plays a greater role than the T3 level

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14
Q 
How many types of thyroid hormones does the thyroid gland produce?
A. one	
B. two	
C. three	
D. four
A

C. three

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15
Q 
How is iodine taken up by the thyroid gland?
A. passive process	
B. secondary active tansport	
C. active process	
D. receptor mediated internalization
A

C. active process

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16
Q 
From what elements is the tri-iodo-thyronine composed of?
A. two DIT-s	
B. three thyrosines	
C, three phenolic rings	
D. one MIT, and one DIT
A

D. one MIT, and one DIT

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17
Q 
What is TG ?	
A. a component of the colloid which is contained in the follicule
B. a hormone molecule without iodine
C. a thyroxine tranporter of the plasma
D. a gene regulatory protein
A

A. a component of the colloid which is contained in the follicule

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18
Q

What happens after endocytosis of TGB?
A. it enters into the blood passively
B. the protein breaks down and all iodinated derivatives pass into the blood
C. the protein breaks down and only T3, r-T3 and T4 enter into the blood stream
D. the complete molecules enter into the blood by active transport

A

C. the protein breaks down and only T3, r-T3 and T4 enter into the blood stream

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19
Q 
Which carbon atoms bind iodine in the active T3?
A. 3, 5, 5'	
B. 3, 5, 3'	
C. 3, 3', 5'	
D. 5, 3', 5'
A

B. 3, 5, 3’

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20
Q 
Which carbon atoms bind iodine in rT3?
A. 3, 3', 5'	
B. 3, 5, 5'	
C. 3, 5, 3'	
D. 5, 3', 5'
A

A. 3, 3’, 5’

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21
Q 
Which one is the active thyroid hormone?
A. thyrosine	
B. rT3	
C. T4	
D. T3
A

D. T3

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22
Q 
Which factor does not transport T4 in the plasma?
A. albumin	
B. TBG	
C. TG	
D. TBPA
A

C. TG

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23
Q

What do we call transit time?
A. the time, during which, the tissue is in contact with the blood passing in the capillary
B. the time the hormone spends in the blood stream
C. the time it takes the hormone molecules to enter the cells
D. the time it takes 50% of the receptors to become saturated

A

A. the time, during which, the tissue is in contact with the blood passing in the capillary

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24
Q

Which one of the carrier proteins has the strongest affinity for the thyroid hormones?
A. the affinity of carrier proteins does not differ
B. TBG
C. TBPA
D. albumin

A

B. TBG

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25
Q

What is the direct communication among cells?
A. Substance or charge flow across the gap junction
B. Transmission of information by molecules attached to membrane receptors
C. Secretion of signal peptides
D. transmission of cytoskeletal information

A

A. Substance or charge flow across the gap junction

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26
Q

What is the autocrine effect?
A. The hormone acts on distant cells in other tissues
B. The hormone acts on the same cell that produced the signal
C. the signal acts on cells in the same tissue
D. the signal acts on the hypophysis

A

B. The hormone acts on the same cell that produced the signal

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27
Q 
How do the neurotransmitters reach the target cells?
A. by active transport	
B. by cotransport	
C. by diffusion	
D. by secondary active transport
A

C. by diffusion

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28
Q 
What is the integrator of the neuro-immuno-endocrine regulation?
A. Cortex	
B. Hypothalamus
C. Hypophysis	
D. Cerebellum
A

B. Hypothalamus

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29
Q

Which is an example of a short feedback loop?
A. the hypophysis affects the gland
B. the hypophysis affects the hypthalamus
C. the gland affects the hypothalams
D. the gland affects the hypophysis

A

D. the gland affects the hypophysis

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30
Q

Which statement is true for the group of hydrophilic hormones?
A. They act through membrane receptors
B. They pass across the membrane
C. Their half life is relatively short in the blood circulation
D. They affect the nucleus directly

A

A. They act through membrane receptors

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31
Q 
Which substance is not a second messenger?
cAMP	
sodium ion	
calcium ion	
inositol-trisphosphate
A

sodium ion

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32
Q

Which statement is true for the steroid hormones?
A. they bind to membrane receptors they have no IC
B. receptors
C. their half-life is relatively long in the blood circulation
D. they have a lipophilic character

A

D. they have a lipophilic character

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33
Q

What can be examined by the Scatchard analysis?
A. The affinty of ligand-receptor binding and number of binding sites
B. Only the affinity of the ligand-receptor binding
C. only the number of binding sites
D. The affinity and type of ligand-receptor binding

A

A. The affinty of ligand-receptor binding and number of binding sites

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34
Q

Which statement is true for down-regulation?
A. in case of decreased metabolic needs of the cell the CNS decreases the receptor expression
B. more receptor is expressed due to low levels of hormones
C. after removing the endocrine gland the cells stop expressing the specific receptors
D. long lasting hormonal effects decrease their own recpetor’s expression

A

D. long lasting hormonal effects decrease their own recpetor’s expression

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35
Q

What is transduction?
A. the hormone forms a complex with the receptor
B. the hormone molecule enters the cell
C. molecular events that lead to the biological action
D. one hormone has different effects on two different tissues

A

C. molecular events that lead to the biological action

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36
Q 
Which is not the result of metabotrop signaling?
A. glandular secretion	
B. opening of ion channels	
C. smooth muscle contraction	
D. heat production
A

B. opening of ion channels

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37
Q

Which is true for ligand-receptor interactions?
A. The recpetor cannot work as an ion channel, it only binds the ligand
B. the intracellular receptor exerts its effect through the G-protein system
C. all the membrane receptors work as ion channels
D. G protein system is not activated certainly after the formation ligand-membrane receptor complex

A

D. G protein system is not activated certainly after the formation ligand-membrane receptor complex

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38
Q

Which enzymes can be activated by the G protein system?
A. adenylate cyclase, proteinkinase-A, proteinkinase-C
B. proteinkinase-A, phospholipase-C, adenylate cyclase
C. tyrosine kinase, adenylate cyclase, proteinkinase A
D. proteinkinase-A, proteinkinase-C, phospholipase-C

A

B. proteinkinase-A, phospholipase-C, adenylate cyclase

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39
Q

What is characteristic for the receptors that serve as ion channels?
A. some of them can be stimulated by nicotine
B. they are extracellular proteins
C. some of them can be stimulated by muscarin
D. they activate adenylate cyclase

A

A. some of them can be stimulated by nicotine

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40
Q

Which statement is not true for nicotinic receptors?
A. they can be inhibited by d-tubocuranine
B. they both have 5 subunits in the skeletal muscle and the nerve cells
C. they can be stimulated by small amounts of nicotine
D. in skeletal muscle the delta domain is the acetylcholine binding part

A

D. in skeletal muscle the delta domain is the acetylcholine binding part

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41
Q 
Which substance has a stimulating effect on the glutamate receptors?
A. NMDA	
B. nicotine	
C. DAG	
D. muscarin
A

A. NMDA

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42
Q

Which statement is not true for anion channels?
A. they are present in the inhibitory synapses
B. their activation causes depolarization
C. they are not specific, mainly chloride and bicarbonate may pass across them
D. the two main types are the GABA and glycine sensitive channels

A

B. their activation causes depolarization

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43
Q

How do the cytoplasmic receptors work?
A. after ligand binding the complex binds to nuclear membranes that initiates expression
B. after ligand binding the complex activates enzymes, which initiates expression
C. after ligand binding the complex binds to DNA HRE, which initiates expression
D. after ligand binding the complex goes to the nucleus, the ligand dissociates the receptor from the DNA HRE, which initiates expression

A

C. after ligand binding the complex binds to DNA HRE, which initiates expression

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44
Q

Which statement is false for the cytoplasmic receptors?
A. the hormone binds to the receptor close to its C terminus
B. the short protein component binds to specific DNA sequence
C. The DNA binding domain binds to the DNA HRE sequence
D. the variable domain binds to the DNA promoter

A

D. the variable domain binds to the DNA promoter

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45
Q 
What binds the G-protein in the resting state?
A. GDP	
B. ADP	
C. ATP	
D. GTP
A

A. GDP

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46
Q 
Which part of the G protein is able to activate ion channels?
A. the beta and gamma subunit	
B. the alpha subunit-GTP complex	
C. the alpha subunit-GDP complex	
D. the gamma subunit-DTP complex
A

B. the alpha subunit-GTP complex

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47
Q

What is the Gi protien?
A. the initiator G protein, which “initiates” the action
B. alpha subunit-GDP complex, which inhibits an ion channel
C. alpha subunit-GTP complex, which can inhibit ion channels
D. “inactive” alpha subunit

A

C. alpha subunit-GTP complex, which can inhibit ion channels

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48
Q 
Which is the most common G-protein dependent ion channel?
A. chloride channel	
B. sodium channel	
C. calcium channel	
D. potassium channel
A

D. potassium channel

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49
Q 
Which hormone can not be the ligand of the G-protein dependent ion channel?
A. epinephrine	
B. vasopressin	
C. dopamine	
D. GABA
A

B. vasopressin

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50
Q 
Which is the receptor that does not increase adenylate cyclase activity?
A. alpha-1 catecolamine receptor	
B. beta catecholamine receptor	
C. histamine H2 receptor	
D. ADH V2 receptor
A

A. alpha-1 catecolamine receptor

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51
Q 
Which receptor increases the adenylate cyclase activity?
A. alpha 1 catecholamine receptor	
B. dopamine D2 receptor	
C. dopamine D1 receptor	
D. adrenergic alpha 2 receptor
A

C. dopamine D1 receptor

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52
Q 
Which is a substrate for phospholipase-C?
A. inositol-triphosphate	
B. diacylglycerol	
C. phospho-inositol-diglycerol	
D. phosphatidyl-inositol-bisphosphate
A

D. phosphatidyl-inositol-bisphosphate

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53
Q 
The intracytoplasmic concentration of which ions increase as a response to IP3 stimulation?
A. calcium	
B. potassium	
C. hydrogen	
D. sodium
A

A. calcium

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54
Q 
Which enzyme is activated by DAG in the cell?
A. adenylate-cyclase	
B. protein kinase A	
C. protein kinase C	
D. tyrosine kinase
A

C. protein kinase C

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55
Q 
Which is not a PLC activating ligand?	
A. ADH
B. insulin	
C. oxytocin	
D. histamine
A

B. insulin

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56
Q 
Which material is formed by phospholipase A2 from the phospholipids of the membrane?
A. cholesterol	
B. cortisol	
C. arachidonic acid	
D. oleic acid
A

C. arachidonic acid

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57
Q 
How many carbon atoms are present in arachidonic acid?
A. 16	
B. 18	
C. 20	
D. 22
A

C. 20

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58
Q 
Which is not a member of arachidonic acid activation?
A. hydrogenase pathway	
B. lipoxygenase pathway	
C. epoxygenase pathway	
D. cyclooxygenase pathway
A

A. hydrogenase pathway

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59
Q

Which materials are formed in the cyclooxygenase pathway?
A. prostacyclins, prostaglandins, leukotrienes
B. prostacyclins, prostaglandins, thromboxanes
C. prostaglandins, thromboxanes, lipoxins
D. tromboxanes, lipoxins, leukotriens

A

B. prostacyclins, prostaglandins, thromboxanes

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60
Q 
Which ligand's receptor doesn't work as an IC enzyme?
A. insulin	
B. somatomedins	
C. cytokines	
D. catecholamines
A

D. catecholamines

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61
Q 
During autophosphorylation which amino acid is phosphorylated?
A. tryptophan	
B. threonine
C. tyrosine	
D. alanine
A

C. tyrosine

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62
Q

What is internalization?
A. The hormone is taken into the cell
B. The phosphorylation processes
C. The receptor-enzyme system is taken into the nucleus
D. The hormone-receptor complex is taken into the cell

A

D. The hormone-receptor complex is taken into the cell

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63
Q 
Which is not the member of the parvocellular area of the hypothalamus?
A. nucleus ventromedialis	
B. nucleus paraventricularis	
C. nucleus dorsomedialis	
D. nucleus infundibularis
A

B. nucleus paraventricularis

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64
Q 
What is the product of nucleus supraopticus?
A. Only vasopressin	
B. Oxytocin , and ADH	
C. somatoliberin	
D. melanostatin
A

B. Oxytocin , and ADH

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65
Q 
How are the products transported from the magnocellular area to the place of secretion?
A. By diffusion	
B. By blood flow	
C. By axoplasmatic transport	
D. By the portal circulation
A

C. By axoplasmatic transport

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66
Q 
Where is the action of the hormones produced in the parvocellular area exerted ?
A. In the hypophysis - anterior lobe
B. It the hypophysis - posterior lobe
C. In the hypothalamus	
D. In the thyroid gland
A

A. In the hypophysis - anterior lobe

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67
Q

What happens to the hormone after axonal transport?
A. It is degraded
B. It goes to the lymph vessels
C. It is taken up by the posterior hypophyseal cells
D. It enters the circulation

A

D. It enters the circulation

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68
Q 
Which motor protein transports the products from the neuronal body to the synaptic knob?
A. dynein	
B. kinesin	
C. galanin	
D. bombesin
A

B. kinesin

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69
Q 
Which motor protein transports the products from the synaptic knob to the neuronal body?
A. dynein	
B. kinesin	
C. hormone binding protein	
D. bombesin
A

A. dynein

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70
Q 
Along what element are the hormones transported in the axon?
A. macrofilaments	
B. microsomes	
C. microtubules	
D. myosin fibres
A

C. microtubules

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71
Q

Which hormones are called hypophyseotropic hormones?
A. vasopressin and oxytocin
B. those hypothalamic hormones that reach the adenohypophysis by the portal circulation
C. those magnocellular hormones that reach the adenohypophysis by the portal circulation
D. those parvocellular hormones that reach the neurohypophysis by the portal circulation

A

B. those hypothalamic hormones that reach the adenohypophysis by the portal circulation

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72
Q 
How many amino acids are present in TRH?
A. 3	
B. 5	
C. 10	
D. 0,because it is not peptid
A

A. 3

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73
Q 
How many amino acids are present in PRF?
A. 3	
B. its structure is not correctly known yet
C. 5	
D. 10
A

B. its structure is not correctly known yet

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74
Q

What is the effect of the GnRH?
A. Increases the production of FSH and LH in females
B. Increases the production of FSH and LH in males
C. Increases the production of FSH and LH in females and males
D. Increases the production of FSH in females and males and LH secretion in females

A

C. Increases the production of FSH and LH in females and males

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75
Q 
What is the other name of CRF?	
A. somatoliberin	
B. corticoliberin	
C. corticostatin	
D. VIP
A

B. corticoliberin

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76
Q 
How many aminoacids are there in dopamine?
A. 1	
B. 3	
C. 7	
D. 10
A

A. 1

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77
Q 
Which is not a dopamine containing factor?
A. PIF	
B. PRL-IH	
C. TSH-IH	
D. GH-IH
A

D. GH-IH

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78
Q 
Which one is a general inhibitor in the pituitary gland?
A. NE	
B. MIF	
C. PIF	
D. GIH
A

A. NE

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79
Q 
Which one is a general stimulator in the pituitary gland?
A. galanin	
B. bombesin	
C. serotonin	
D. VIP
A

B. bombesin

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80
Q 
What is substance-P?	
A. a family of hormones that affects gastrin production
B. a tachykinin of paracrine effect
C. melanostatin	
D. an antagonist to galanin
A

B. a tachykinin of paracrine effect

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81
Q 
Which effect is not characteristic of VIP?
A. PRL stimulation	
B. GIF inhibition	
C. TSH stimulation	
D. GIF stimulation
A

C. TSH stimulation

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82
Q 
How many amino acids does ADH consist of?
A. 30	
B. 15	
C. 21	
D. 9
A

D. 9

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83
Q

How does ADH exert its effect?
A. it stimulates water reabsorption in the proximal tubule
B. it stimulates water reabsorption in the distal tubule and in the collecting duct
C. it increases blood pressure via V2 receptors
D. it causes vasodilation

A

B. it stimulates water reabsorption in the distal tubule and in the collecting duct

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84
Q 
What is the main function of oxytocin?
A. causes vasodilation in the myometrium
B. increases blood pressure	
C. inhibits early parturition	
D. preparing the womb for the estrogen answer
A

D. preparing the womb for the estrogen answer

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85
Q

What is the essence of the classical neuroendocrine reflex?
A. some neurons are stimulated by hormones
B. some hormones affect their own production via the hypothalamus
C. the neural signal is translated to a hormonal stimulus by the CNS
D. some hormones can induce hyperreflexia

A

C. the neural signal is translated to a hormonal stimulus by the CNS

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86
Q 
In connection with which hormone can we talk about a classical neuroendocrine reflex?
A. vasopressin	
B. oxytocin	
C. insulin	
D. gastrin
A

B. oxytocin

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87
Q 
What kind of hormones are the pituitary hormones?
A. peptides	
B. lipids	
C. steroids	
D. heteroglycans
A

A. peptides

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88
Q 
Which hormone is not a classical gonadotropin?
A. FSH	
B. LH	
C. PRL	
D. STH
A

D. STH

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89
Q

Which statement is false about pituitary development?
A. pars distalis originates from the ectoderm
B. neurohypophysis originates from the ectoderm
C. adenohypophysis develops in Rathke’s pouch
D. the glandular part originates from endoderm

A

A. pars distalis originates from the ectoderm

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90
Q

Which statement is false about the location of the pituitary?
A. the hypophysis lies in the sella turcica
B. there is no sella turcica in horse
C. it is linked with the hypothalamus by the infundibulum
D. it lies on the basal part of the brain

A

B. there is no sella turcica in horse

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91
Q 
Which hormones are produced by the acidophil cells of the hypophysis?
A. GH,ACTH	
B. PRL,LH	
C. GH,PRL	
D. GH,TSH
A

C. GH,PRL

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92
Q 
Which hormones are produced by the basophil cells of the hypophysis?
A. GH,TSH	
B. LH,TSH	
C. GH,ACTH	
D. TSH, ACTH
A

D. TSH, ACTH

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93
Q 
Which hormone producing cells form large groups?
A. PRL	
B. FSH	
C. GH	
D. LH
A

C. GH

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94
Q 
What is the consequence of hypopituitarism in young animals?
A. acromegaly	
B. reduced sexual activity	
C. enriched fur	
D. disproportionate dwarfism
A

B. reduced sexual activity

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95
Q

Which is not characteristic of STH?
A. pulsatile secretion
B. it is produced by the acidophil cells
C. plasma STH concetration during the day is lower than at night
D. its circadian rhythm is the same as that of ACTH

A

D. its circadian rhythm is the same as that of ACTH

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96
Q

What is characteristic of the growth hormone receptor?
A. after binding the hormone it opens an ion channel
B. after binding the hormone it activates adenylate-cyclase
C. calcium is the second messenger of it
D. it binds GTP

A

B. after binding the hormone it activates adenylate-cyclase

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97
Q

How does GH affect growth?
A. its increased release causes gigantism at any age
B. its reduced release can cause disproportionate growth
C. its increased release causes acromegaly in adults
D. its increased release causes acromegaly in young animals

A

C. its increased release causes acromegaly in adults

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98
Q

When is the level of GH the highest?
A. in the morning hours, in young animals
B. in the late afternoon, in older animals
C. 2-5 hours after falling asleep, in young animals
D. in the morning hours, in all animals

A

C. 2-5 hours after falling asleep, in young animals

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99
Q

What is the effect of GH on protein metabolism?
A. the nitrogen balance of the organism becomes negative
B. it increases the synthetic activity of all cells
C. it decreases the cellular amino acid uptake
D. the free amino acids inhibit its production

A

B. it increases the synthetic activity of all cells

100
Q

How does the GH affect lipid metabolism?
A. it decreases gluconeogenesis
B. it increases catabolic processes
C. it redirects triglycerides from the plasma to the cells
D. it increases the amount of fat in the subcutis

A

B. it increases catabolic processes

101
Q

Which statement is false?
A. GH is a diabetogenic hormone
B. GH inhibits the insulin dependent glucose uptake in adipose tissue
C. extirpation of the adenohypophysis improves the condition of the dog with diabetes
D. GH inhibits glucagon production of pancreas

A

D. GH inhibits glucagon production of pancreas

102
Q 
Which organ's hormone production is stimulated by GH?
A. liver	
B. pancreas	
C. kidney	
D. spleen
A

A. liver

103
Q 
Which is the glandotropic effect of GH?
A. increased bile production	
B. somatomedin production	
C. thyroid hormone production	
D. the inhibition of glucagon synthesis
A

B. somatomedin production

104
Q 
Which tissue does not respond to somatomedin?
A. bone tissue	
B. adipose tissue	
C. cartilaginous tissue	
D. muscle
A

B. adipose tissue

105
Q 
What is the effect of the somatomedins?
A. growth is inhibited	
B. osteoblast inactivation	
C. bone softening	
D. sulphate incorporation into chondrocytes
A

D. sulphate incorporation into chondrocytes

106
Q

Why is the rat called an ever-young animal?
A. because rats live long
B. because rat cells divide with unlimited growth hormone
C. because the surviving ability of these animals is very advanced
D. because the rat’s epiphysis does not cease to grow

A

D. because the rat’s epiphysis does not cease to grow

107
Q

For what do you use the tibia test?
A. qualitative hormone determination
B. quantitative GH determination
C. somatomedin quantitative determination
D. determination the calcium content of the bones

A

B. quantitative GH determination

108
Q 
What can a decreasing GH level cause in the blood?
A. low glucose concentration	
B. low arginine concentration	
C. high thyroid hormone levels	
D. a rise in GHRH level
A

A. low glucose concentration

109
Q

How does the low glucose concentration of the blood affect the GH production?
A. increases liver IGF production and thereby increases the GH secretion
B. directly stimulates GH secretion
C. GHIH secretion increases in the hypothalamus
D. GHRH secretion increases in the hypothalamus

A

D. GHRH secretion increases in the hypothalamus

110
Q

How can we use GH in practice?
A. it is used to increase fat production in swines
B. it is used to inhibit excessive growth rate
C. fat/muscle ratio can be diminished by its use
D. it is used to increase colostral IgG secretion

A

C. fat/muscle ratio can be diminished by its use

111
Q 
Which is the precursor of ACTH?	
A. beta LPH	
B. POMC	
C. CLIP	beta 
D. MSH
A

B. POMC

112
Q 
On which hormone does CRF have no effect?
A. endorphin	
B. enkephalin	
C. ACTH	
D. GH
A

D. GH

113
Q

What is the function of ACTH?
A. reduces the pigmentation of the skin
B. stimulates aldosterone production
C. stimulates the production of the glucocorticoids
D. stimulates the production of the mineralocorticoids

A

C. stimulates the production of the glucocorticoids

114
Q 
What is Addisons-disease?	
A. increased glucocorticoid production
B. skin discolouring due to adrenal insufficiency
C. increased corticosterone production
D. decreased ACTH production
A

B. skin discolouring due to adrenal insufficiency

115
Q

How can steroids influence ACTH production?
A. via the stimulation of CRF
B. via negative effect on CRF
C. via stimulation of TRH
D. by increasing apla 1 receptor sensitivity in the hypothalamus

A

B. via negative effect on CRF

116
Q 
Which factors stimulate TSH secretion?
A. somatostatin	
B. hunger	
C. TRH	
D. stress
A

C. TRH

117
Q 
Which part of the TSH is responsible for the biological action?
A. beta subunit	
B. alpha subunit	
C. gamma subunit	
D. glycosyl group
A

A. beta subunit

118
Q

What is the effect of FSH?
A. increase progesterone synthesis in the corpus luteum
B. increase estrogen synthesis in the corpus luteum
C. increase the Leydig-cells activity in the testis
D. increase spermatogenesis in the testis

A

D. increase spermatogenesis in the testis

119
Q

Which statement is true for FSH?
A. alpha subunit is responsible for the biological action
B. the high sialic acid content increases the half life of FSH
C. it’s a glycoprotein containing about 10% carbohydrate
D. aldosterone decreases the production of FSH

A

C. it’s a glycoprotein containing about 10% carbohydrate

120
Q 
What is the function of LH?	
A. it is the primary factor of ovulation
B. Sertoli cell activation	
C. stimulates the estrogen production of the ovary
D. affects theca cells of the ovary
A

A. it is the primary factor of ovulation

121
Q 
Which is not an effect of PRL?	
A. Initiation of lactogenesis	
B. follicle maturation of the ovary
C. galactopoiesis	
D. ovulation in rat
A

B. follicle maturation of the ovary

122
Q 
Which substance supresses PRL production?
A. somatomedin	
B. somatostatin	
C. GABA	
D. dopamine
A

D. dopamine

123
Q

What does MSH do?
A. increases pigmentation of the perinuclear zone of pigment cells
B. even distribution of pigments in the pigment cells
C. same action as melatonin
D. releases pigments into the blood stream

A

B. even distribution of pigments in the pigment cells

124
Q

What is true for the pineal gland?
A. proteins can not get into its cells because of the blood-brain barrier
B. pineal gland is controlled by the somatic nervous system
C. it produces biogenic amines
D. it is under the control of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

C. it produces biogenic amines

125
Q

What is true for pineal gland activation?
A. decreasing light increases its activity
B. decreasing light decreases its activity
C. its final product is tryptamine
D. it is under the control of the motor cortex

A

A. decreasing light increases its activity

126
Q

What does is meant by the pineal gland being an endocrine transducer?
A. translates light effects into neural signals
B. it transmits light directly to the cortex
C. it translates light effects into endocrine signals
D. transduces hormonal signals towards the eye

A

C. it translates light effects into endocrine signals

127
Q

What is true regarding hormone production by the pineal gland?
A. produces melatonin acetate
B: serotonin production is initiated by a dark stimulus
C. light activates the N-acetyl-transferase enzyme
D. darkness activates the hydroxy-o-methyltransferase enzyme in this tissue

A

D. darkness activates the hydroxy-o-methyltransferase enzyme in this tissue

128
Q 
Which of the transporter molecules has the biggest capacity for thyroxine transport?
A. TBG	
B. TBPA	
C. albumin	
D. all have the same capacity
A

C. albumin

129
Q 
Which transformations can not occur in the peripheral cells?
A. T4 to T3	
B. T3 to T4	
C. T3 to T2	
D. T4 to rT3
A

B. T3 to T4

130
Q 
Which deiodinase is the most abundant in the body?
A. D I	
B. D II	
C. D III	
D. T3 is produced in the same quantity
A

A. D I

131
Q 
Which deiodinase is found mainly in the liver ?
A. D I	
B. D II	
C. D III	
D. none of them
A

A. D I

132
Q 
Which deiodinase is found mainly in the CNS?
A. D I	
B. D II	
C. D III	
D. none of them
A

B. D II

133
Q 
Which organs metabolic rate is affected by thyroxine?
A. brain	
B. heart	
C. gonads	
D. smooth muscle
A

B. heart

134
Q

What is not a characteristic of thyroxine effect on muscles?
A. the activity of the sodium-potassium pump decreases
B. the number of mitocondria decreases
C. the activity of the enzymes producing oxidative phosphorylation increases
D. the endogenic uncoupling factors appear

A

A. the activity of the sodium-potassium pump decreases

135
Q 
How does thyroxine affect carbohydrate metabolism?
A. reduces glucose absorption	
B. reduces gluconeogenesis	
C. raises glycogenolysis	
D. reduces insulin secretion
A

C. raises glycogenolysis

136
Q

How does thyroxine affect lipid metabolism?
A. reduces the FFA level of the blood plasma
B. reduces the cholesterol intake
C. reduces the speed of metabolism
D. reduces the phospholipid content of the blood plasma

A

D. reduces the phospholipid content of the blood plasma

137
Q 
How does thyroxine affect protein metabolism?
A. reduces catabolism	
B. increases protein synthesis	
C. opposes the GH effects	
D. insulin antagonist
A

B. increases protein synthesis

138
Q 
How does thyroxine affect the circulation?
A. permissively	
B. inhibits	
C. stimulates	
D. it has no affect on it
A

A. permissively

139
Q 
What is goitre?	
A. hyperfunction of the thyroid	
B. hypofunction of the thyroid	
C. oedema of the thyroid	
D. enlargement of the thyroid mass
A

D. enlargement of the thyroid mass

140
Q

Why is a high quantity of iodine goitrogenic?
A. a high quantity of iodine inhibits hormone release
B. a high quantity of iodine cannot be absorbed
C. a high quantity of iodine cannot be transformed into elementary iodine
D. a high quantity of iodine destroys epithelial cells of the follicles

A

A. a high quantity of iodine inhibits hormone release

141
Q

Why is SCN goitrogenic?
A. because it inhibits the reduction of ionic iodine
B. because it inhibits the intake of iodine
C. because it inhibits hormone discharge
D. because it destroys the mithocondria of hormone producing cells

A

B. because it inhibits the intake of iodine

142
Q 
What may be the cause of an endemic goitre?
A. large consumption of cabbages	
B. poisoned drinking water	
C. iodine-poor alimentation	
D. the use of fertilizers
A

C. iodine-poor alimentation

143
Q 
In which tissue does iodine not accumulate?
A. in the blood	
B. in the mammary gland	
C. in the intestinal canal	
D. in the adipose tissue
A

D. in the adipose tissue

144
Q

What is the Wolff-Chaikoff effect?
A. when excess iodine intake inhibits the production of thyroid hormones
B. when TSH level increases in the blood
C. when the lack of iodine supply increases the gland’s affinity for iodine
D. when as a result of stress, the gland reacts with an increased hormone production

A

A. when excess iodine intake inhibits the production of thyroid hormones

145
Q

Why is hypopthyroidism common in cats?
A. because most cats do not have the ability to store iodine
B. because Persian cats are more sensitive to a decrease of low feed iodine
C: because in the case of cats the specificity of the hormone producing enzymes is smaller
D. in the case of cats hyperthyroidism is the most common disease

A

D. in the case of cats hyperthyroidism is the most common disease

146
Q

Which statement is true for the adrenal gland?
A. 30% of the organ is cortex, the medulla is of ectodermal origin
B. 95% of the organ is cortex of mesodermal origin, the medulla evolved from the ectoderm
C. 90% of the organ is cortex of ectodermal origin
D. the medulla is of mesenchymal origin

A

B. 95% of the organ is cortex of mesodermal origin, the medulla evolved from the ectoderm

147
Q

What is the sequence of the different layers in the adrenal gland of birds (from the outside to inside)?
A. z fasciculata - z glomerulosa - z reticularis - marrow
B. z reticularis - z glomerulosa - z fasciculata - marrow
C. z glomerulosa - z fasciculata - z reticularis - marrow
D. the cells of the medulla and of the cortical region are mixed

A

D. the cells of the medulla and of the cortical region are mixed

148
Q

What is the sequence of the different layers in the adrenal gland of dogs (from the outside to inside)?
A. z fasciculata - z glomerulosa - z reticularis - marrow
B. z reticularis - z glomerulosa - z fasciculata - marrow
C. z glomerulosa - z fasciculata - z reticularis - marrow
D. the cells of the medulla and of the cortical regions are mixed

A

C. z glomerulosa - z fasciculata - z reticularis - marrow

149
Q 
What is the basic source of steroid hormone synthesis?
A. cortisol	
B. cholesterol	
C. arachidonic acid	
D. linoleic acid
A

B. cholesterol

150
Q 
What is the first key enzyme of steroid synthesis?
A. aromatase	
B. C21 hydroxylase	
C. 20,21-desmolase	
D. 17-alpha-hydroxylase
A

C. 20,21-desmolase

151
Q

The lack of which adrenal cortex enzyme results in death?
A. none of them
B. 21 hydroxylase
C. 17-alpha-hydroxylase
D. 3-beta-hydroxysteroid-dehydrogenase 4-5-isomerase

A

D. 3-beta-hydroxysteroid-dehydrogenase 4-5-isomerase

152
Q 
The lack of which enzyme of the adrenal cortex may cause virilism?
A. C21-hydroxylase	
B. aromatase	
C. 17-20-desmolase	
D. 17-alpha-hydroxylase
A

A. C21-hydroxylase

153
Q

Which synthetic step diverts male and female steroidogenesis?
A. when estrone is transformed
B. when androstenedione is transformed/changes
C. when progesterone is transformed
D. when pregnolone is transformed

A

B. when androstenedione is transformed/changes

154
Q 
How many carbon atoms does testosterone contain?
A. 18	
B. 19	
C. 20	
D. 21
A

B. 19

155
Q 
How many carbon atoms does corticosterone contain?
A. 18	
B. 19	
C. 20	
D. 21
A

D. 21

156
Q 
In which part of the adrenal cortex is aldosterone produced?
A. in the stratum of z. reticularis
B. in the stratum of z. fasciculata
C. in the stratum of z. glomerulosa
D. in all the three strata
A

C. in the stratum of z. glomerulosa

157
Q

What is the function of aldosterone?
A. the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium
B. the reabsorption of water
C. the reabsorption of potassium and hydrogen ions
D. the excretion of sodium and the reabsorption of potassium

A

A. the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium

158
Q

What happens when mineralocorticoids are overdosed?
A. a lot of hydrogen ions will accumulate in the organism
B. the reabsorption of potassium essential for the organism is only possible against one hydrogen ion, that is why aciduria, paradox alkalosis develops
C. hyperosmosis develops
D. because of the lack of potassium tetany develops

A

B. the reabsorption of potassium essential for the organism is only possible against one hydrogen ion, that is why aciduria, paradox alkalosis develops

159
Q 
What happens in the organism in mineralocorticoid deficiency?
A. extracellular hypervolaemia develops
B. hypertension	
C. extracellular hypovolaemia develops
D. myasthenia, paralysis develops
A

C. extracellular hypovolaemia develops

160
Q

Which event has little effect on the production of aldosterone?
A. the production or the lack of ACTH
B. the increase of the potassium concentration of blood plasma
C. the renin-angiotensin system
D. the reduction of the sodium concentration of blood

A

D. the reduction of the sodium concentration of blood

161
Q 
In which species is corticosterone the dominant steroid?
A. hogs and cattle	
B. sheep and goats	
C. birds and rabbits	
D. horses and rats
A

C. birds and rabbits

162
Q 
In which species of animal is cortisol the dominant steroid?
A. hogs and cattle	
B. sheep and hogs	
C. birds and hares	
D. horses and rats
A

B. sheep and hogs

163
Q

How do glucocorticoids affect intermediary metabolism?
A. they increase the decomposition of fats and protein synthesis
B. they increase gluconeogenesis,the N-balance of the organism will be negative
C. they increase the protein synthesis, the cells will burn more sugar
D. fat deposits of the organism will grow because of the greater use of sugar

A

B. they increase gluconeogenesis,the N-balance of the organism will be negative

164
Q 
How do the lack of mineralocorticoids affect the circulatory system and the nervous system?
A. depression and oedema develops	
B. cardiac weakness develops	
C. aggressiveness	
D. apathy, tetany
A

A. depression and oedema develops

165
Q

What pharmacological effects do the glucocorticoids have?
A. they stimulate the formation of fibroblasts
B. they stimulate basophil degranulation
C. their antiphlogistic effect may decrease inflammation
D. they build potassium into the bones

A

C. their antiphlogistic effect may decrease inflammation

166
Q

When can stress develop?
A. when the organism is attacked by viruses and it is followed by the formation of antibodies
B. in every case where the stimulus that hits the organism is harmful
C. when the immune system of the organism does not operate properly
D. when the stimulus that hits the organism is harmful, but there is no possibility of a specific answer

A

D. when the stimulus that hits the organism is harmful, but there is no possibility of a specific answer

167
Q 
What are stressors?	
A. viruses	
B. common, everyday stimuli	
C. surgical interventions	
D. any of the factors mentioned above can be a stressor for the organism
A

D. any of the factors mentioned above can be a stressor for the organism

168
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding stress?
A. in every case the introductory phase consists of ACTH release and the Cannon-reaction
B. glucocorticoids are typical for the resistance phase
C. in the last stadium of stress the reserves of the organism will be exhausted
D. in the stadium of acquired illnesses, inflammation of joints can also develop

A

A. in every case the introductory phase consists of ACTH release and the Cannon-reaction

169
Q

What is typical regarding chromaffin cells?
A. they are parasympathetic neurons
B. they stain a brownish colour with chromium salts
C. they have mesodermal origin
D. they are found in the stratum of the reticular zone of the adrenal gland

A

B. they stain a brownish colour with chromium salts

170
Q

How does the removal of the adrenal medulla affect the organism?
A. the blood-sugar level does not become stable easily after insulin application
B. reproductive performance diminishes
C. the alarm reaction does not develop
D. fatty liver develops

A

A. the blood-sugar level does not become stable easily after insulin application

171
Q 
From which amino-acids are the catecholamines synthesized?
A. from tryptophan	
B. from threonine	
C. from alanine	
D. from phenylalanine
A

D. from phenylalanine

172
Q 
Which sequence of synthesis is correct?
A. phenylalanine-tyrosine-dopa	
B. dopa-dopamine-epinephrine	
C. epinephrine-norepinephrine-dopamine
D. thyrosine-dopa-dopamine
A

D. thyrosine-dopa-dopamine

173
Q 
Which conversion is due to PNMT effect?
A. dopa-dopamine	
B. norepinephrine- epinephrine	
C. dopamine- norepinephrine	
D. dopamine- epinephrine
A

B. norepinephrine- epinephrine

174
Q 
How do the precursors of the catecolamine synthesis get into the granula?
A. by passive diffusion	
B. by facilitated diffusion	
C. by hydrogen antiport	
D. by hydrogen contrastport
A

C. by hydrogen antiport

175
Q 
How does NE get into the cytoplasm?	
A. passively	
B. with the help of a special transporter
C. with the help of hydrogen antiport
D. with the help of hydrogen cotransport
A

A. passively

176
Q 
What does a chromogranin granule contain?
A. the ready made epinephrine	
B. the unused precursors	
C. various modulators	
D. NE,E and modulator peptides
A

D. NE,E and modulator peptides

177
Q

How does the reuptake of norepinephrine proceed?
A. presynaptically through alpha-2 receptors
B. postsynaptically through alpha-1 receptors
C. presynapticallly through alpha-1 receptors
D. postsynaptically through alpha-2 receptors

A

A. presynaptically through alpha-2 receptors

178
Q 
How does enzymatic decomposition of catecholamines happen?
A. in cytoplasma by MAO enzyme	
B. in mitochondria by MAO enzyme	
C. in mitochondria by COMT enzyme	
D. extracellularly by COMT enzyme
A

B. in mitochondria by MAO enzyme

179
Q 
Which receptor is stimulated mainly by epinephrine?
A. alpha 1	
B. alpha 2	
C. beta 1	
D. beta 2
A

D. beta 2

180
Q 
Which receptor's agonist is plenarterol?
A. alpha 1	
B. alpha 2	
C. beta 1	
D. beta 2
A

C. beta 1

181
Q 
Which receptor activates the IP3 pathway?
A. alpha 1	
B. alpha 2	
C. beta 1	
D. beta 2
A

A. alpha 1

182
Q 
What is the major role of the alpha 2 receptor?
A. stimulates smooth muscle contraction
B. it has a function in reuptake	
C. it relaxes smooth muscles	
D. it stimulates the heart
A

B. it has a function in reuptake

183
Q 
What is the effect of alpha 1 receptors on the heart and circulation?
A. stimulates contractility	
B. stimulates heart rate	
C. it causes vasoconstriction	
D. it causes vasodilatation
A

C. it causes vasoconstriction

184
Q

Which of the following do catecholamines depend on the least?
A. concentration of hormone in the blood
B. quality of cell receptors
C. ratio of catecholamine receptors on the target cells
D. time of the day

A

D. time of the day

185
Q 
In which arterioles do alpha receptors predominate?
A. pulmonary	
B. intestinal	
C. skeletal muscle	
D. external muscles of the eyes
A

B. intestinal

186
Q

What causes the small quantity of epinephrine?
A. blood pressure increase
B. blood pressure decrease
C. circulatory redistribution
D. no significant changes can be observed

A

C. circulatory redistribution

187
Q 
How do catecholamines affect metabolism?
A. blood glucose level drops	
B. metabolic rate increases	
C. fat synthesis increases	
D. oxygen consumption decreases
A

B. metabolic rate increases

188
Q 
What effects does beta 2 receptor stimulation have on the eye?
A. m. ciliaris contracts	
B. m. radialis relaxes	
C. m. ciliaris relaxes	
D. both muscles contract
A

C. m. ciliaris relaxes

189
Q 
What is the effect of the alpha 1 receptor?
A. uterine contraction	
B. bronchi dilation	
C. vessel dilatation all around the body
D. insulin secretion diminishes
A

A. uterine contraction

190
Q 
What does the beta 1 receptor stimulate?
A. vasoconstriction	
B. renin secretion	
C. bronchi dilation	
D. uterine contraction
A

C. bronchi dilation

191
Q 
What happens during the alarm reaction?
A. the pupils contract	
B. blood-vessels of skeletal muscles contract
C. hematocrit diminishes	
D. the blood glucose level increases
A

D. the blood glucose level increases

192
Q 
What controls the activity of the adrenal medulla?
A. parasympathetic nervous system	
B. sympathetic nervous system	
C. cerebral cortex	
D. cerebellum
A

B. sympathetic nervous system

193
Q 
Which cells are found in the Islets of Langerhans?
A. A, B, C, D	
B. A, B, D, F	
C. A, B, E, F	
D. A, B, R, H
A

B. A, B, D, F

194
Q 
Which cells of the Islets of Langerhans produce insulin?
A. A	
B. B	
C. D	
D. F
A

B. B

195
Q 
Which cells secrete somatostatin?	
A. A	
B. B	
C. D	
D. F
A

C. D

196
Q 
Which cells secrete glucagon?	
A. A	
B. B	
C. D	
D. F
A

A. A

197
Q 
Which cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide?
A. A	
B. B	
C. D	
D. F
A

D. F

198
Q 
Which hormone has the shortest peptide-chain?
A. insulin	
B. glucagon	
C. somatostatin	
D. PP
A

C. somatostatin

199
Q 
Which hormone is a larger peptide?	
A. insulin	
B. glucagon	
C. somatostatin	
D. PP
A

A. insulin

200
Q 
Which hormone has the shortest half-life?
A. insulin	
B. glucagon	
C. somatostatin	
D. PP
A

D. PP

201
Q 
What's the main function of somatostatin?
A. stimulates digestion	
B. inhibits A and B cells	
C. inhibits extreme insulin production
D. inhibits extreme glucagon production
A

B. inhibits A and B cells

202
Q 
What's the main function of PP?	
A. increases motion of ventricle	
B. decreases emptying of the ventricle
C. increases emptying of the gallbladder
D. increases emptying of the pancreatic enzymes
A

A. increases motion of ventricle

203
Q

How does glucagon affect insulin production?
A. no effect inhibits
B. its production
C. stimulates its production
D. decreases the number of insulin producing cells

A

C. stimulates its production

204
Q 
How does glucagon affect D cells?	
A. stimulates production of somatostatin
B. inhibits their activities	
C. permissive for D cells	
D. no affect
A

A. stimulates production of somatostatin

205
Q 
How does GIP regulate emptying of insulin?
A. mode of feed-back	
B. antagonistic enteroglucagon	
C. the same as somatostatin	
D. mode of feed forward
A

D. mode of feed forward

206
Q 
What type of transporter takes glucose to B cells?
A. GLUT1	
B. GLUT2	
C. GLUT3	
D. GLUT4
A

B. GLUT2

207
Q 
What type of transporter takes glucose to liver cells?
A. GLUT1	
B. GLUT2	
C. GLUT3	
D. GLUT4
A

C. GLUT3

208
Q 
Whath type of transporter takes glucose to muscle cells?
A. GLUT1	
B. GLUT2	
C. GLUT3	
D. GLUT4
A

D. GLUT4

209
Q

How does the glucose in B cells stimulate the release of insulin?
A. increases the level of glucose-1-phosphatase in the cells which gives rise to emptying
B. opens a calcium channel, and the incoming calcium gives rise to emptying
C. ATP increase closes the potassium channels, then depolarization starts and at the end influx of calcium gives rise to release
D: ATP decreases in the cell and insulin is released

A

C. ATP increase closes the potassium channels, then depolarization starts and at the end influx of calcium gives rise to release

210
Q

What nervous effects do B cells receive?
A. they are under central nervous system control
B. they are under sympathetic nervous system control
C. they are under parasympathetic nervous system control
D. they are under autonomic nervous system control

A

D. they are under autonomic nervous system control

211
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system affect B cells?
A. inhibits hormone production
B. stimulates their activity
C. inhibits and also stimulates in a complex way
D. no effect

A

C. inhibits and also stimulates in a complex way

212
Q 
How many types of insulin receptors are known?
A. 1	
B. 2	
C. 5	
D. 7
A

D. 7

213
Q

What are characteristics of the 3rd type of insulin receptors?
A. high affinity, it is found in the liver
B. medium affinity, it is found in the intestinal wall
C. low affinity, it is found in the pancreas
D. high affinity, it is found in neurons

A

D. high affinity, it is found in neurons

214
Q 
How many insulin molecules are bound to an insulin receptor?
A. 1	
B. 2	
C. 3	
D. 4
A

B. 2

215
Q 
Which tissue is dependent on insulin for glucose intake?
A. brain tissue	
B. erythrocytes	
C. muscle tissue	
D. liver
A

C. muscle tissue

216
Q

How does insulin affect protein metabolism?
A. gives rise to a positive nitrogen balance
B. decreases amino-acid intake of all cells
C. increases protein decomposition
D. decreases protein production

A

A. gives rise to a positive nitrogen balance

217
Q 
Which transformation is not stimulated by glucagon?
A. triglyceride into FFA	
B. amino-acid into glucose	
C. glucose into glycogen	
D. FFA into energy
A

C. glucose into glycogen

218
Q 
Which substance can not be the precursor for glucose synthesis?
A. lactic acid	
B. fatty-acid	
C. amino-acid	
D. glycerol
A

B. fatty-acid

219
Q

How does the lack of insulin affect metabolism?
A. by the increased emptying of potassium the organism also loses water, consequently it becomes dehydrated
B. gives rise to positive nitrogen balance
concentration of potassium increases due to C. protein catabolism
D. increases GNG

A

A. by the increased emptying of potassium the organism also loses water, consequently it becomes dehydrated

220
Q

How does the lack of insulin affect fat metabolism?
A. decreases the uptake of fat
B. ketone bodies produced in liver causes ketonuria, and at the same time fat loss develops which causes alkalosis
C. ketonuria causes increase of potassium loss
D. lipaemia develops

A

D. lipaemia develops

221
Q

How does the lack of insulin affect carbohydrate metabolism?
A. brain can’t get energy, which results in coma and death
B. as kidney can’t secrete glucose, hyperglycaemia develops
C. dehydration develops because of osmotic diuresis
D. erythrocytes can’t take up sugar because of glucosuria and they die, which results in serious anemia

A

C. dehydration develops because of osmotic diuresis

222
Q 
Which type of diabetes is not sensitive to insulin?
A. type-I	
B. type-II	
C. type-III	
D. juvenile
A

B. type-II

223
Q 
Which type of diabetes is not sensitive to insulin?
A. type-I	
B. type-II	
C. type-III	
D. juvenile
A

B. type-II

224
Q

What are the characteristics of type-II diabetes?
A. GIP doesn’t have influence on insulin production
B. epinephrine doesn’t have influence on insulin production
C. it is hereditery
D. it can be cured by adjusting dietary intake

A

D. it can be cured by adjusting dietary intake

225
Q 
What characteristics does type-I diabetes have?
A. hereditary	
B. it is frequent in cats and dogs	
C. it is of nutritive origin	
D. it takes place only in adult animals
A

A. hereditary

226
Q 
Which type of cells can produce eicosanoids?
A. enterocytes	
B. liver cells	
C. neurons	
D. all somatic cells
A

D. all somatic cells

227
Q 
What is the starting material in the synthesis of eicosanoids?
A. linoleic acid	
B. linolenic acid	
C. arachidonic acid	
D. oleic acid
A

C. arachidonic acid

228
Q 
Which compunds originate from HPETE?	
A. thromboxanes	
B. lipoxins	
C. leukotrienes	
D. prostacyclins
A

B. lipoxins

229
Q 
Which compounds originate from HETE?	
A. thromboxanes	
B. lipoxins	
C. eukotrienes	
D. prostacyclins
A

C. eukotrienes

230
Q 
Which enzyme catalyzes arachidonic acid - HPETE transformation?
A. Cyclo-oxygenase	
B. peroxidase	
C. epoxygenase	
D. lipoxygenase
A

D. lipoxygenase

231
Q 
Which material originates from PGH2 by the action of prostacyclin-synthetase?
A. PGI	
B. PGE2	
C. PGF2alfa	
D. PGD2
A

A. PGI

232
Q

What kind of receptors bind the the eicosanoids?
A. because they are lipid soluble, they penetrate the membrane and have an IC effect
B. link to ion channels
C. link to tyrosine-kinase receptors
D. they act through the G-protein system

A

D. they act through the G-protein system

233
Q 
Which substances are phlogistic?	
A. prostacyclins and prostaglandins
B. prostaglandins and leukotrienes	
C. prostaglandins and thromboxanes
D. leukotrienes and lipoxins
A

B. prostaglandins and leukotrienes

234
Q 
Which material inhibits the elimination of insulin?
A. PGE2	
B. PGI	
C. lipoxin	
D. leukotriene
A

A. PGE2

235
Q 
Which material prompts the mobilization of calcium from the bone?
A. PGI	
B. PGD2	
C. PGE2	
D. TXB2
A

C. PGE2

236
Q 
The inhibition of which factor prompts TXA2 synthesis in the platelet?
A. PGD2	
B. LT	
C. LX	
D. PGI
A

D. PGI

237
Q 
How does prostacyclin affect the kidney?
A. decreases RPF	
B. increases RPF	
C. increases RPF and antagonises ADH's action
D. act in harmony with ADH
A

C. increases RPF and antagonises ADH’s action

238
Q 
Which enzyme's activation is inhibited by corticoids?
A. cyclo-oxygenase	
B. phospholipase A2	
C. endoperoxidase	
D. thromboxane-synthetase
A

B. phospholipase A2

239
Q 
Which enzyme's activation is inhibited by a salicylic derivate?
A. Cyclo-oxygenase	
B. phospholipase A2's	
C. endoperoxidase	
D. thromboxane-synthetase
A

A. Cyclo-oxygenase

240
Q 
Which enzyme's activation is inhibited by imidazole?
A. cyclo-oxygenase	
B. phospholipase A2	
C. endoperoxidase	
D. thromboxane-synthetase
A

D. thromboxane-synthetase

241
Q 
Which material is not produced in the Merkel's cells of the skin?
A. bombesin like peptide	
B. metenkephalin	
C. substance K	
D. vasoactive intestinal peptide
A

C. substance K

242
Q 
Which organ doesn't produce calcitonin?
A. lung	
B. stomach	
C. thyroid gland	
D. skin
A

B. stomach

243
Q 
To which group does kallidin belong?	
A. neurotensins	
B. somatostatins	
C. endogenous opioids	
D. kinins
A

D. kinins

244
Q 
To which group do the neuromedins belong?
A. neurotensins	
B. bombesin like substances	
C. tachykinins	
D. endogenous opioids
A

B. bombesin like substances

245
Q 
Which group is characterized by these effects: hypothermia, hypoglycaemia, gastric juice output increase?
A. neurotensins	
B. kinins	
C. bombesins	
D. somatostatins
A

C. bombesins

246
Q 
Which group contains the most analgesic compounds?
A. neurotensins	
B. endogenous opioids	
C. somatostatins	
D. kinins
A

A. neurotensins

Physiology 1 (42 decks)

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