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Physiology 1 > MT #1 Cardiovascular + Physiology of the Heart > Flashcards

MT #1 Cardiovascular + Physiology of the Heart Flashcards

1
Q

What determines the contractility?

a. isotonic tension
b. isometric tension
c. maximum isometric tension, maximum contraction speed
d. contraction speed

A

c. maximum isometric tension, maximum contraction speed

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2
Q

What influences the efficiency of the working fibers in the heart?

a. parasympathetic stimulation
b. sympathetic inhibition
c. direct electrical stimulation
d. sympathetic stimulation

A

d. sympathetic stimulation

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3
Q

How does the cardiac output change during the direct stimulation of the heart?

a. the C.O. doesn`t change
b. the C.O. decreases slightly
c. the C.O. increases significantly
d. the C.O. decreases significantly

A

a. the C.O. doesn`t change

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4
Q

How does the cardiac output change if we stimulate the heart through its sympathetic nerve?

a. the C.O. decreases continously
b. the C.O. increases continously
c. the C.O. doesn`t change
d. the C.O. increases slightly

A

b. the C.O. increases continously

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5
Q

How does the systole/diastole rate change with direct stimulation of the heart?

a. systole and diastole decrease
b. systole increases, dyastole decreases
c. systole doesn`t change, dyastole decreases
d. systole decreases, dyastole increases

A

c. systole doesn`t change, dyastole decreases

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6
Q

How does the systole/diastole ratio change if we stimulate the heart through its sympathetic nerve?

a. it increases
b. it decreases
c. it increases the muscle force only
d. the ratio doesn`t change too much

A

d. the ratio doesn`t change too much

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7
Q

How can we measure the cardiac output?

a. on the basis of the Ficks-principle
b. on the basis of the Van`t Hoff law
c. on the basis of the Laplace law
d. on the basis of Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

A

a. on the basis of the Ficks-principle

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8
Q

What formula can be used to calculate the cardiac output?

a. C.O.=QtO2x(CaO2-CvO2)
b. C.O.=QtO2/(CaO2-CvO2)
c. C.O.=QtO2/(CvO2-CaO2)
d. C.O.=QtO2/(CaO2xCvO2)

A

b. C.O.=QtO2/(CaO2-CvO2)

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9
Q

Can we apply the Stewart-principle for the determination of the cardiac output?

a. yes, because we measure the volume
b. yes, when we inject tritiated water
c. yes, but modified, instead of volume we measure volume flow
d. no

A

c. yes, but modified, instead of volume we measure volume flow

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10
Q

What efficiency does the heart have?

a. 80%
b. 30-40%
c. 4%
d. 10-20%

A

d. 10-20%

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11
Q

What is the external work of the heart?

a. The product of systolic volume and the mean arterial pressure
b. The quotient of pulse pressure and the circulatory mid-pressure
c. The product of cardiac output and the arterial mid-pressure
d. the difference of the pressure-work and the kinetic-work

A

a. The product of systolic volume and the mean arterial pressure

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12
Q

What can we show with the help of the Rushmer-diagram?

a. the ratio of external and internal work
b. the ratio of the active and passive component of the external work of the heart
c. the difference between the external and internal work of the heart
d. the efficiency of the work of the heart

A

b. the ratio of the active and passive component of the external work of the heart

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13
Q

What does the passive work of the heart derive from?

a. from the tension during the isovolumetric contraction
b. from the isovolumetric relaxation
c. from the energy stored in the elastic components
d. from the tension of the aortic wall

A

c. from the energy stored in the elastic components

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14
Q

How do the pressure and volume of the left ventricle change during the fast ejection phase of systole?

a. the pressure does not change, the volume decreases significantly
b. the pressure drops, the volume decreases
c. the pressure increases, the volume does not change
d. the pressure increases, the volume decreases

A

d. the pressure increases, the volume decreases

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15
Q

How does the efficiency of the heart change with increasing ventricular volume?

a. It decreases
b. It increases
c. It does not change
d. It decreases, since the oxygen consumption is less

A

a. It decreases

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16
Q

What happens when we stimulate the heart muscle to the threshold potential?

a. Cl and Ca influx
b. K outflow, Na inflow
c. Na influx
d. Ca and Na influx

A

c. Na influx

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17
Q

What happens at a potential of +25 mV?

a. Na inflow stops, K inflow, Cl outflow
b. Ca inflow, Na outflow
c. Na inflow continues, K outflow stops
d. Na inflow stops; Cl inflow begins

A

d. Na inflow stops; Cl inflow begins

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18
Q

What influx happens during the plateau-phase of the heart muscle’s AP?

a. slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow
b. quick Ca inflow, slow K outflow
c. slow Ca outflow, quick K inflow
d. quick Na inflow, slow Ca inflow

A

a. slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow

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19
Q

What is going on in the phase leading to the total repolarization of the heart muscle?

a. slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow
b. rapid K outflow, Ca inflow stops
c. Ca inflow, slow K outflow
d. Na inflow, slow Ca inflow

A

b. rapid K outflow, Ca inflow stops

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20
Q

How does the potassium conductance change during phase 3 of the AP of the working fibers of the heart?

a. it decreases
b. it does not change
c. it increases
d. its change is parallel to the sodium conductance

A

c. it increases

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21
Q

Which ion flux causes the plateau phase in the AP of the heart muscle?

a. potassium
b. chloride
c. sodium
d. mainly calcium

A

d. mainly calcium

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22
Q

How does the sodium conductance change in phase 1 of the AP of the working fibers of the heart?

a. it ceases suddenly
b. it increases
c. it decreases continously
d. it does not change

A

a. it ceases suddenly

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23
Q

What is the most important difference between the action potential of the heart muscle and that of the skeletal muscle?

a. the AP of the heart muscle is shorter
b. the AP of the skeletal muscle has no plateau phase
c. the contraction of the heart muscle starts after the AP
d. the AP of the skeletal muscle overlaps its mechanogram

A

b. the AP of the skeletal muscle has no plateau phase

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24
Q

What answer is produced when the stimulus is given during the absolute refractory phase?

a. a new AP is generated
b. a new AP is produced when the stimulus is strong enough
c. no AP can be produced
d. AP is generated about 300 msecs later

A

c. no AP can be produced

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25
Q

Which statement is correct for the relative refractory period?

a. a slight stimulus may elicit a new AP
b. no stimulus can elicit an AP
c. a normal stimulus causes an AP
d. only a very strong stimulus can elicit an AP

A

d. only a very strong stimulus can elicit an AP

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26
Q

Which statement is correct for the supernormal phase?

a. a very slight stimulus can provoke an AP
b. only a strong stimulus elicits an AP
c. AP cannot be elicited at all in this phase
d. only serial stimuli elicit a new AP

A

a. a very slight stimulus can provoke an AP

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27
Q

In which phase of the AP can a stimulus cause life threatening ventricular fibrillation?

a. absolute refractory period
b. supernormal phase
c. relative refractory period
d. immediately after the diastole

A

b. supernormal phase

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28
Q

What is the center of the nomotopic stimulus formation?

a. septum
b. Purkinje fibers
c. sinoatrial node
d. bundle of His

A

c. sinoatrial node

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29
Q

Which formation generates the pacemaker activity in the heart?

a. large round cells of the SA node
b. elongated cells of the sinoauricular node
c. sympathetic fibers
d. parasympathetic fibers

A

a. large round cells of the SA node

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30
Q

Which formation synchronizes and delays the pacemaker signal?

a. large round cells of the SA node
b. elongated cells of the SA node
c. pacemaker cells of the SA node
d. working muscle fibers

A

b. elongated cells of the SA node

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31
Q

The depolarisation of the pacemaker cells begins at what potential?

a. -90 mV
b. -35 mV
c. -55 mV
d. +35 mV

A

c. -55 mV

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32
Q

What kind of ion channels function in the period of spontaneous diastolic depolarisation?

a. Ih channels, slow Na-channels
b. slow Na-channels
c. fast Na-channels
d. Ih channels, T and L-type channels

A

d. Ih channels, T and L-type channels

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33
Q

Which channels determine the 0 phase of the action potential of the pacemaker cells?

a. fast Na-channels
b. slow Na-channels
c. Ih channels
d. T and L-type Ca-channels

A

a. fast Na-channels

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34
Q

What are the characteristics of the subendocardial conduction?

a. the specialized fibre system projects deep into the ventricular muscle
b. The specialized fibre system does not project deep into the ventricular muscle
c. it occures in large animals
d. elongates the heart cycle

A

b. The specialized fibre system does not project deep into the ventricular muscle

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35
Q

What are the characteristics of the epicardial conduction?

a. it occures in small animals
b. the specialized fibre system is on the surface of the ventricle
c. the specialized fibre system projects deep into the muscles of the ventricle
d. elongates the heart cycle

A

c. the specialized fibre system projects deep into the muscles of the ventricle

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36
Q

What is the function of the sinoatrial node?

a. ventricular activation
b. synchronizes atrial and ventricular contraction
c. delays the conduction time
d. nomotopic excitation

A

d. nomotopic excitation

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37
Q

What is the function of the atrioventricular node?

a. delays the excitation
b. synchronizing the contraction of the two ventricles
c. nomotopic excitation
d. fast ventricular activation

A

a. delays the excitation

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38
Q

What is the function of the annulus fibrosus?

a. ventricular activation
b. synchronization
c. nomotopic stimulus generation
d. heterotopic stimulus generation

A

b. synchronization

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39
Q

What is the function of the His-bundle?

a. delays the conduction of the stimulus
b. nomotopic stimulus generation
c. fast ventricular activation
d. synchronization atrial and ventricular activity

A

c. fast ventricular activation

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40
Q

Where is the conduction the slowest in the heart?

a. in the ventricle
b. in the His-bundle and the Tawara-stalk
c. in the SA node
d. in the AV node

A

d. in the AV node

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41
Q

Where is the conductance the fastest in the heart?

a. in the His and Tawara bundles
b. in the working muscle fibres
c. in the ventricles
d. in the atriovenrticular node

A

a. in the His and Tawara bundles

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42
Q

How does sympathetic stimulation affect the frequency of the heart?

a. it decreases the frequency
b. it increases the frequency
c. there is no change
d. first it increases, later it decreases

A

b. it increases the frequency

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43
Q

How does parasympathetic stimulation affect the frequency of the heart?

a. it increases the frequency
b. there is no change
c. it decreases the frequency
d. first it increases, later it decreases

A

c. it decreases the frequency

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44
Q

What mediates the sympathic effect in the heart?

a. cAMP concentration decreases
b. inhibiting of the beta-1 receptor
c. stimulating the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
d. stimulating the beta-1 receptor

A

d. stimulating the beta-1 receptor

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45
Q

How does the AP of the heart change during sympathetic stimulation?

a. the steepness of the SDD increases
b. the MDP lowers
c. the steepness of the SDD decreases
d. the MDP does not change

A

a. the steepness of the SDD increases

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46
Q

How does the parasympathetic effect act in the heart?

a. via beta-1 receptor stimulation
b. via acetylcholine receptor stimulation
c. by inhibiting the beta-1 receptors
d. increasing the cAMP concentration

A

b. via acetylcholine receptor stimulation

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47
Q

What nerval effect determines the heart function at rest?

a. sympathetic inhibition
b. sympathetic stimulation
c. parasympathetic stimulation
d. parasympathetic inhibition

A

d. parasympathetic inhibition

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48
Q

What neural effects act on the heart in case of increased physical activity?

a. increased sympathetic stimulation, reduced parasympathetic activity
b. increased parasympathetic activity
c. reduced sympathetic activity
d. increased vagal stimulation

A

a. increased sympathetic stimulation, reduced parasympathetic activity

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49
Q

What is the bathmotrop effect?

a. an effect influencing frequency
b. an effect influencing threshold
c. an effect influencing force generation
d. an effect influencing contractility

A

b. an effect influencing threshold

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50
Q

What is the dromotrop effect?

a. an effect influencing frequency
b. an effect influencing threshold
c. an effect influencing conductance
d. an effect influencing SDD

A

c. an effect influencing conductance

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51
Q

What is the inotrop effect?

a. an effect influencing frequency
b. an effect influencing threshold
c. an effect influencing force generation
d. an effect influencing SDD

A

c. an effect influencing force generation

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52
Q

What is the chronotrop effect?

a. an effect influencing frequency
b. an effect influencing force generation
c. an effect influencing conductance
d. an effect influencing threshold

A

a. an effect influencing frequency

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53
Q

How does the parasympathetic nervous system alter the activity of the heart?
a. negative inotrop, chronotrop, positive dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

b. negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect
c. positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect
d. positive inotrop, chronotrop, negative dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

A

b. negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

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54
Q

How does sympathetic nervous system alter the activity of the heart?

a. negative inotrop, chronotrop, positive dromotrop, bathmotrop effect.
b. negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect
c. positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect
d. positive inotrop, chronotrop, negative dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

A

c. positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

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55
Q

What is characteristic of the electro-mechanical coupling in the heart muscle?

a. its main element is the voltage sensitive channel on the membrane of the SR
b. the process is started by the opening of the Na-dependent Ca channel
c. its basis is the increase of the IC potassium level
d. the stimulation of the DHP sensitive proteins

A

d. the stimulation of the DHP sensitive proteins

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56
Q

What directly starts the cross bridge cycling in the heart muscle?

a. the calcium signal
b. conformation change of the voltage c. dependent DHP receptor and T-tubulus
opening of DHP-type Ca channels on the SP membrane
d. pumping of the calcium into the SR

A

a. the calcium signal

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57
Q

What mechanisms make calcium flow out of the IC?
a. ATP dependent calcium pump towards the EC, Na/Ca antiporter towards SR

b. ATP dependent calcium pump towards the SR, Na/Ca antiporter towards EC
c. Na/Ca antiporter towards EC and SR
d. ATP dependent Ca pump towards the SR and EC

A

b. ATP dependent calcium pump towards the SR, Na/Ca antiporter towards EC

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58
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
a. regarding its function, the heart can be considered as an electric dipole

b. a dipole can be described by a vector
c. depolarization vector points from the positive to the negative direction
d. an electrical signal has direction, measure and polarity

A

c. depolarization vector points from the positive to the negative direction

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59
Q

Who constructed the first ECG equipment?

a. A. L. Lavoisier.
b. G. R. Kirchhoff.
c. C. Bernard.
d. W. Einthoven.

A

d. W. Einthoven.

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60
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
a. the sum of the voltage differences measured between the vertices of the equilateral triangle around the dipole is always zero.

b. the sum of voltage differences measured between the vertices of the triangle around the dipole equals unity
c. the Einthoven’s lead is a unipolar lead
d. the depolarization wave causes an upward defelction on the ECG

A

a. the sum of the voltage differences measured between the vertices of the equilateral triangle around the dipole is always zero.

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61
Q

What is the principle of the bipolar lead?
a. potential difference between two electrodes is compared to a third reference point

b. potential difference between two electrodes placed on the surface of a dipol is measured
c. potential difference between two electrodes is compared to a third neutral point
d. potential difference between two electrodes is compared to standard voltage value

A

b. potential difference between two electrodes placed on the surface of a dipol is measured

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62
Q

What can be seen in the oscilloscope during full depolarization?

a. an upwards deflection
b. a downwards deflection
c. an isoelecric line - no deflection
d. an irregular line

A

c. an isoelecric line - no deflection

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63
Q

What is the Einthoven’s first lead?
a. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

b. reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg
c. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg
d. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

A

d. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

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64
Q

What is the Einthoven’s second lead?
a. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

b. reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg
c. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg
d. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

A

a. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

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65
Q

What is the Einthoven’s third lead?
a. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

b. reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg
c. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg
d. reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

A

b. reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

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66
Q

Why is the integral vector of the heart not zero?

a. the measurment points do not form an exact triangle
b. the stimulus passing between the atrium and the ventricle is slowing down
c. the heart is assymmetric it has altering width of wall and the SA node is not in the middle
d. speed of conduction is different in all directions

A

c. the heart is assymmetric it has altering width of wall and the SA node is not in the middle

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67
Q

With which state of the atrial activity does the ventricular depolarization coincide?

a. depolarization
b. activated state
c. repose state
d. repolarization

A

d. repolarization

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68
Q

What does the T-wave describe on the ECG?

a. atrial depolarization
b. SA node depolarization
c. ventricular repolarization
d. atrial repolarization

A

c. ventricular repolarization

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69
Q

What does the PQ segment describe on the ECG?

a. SA node depolarization
b. atrio-ventricular conduction
c. ventricular depolarization
d. atrial repolarization

A

b. atrio-ventricular conduction

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70
Q

What does the QRS complex describe on the ECG?

a. full atrial depolarization
b. full repolarization
c. ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization
d. ventricular repolarization, atrial depolarization

A

c. ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization

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71
Q

What makes the Q wave point downwards?

a. ventricular depolarization spreads to the vertex of the heart
b. repolarization of the right ventricle
c. atrial repolarization
d. ventricular depolarization spreads toward the base of the heart

A

d. ventricular depolarization spreads toward the base of the heart

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72
Q

What does the S-T segment describe?

a. full ventricular depolarization
b. ventricle is fully repolarized
c. atrium is depolarized, ventricle is repolarized
d. full repolarization of the atria

A

a. full ventricular depolarization

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73
Q

What does the T wave represent?

a. atrial repolarization
b. ventricular repolarization
c. atrial depolarization
d. ventricular depolarization

A

b. ventricular repolarization

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74
Q

What does the T-P segment represent?

a. complete atrial depolarization
b. the beginning of ventricular repolarization
c. complete repolarization, state of rest
d. complete ventricular depolarization

A

c. complete repolarization, state of rest

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75
Q

What is the essence of the unipolar lead?
a. to measure the voltage fluctuation between a point of the chest and a limb

b. to connect electrodes placed on the chest, and registers the integrated voltage fluctuations
c. to measure the voltage of a single conduction point only
d. to measure the voltage fluctuation between the examining electrode and a place of 0 potential

A

d. to measure the voltage fluctuation between the examining electrode and a place of 0 potential

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76
Q

Which type of ECG gives precise information about the heart’s anatomical position?

a. vector cardiography
b. esophageal ECG
c. His-Bundle ECG
d. unipolar ECG

A

a. vector cardiography

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77
Q

What causes heartsound I?

a. Closure of semilunar valves
b. Closure of cuspidal valves
c. Sound of sudden ventricular filling
d. Turbulent flow following atrial systole

A

b. Closure of cuspidal valves

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78
Q

What causes heartsound II?

a. Closure of cuspidal valves
b. Sound of sudden ventricular filling
c. Closure of semilunar valves
d. Turbulent flow following atrial systole

A

c. Closure of semilunar valves

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79
Q

Which wave cannot be registered on v. jugularis during the heart-cycle?

a. Wave V
b. Wave C
c. Wave A
d. Wave P

A

d. Wave P

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80
Q

How long is a complete heart-cycle in dogs?

a. 800 msec
b. 270 msec
c. 530 msec
d. 220 msec

A

a. 800 msec

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81
Q

What percent of the ventricular volume gets to the periphery during the fast ejection phase of ventricular systole?

a. 60%
b. 80%
c. 90%
d. 50%

A

b. 80%

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82
Q

Of the following elements of the heart-cycle which is the longest in time?

a. isovolumetric relaxation
b. isovolumetric relaxation
c. ventricular systole
d. atrial systole

A

c. ventricular systole

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83
Q

Which is the shortest element of the heart-cycle?

a. isovolumetric relaxation
b. atrial systole
c. fast phase of auxotonic contraction
d. isovolumetric contraction

A

d. isovolumetric contraction

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84
Q

Where is there no valve in the blood flow?

a. v.cava - right atrium
b. right atrium - right ventricle
c. left atrium - left ventricle
d. left atrium - aorta

A

a. v.cava - right atrium

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85
Q

Where you could find tricuspid valves in the heart?

a. left atrium - left ventricle
b. right atrium - right ventricle
c. left ventricle - aorta
d. right ventricle - a. pulmonalis

A

b. right atrium - right ventricle

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86
Q

Where you could find bicuspid valves in the heart?

a. right atrium - right ventricle
b. left ventricle - aorta
c. left atrium - left ventricle
d. right ventricle - a. pulmonalis

A

c. left atrium - left ventricle

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87
Q

What vessel carries venous blood?

a. a. radialis
b. a. carotis communis
c. v. pulmonalis
d. a. pulmonalis

A

d. a. pulmonalis

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88
Q

What vessel carries arterial blood?

a. v. pulmonalis
b. a. pulmonalis
c. v. cava cranialis
d. v. portae

A

a. v. pulmonalis

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89
Q

How is the mechanical performance of the heart controlled by the nervous system tone?

a. parasympathethic increases
b. sympathethic increases
c. sympathethic decreases
d. no effect on the mechanical performance

A

b. sympathethic increases

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90
Q

How does the nervous system influence the heart basal activity?

a. sympathethic predominance
b. parasympathethic inhibition
c. parasympathethic dominance
d. no effect on the basal activity

A

c. parasympathethic dominance

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91
Q

What is typical for the serial elastic component?

a. inhibits overextension of muscle
b. it is linked parallel with the contractile elements
c. it is stretched in diastole
d. it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole

A

d. it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole

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92
Q

What is typical for the parallel elastic component?
a. energy is stored in it due to the tension which is created by the blood flow-in

b. it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole
c. it is linked serial to the contractile elements
d. inhibits over extension of muscle

A

a. energy is stored in it due to the tension which is created by the blood flow-in

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93
Q

What is typical for the collagen-fiber system?
a. it is linked serial to the contractile elements

b. inhibits over extension of muscle
c. it is stretched in diastole and relaxed in systole
d. it has a fiber-mass value = 1

A

b. inhibits over extension of muscle

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94
Q

What is typical for the isometric phase of the heart activity?

a. movement at the same tension
b. SEC and PEC elements are tensed during this phase
c. there is tension but no movement
d. contractile elements are not contracting but are tensing

A

c. there is tension but no movement

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95
Q

What is typical for the isotonic phase of the heart activity?

a. sudden tension of the collagen fibers
b. no change in contraction of the contracting components during this phase
c. there is tension but no movement
d. there is movement but no change in tension

A

d. there is movement but no change in tension

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96
Q

What happens at the maximal loading of the heart?

a. collagen fibers extend and display maximal resistance
b. collagen fibers relax and reduce their resistance to minimal
c. tension of contractile elements increase
d. SEC and PEC components contract maximal

A

a. collagen fibers extend and display maximal resistance

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97
Q

What conditions allow isotonic contraction?

a. muscle can not move the load
b. muscle can freely move the load
c. muscle works against a spring
d. muscle is supported to a certain length

A

b. muscle can freely move the load

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98
Q

What condition is needed for isometric contraction?

a. muscle can freely move the load
b. muscle works against a spring
c. muscle can not move the load
d. muscle is supported to a certain length

A

c. muscle can not move the load

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99
Q

What condition is needed for auxotonic contraction?

a. muscle is supported to a certain length
b. muscle can not move the load
c. muscle can freely move the load
d. muscle works against a spring

A

d. muscle works against a spring

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100
Q

What type of muscle contraction can be demonstrated in the preload experiment?

a. two-components: first isometric, then isotonic
b. two-components: first isotonic, then isometric
c. one-component: isometric
d. one-component: isotonic

A

a. two-components: first isometric, then isotonic

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101
Q

What do we demonstrate in the “afterload” experiment?

a. two different type of contractions: first isometric, then isotonic
b. two different type of contractions: first isotonic, then isometric
c. the isometric contraction
d. the isotonic contraction

A

b. two different type of contractions: first isotonic, then isometric

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102
Q

What physiological situation can we demonstrate with the preload experiment?
a. heart keeps the balance with the peripheral resistance at the end of the contraction

b. heart muscle reaches a certain length at the end of the systole, then is starts to constrict
c. at the end of the diastole heart starts to constrict
d. at the end of the diastole the heart keeps balance with the peripheral resistance

A

c. at the end of the diastole heart starts to constrict

103
Q

What is the difference between the mechanogram of skeletal and heart muscle?
a. The maximal tension in the heart muscle is at 1.9-2.6 micrometer sarcomere length

b. The optimal sarcomere length is optimal for actin-myosin bridging at 1.9-2.6 micrometer sarcomere length
c. Stretching skeletal muscle has significant energy reserves
d. The heart muscle shows maximal tension at long sarcomeric length(2.5 micrometer)

A

d. The heart muscle shows maximal tension at long sarcomeric length(2.5 micrometer)

104
Q

Why is there no maximal tension in the heart muscle at 2 micrometer sarcomere length?

a. calcium is only sufficient for maximal tension at 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length
b. calcium binding sites are 100% saturated below 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length
c. below 2 micrometer not all the possible bridges can be formed
d. there is not enough calcium due to maximal sarcomere length

A

a. calcium is only sufficient for maximal tension at 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length

105
Q

Which of the below is the sarcomere length of the heart at default function

a. 2.2 micrometers
b. 1.9 micrometers
c. 2.5 micrometers
d. between 2-2.5 micrometers

A

b. 1.9 micrometers

106
Q

What is the reason for the difference between the length-tension diagram of heart and skeletal muscle?
a. the sarcomere structure is different

b. there is only a small amount of calcium in the skeletal muscle after stimulation
c. calcium might enter the IC space in proportion to the extension of the heart muscle
d. 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length is optimal for the heart to work

A

c. calcium might enter the IC space in proportion to the extension of the heart muscle

107
Q

What does the EDV stand for?

a. stroke volume
b. cardiac output
c. volume at the end of systole
d. volume at the end of diastole

A

d. volume at the end of diastole

108
Q

What does the ESV stands for?

a. volume at the end of systole
b. volume at the end of diastole
c. cardiac output
d. stroke volume

A

a. volume at the end of systole

109
Q

What does the SV stands for?

a. volume at the end of diastole
b. stroke volume
c. volume at the end of systole
d. cardiac output

A

b. stroke volume

110
Q

How can the stroke volume be calculated?
a. End systolic volume - end diastolic volume

b. (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x heart frequency
c. end diastolic volume - end systolic volume
d. end diastolic volume + end systolic volume

A

c. end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

111
Q

Which of the parameters below describes the work of the heart?

a. end systolic volume
b. heart frequency
c. stroke volume
d. cardiac output

A

d. cardiac output

112
Q

Which equation describes the Cardiac Output?
a. C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x frequency

b. C.O. = (end systolic volume - end diastolic volume) x frequency
c. C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) / frequency
d. C.O. = (end diastolic volume + end systolic volume) x frequency

A

a. C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x frequency

113
Q

Who formulated the “law of the heart”?

a. C. Bernard
b. H. Starling
c. A. L. Lavoisier
d. W. Einthoven

A

b. H. Starling

114
Q

Which are the most important components of the Starling’s preparations?
a. Intact systemic circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of lung circulation

b. Intact lung circulation, denervated heary, intact systemic circulation
c. Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system
d. Intact lung circulation, intact heard, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system

A

c. Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system

115
Q

What happens when you increase the venous return in the Starling’s preparation?
a. Stroke volume does not change, frequency increases, cardiac output increases

b. Stroke volume and frequency increase, cardiac output increases
c. End diastolic volume increases, stroke volume and frequency do not change
d. End diastolic volume increases immediately, then stroke volume and cardiac output increases, while frequency does not change

A

d. End diastolic volume increases immediately, then stroke volume and cardiac output increases, while frequency does not change

116
Q

What happens when you increase the peripheral resistance in the Starling preparation?
a. End diastolic volume increases immediately, but stroke volume, frequency, and cardiac output do not change

b. End diastolic volume increases immediately, stroke volume and frequency do not change, cardiac output increases
c. Stroke volume does not change, frequency and cardiac output increases
d. Stroke volume, frequency and cardiac output increases

A

a. End diastolic volume increases immediately, but stroke volume, frequency, and cardiac output do not change

117
Q

How does the Starling law apply in case of change in posture?
a. The peripheral resistance changes when the animal stands up, or lies down

b. Venous return changes when the animal stands up, or lies down
c. Changing posture the altered frequency provides the immediate capability to adapt
d. The systolic reserve provides the background of the higher heart performance

A

b. Venous return changes when the animal stands up, or lies down

118
Q

What is the heterometric autoregulation?
a. During one cycle the same amount of blood is pumped out from the left and right heart

b. The different blood volumes entering the left and right side of the heart requires no compensation
c. Higher amount of blood pumped out from one side of the heart dilates the other side, as well, which makes the heart able to pump more blood
d. increased venous return decreases the work of the heart

A

c. Higher amount of blood pumped out from one side of the heart dilates the other side, as well, which makes the heart able to pump more blood

119
Q

What does the Starling “heart law” tell us?
a. The performance of the heart is equal even in changing conditions

b. Increased venous return does not alter the performance of the heart

c. Increased expansion of the heart muscle increases the performance of the heart
slightly

d. Increased expansion of the muscle increases the performance of the heart significantly

A

d. Increased expansion of the muscle increases the performance of the heart significantly

120
Q

What does the compliance of the heart depend on?

a. the inherent abilities of the heart muscle to dilate
b. the end systolic pressure
c. only the peripheral blood pressure
d. the peripheral blood pressure has no effect

A

a. the inherent abilities of the heart muscle to dilate

121
Q

What is the correlation between EDV and SV values?

a. Negative correlation
b. Positive correlation
c. Logarithmic correlation
d. no correlation

A

b. Positive correlation

122
Q

Which parameters influence the end diastolic volume?

a. diastolic filling time, contractility, aortic pressure
b. ventricular compliance, diastolic filling time, contractility
c. ventricular compliance, ventricular preload, diastolic filling time
d. ventricular compliance, aortic pressure, diastolic filling time

A

c. ventricular compliance, ventricular preload, diastolic filling time

123
Q

Which parameters influence the end systolic volume?

a. Venous blood pressure, duration of the systole, contractility
b. ventricular compliance, contractility, duration of the systole
c. contractility, duration of the systole
d. contractility, aortic pressure

A

d. contractility, aortic pressure

124
Q

How does age affect the compliance?

a. Decreases with age
b. Increases with age
c. Compliance curve is shifted to the right in old age
d. Ventricular compliance is not altered by age

A

a. Decreases with age

125
Q

What is the ratio of adult and young EVDP to reach the same EVD?

a. 1.5 to 1
b. 2 to 1
c. 3 to 1
d. 4 to 1

A

b. 2 to 1

126
Q

Which formula can be used to derive the peripheral resistance?

a. Q = delta P / R
b. Q = C.O. / R
c. Q = R / C
d. Q = delta P x R

A

a. Q = delta P / R

127
Q

What is the critical closing pressure?

a. the pressure at which muscles of vessels relax
b. the pressure at which vessels collapse due to their tone
c. the pressure at which resistance of vessels decrease
d. the pressure at which the myogenic tone of vessels increase

A

b. the pressure at which vessels collapse due to their tone

128
Q

What does the Laplace-law state?

a. The pressure is a function of wall tension
b. The pressure is determined by the radius of the hollow organ
c. keeping a given pressure inside a spherical container is influenced by the radius
d. Q = delta P x R

A

c. keeping a given pressure inside a spherical container is influenced by the radius

129
Q

How does the viscosity of the blood change with the increase of the hematocrit value?

a. the change is determined by the diameter of the red blood cells
b. it does not change
c. it decreases
d. it increases

A

d. it increases

130
Q

What is characteristic of laminar flow?

a. liquid layers slide over each other smoothly
b. the maximum velocity of the flow occurs close to the wall of the tube
c. vortex development
d. the flow is determined by the velocity, density and viscosity of the fluid, and the diameter of the tube

A

a. liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

131
Q

Which of the following is not true for turbulent flow?

a. it can be described by the Reynold’s number
b. liquid layers slide over each other smoothly
c. when the Reynold’s number is over 3000 the flow is turbulent
d. liquid layers mix due to vortex formation

A

b. liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

132
Q

What is the physiological importance of laminar flow?
a. while moving in the parietal stream blood cells decrease their resistance

b. it stimulates heart work
c. the slow flow rate alongside the walls of the vessels enables material exchange
d. due to the faster flow rate alongside the walls of vessels the blood cells do not stick to the wall

A

c. the slow flow rate alongside the walls of the vessels enables material exchange

133
Q

What is the function of the arterial section of the circulation?

a. enhances the capacity of the circulation
b. acts as a reserve for blood
c. forms an exchange surface
d. buids up resistance

A

d. buids up resistance

134
Q

What is the function of the capillary section of the circulation?

a. enhances the capacity of the circulation
b. acts as a reserve for blood
c. forms an exchange surface
d. buids up resistance

A

c. forms an exchange surface

135
Q

Which units belong to the serially attached elements of the circulation?

a. Arteries, veins
b. Capillaries of separate organs
c. Arteries, capillaries, veins
d. Arteries of separate organs

A

c. Arteries, capillaries, veins

136
Q

With which formula can you calculate the total resistance of the serially attached elements of the circulatory bed?
a. sum of the reciprocal resistance of the elements

b. the difference of the smallest and largest resistance

c. resistance of the elements should be
multiplied by each other

d. sum of elemtary resistances

A

d. sum of elemtary resistances

137
Q

What is the role of the Windkessel function?

a. it insures a continuous flow of blood
b. it stabilizes the blood pressure in the aorta
c. keeps the pressure constant during systole/diastole in the large arteries
d. during diastole the aorta can actively pump blood to the periphery

A

b. it stabilizes the blood pressure in the aorta

138
Q

What determines the tone of resistance vessels?

a. myogenic tone
b. myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone
c. myogenic and sympathetic vasodilator tone
d. sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone

A

b. myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone

139
Q

Where is the highest number of elastic elements?

a. arterial end of capillary
b. muscular arteries
c. aorta
d. arterioles

A

c. aorta

140
Q

Which blood vessels are the most important resistance segments?

a. aorta
b. muscular arteries
c. capillaries
d. arterioles

A

d. arterioles

141
Q

In which vessels can resistance be adjusted?

a. in muscular arteries
b. in capillaries
c. in the aorta
d. in veins

A

a. in muscular arteries

142
Q

Where can continuous capillaries be found?

a. in liver and hemopoietic tissues
b. in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
c. in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
d. in renal glomeruli

A

b. in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs

143
Q

Where can fenestrated capillaries be found?

a. in liver and hemopoietic tissues
b. in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
c. in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
d. in renal glomeruli

A

c. in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands

144
Q

Where can porous capillaries be found?

a. in liver and hemopoietic tissues
b. in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
c. in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
d. in renal glomeruli

A

d. in renal glomeruli

145
Q

Where can sinusoid capillaries be found?

a. in liver and hemopoietic tissues
b. in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
c. in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
d. in renal glomeruli

A

a. in liver and hemopoietic tissues

146
Q

What characterizes the capillaries of the skin?

a. lamina basalis serves as a barrier for ions
b. single-layered, continuous endothelium
c. ability of contraction
d. lack of pore-like intracellular channels

A

b. single-layered, continuous endothelium

147
Q

What characterizes the capillaries of the intestinal mucosa?

a. thin endothel layer
b. free transport of substances
c. small and large pores
d. reflection of all proteins

A

c. small and large pores

148
Q

What characterizes the capillaries of the kidney?

a. small and large pores
b. lamina densa has a strong positive charge
c. lamina basalis serves as a barrier for ions
d. the large round gaps in it enable free transport of substances

A

d. the large round gaps in it enable free transport of substances

149
Q

What characterizes the capillaries of the hemopoietic organs?

a. place of transport is the Disse-space
b. thin endothel layer
c. ability of contraction
d. lamina densa has a strong negative charge

A

a. place of transport is the Disse-space

150
Q

Which type of capillary is the most common in the body?

a. porous
b. continuous
c. fenestrated
d. sinusoid

A

b. continuous

151
Q

From the following, which is not a venule type?

a. postcapillary
b. collecting
c. elastic
d. muscular

A

c. elastic

152
Q

What is the peculiarity of veins?
a. they are not all able to contract actively

b. veins only with a diameter larger than 5 cm can store significant amount of blood
c. they have an important role in maintaining blood pressure
d. they expand without resistance, and then suddenly they resist

A

d. they expand without resistance, and then suddenly they resist

153
Q

What is true for the parallelly connected sections of the circulation?
a. the total resistance of the elements is smaller than that of the individual organs

b. the total resistance is equal to that of the organs
c. the total resistance is hardly greater than that of the organs
d. the total resistance is equal to 1/Rt = (1/R1 + 1/R2 +… 1/Rn) x n

A

a. the total resistance of the elements is smaller than that of the individual organs

154
Q

Which units are part of the parallelly connected parts of circulation?

a. arteries, capillaries and veins
b. the circulatory bed of the individual organs
c. arteries, veins
d. capillaries of different organs

A

b. the circulatory bed of the individual organs

155
Q

How does the diameter of the individual vessels change in the different sections?
a. diameter of vessels decrease to arterioles, then radically increase to capillaries, then continuously grows up to the big veins

b. the diameter of vessels continuously decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, then it does not change
c. diameter of vessels radically decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, while from the capillaries to the vena cava the change is in the opposite direction
d. diameter of arteries and veins is the order of cm, while that of the capillaries is the order of mm

A

c. diameter of vessels radically decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, while from the capillaries to the vena cava the change is in the opposite direction

156
Q

How does the total diameter of the vessels change in the different sections?
a. total diameter of arteries and veins is hardly smaller than that of capillaries

b. total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the total diameter of large arteries
c. total diameter of capillaries is 100 times greater than the diameter of the aorta
d. total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the diameter of the aorta

A

d. total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the diameter of the aorta

157
Q

In which section can the most blood be found?

a. in veins
b. in capillaries
c. in arteries
d. in arterioles

A

a. in veins

158
Q

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in capacity vessels?

a. 90%
b. 79%
c. 11%
d. 60%

A

b. 79%

159
Q

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in resistance vessels?

a. 2%
b. 79%
c. 11%
d. 30%

A

c. 11%

160
Q

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in the heart?

a. 40%
b. 1%
c. 22%
d. 10%

A

d. 10%

161
Q

What maintains blood pressure?

a. work of the heart and the resistance of peripheral system
b. the work of the heart solely
c. the Windkessel function of the aorta
d. the myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone of arterioles

A

a. work of the heart and the resistance of peripheral system

162
Q

Which of the following factors is not significant in maintaining blood pressure?

a. elasticity of vessels
b. hemoglobin content of the blood
c. cardiac output
d. peripheral resistance

A

b. hemoglobin content of the blood

163
Q

What is the value of the systolic blood pressure?

a. 10.7 kPa
b. 6 kPa
c. 16 kPa
d. 12 kPa

A

c. 16 kPa

164
Q

How much is the value of diastolic blood pressure?

a. 12 kPa
b. 6 kPa
c. 16 kPa
d. 10.7 kPa

A

d. 10.7 kPa

165
Q

What is mid-pressure?

a. difference between diastolic and systolic pressure
b. corrected average of systolic and diastolic pressure
c. quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure
d. static pressure on the vessels

A

b. corrected average of systolic and diastolic pressure

166
Q

What is ordinary respiratory pressure?

a. difference between diastolic and systolic pressure
b. simple average of systolic and diastolic pressure
c. static pressure on the walls of the vessels
d. quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure

A

c. static pressure on the walls of the vessels

167
Q

What determines the value of mid-pressure the most?

a. static pressure of blood
b. circulating quantity of blood
c. elasticity of the vessels
d. cardiac output and the peripherial resistance

A

d. cardiac output and the peripherial resistance

168
Q

What determines most the pulse-pressure?

a. cardiac output and arterial compliance
b. total quantity of circulating blood
c. cardiac output
d. static pressure of blood

A

a. cardiac output and arterial compliance

169
Q

How does the blood pressure change if cardiac output increases suddenly?

a. the change of cardiac output has no effect on blood pressure
b. blood pressure increases after some heart-cycles
c. blood pressure increases immediately
d. it decreases

A

b. blood pressure increases after some heart-cycles

170
Q

How does the increase of heart rate influence blood pressure?

a. it decreases blood pressure
b. it has no effect on blood pressure
c. it increases blood pressure
d. it becomes fluctuating

A

c. it increases blood pressure

171
Q

How does the increase of peripheral resistance influence peripheral effusion?
a. it decreases it continuously, then effusion increases after some minutes

b. it has no effect on peripherial effusion
c. it increases peripherial effusion
d. it decreases peripherial effusion, then after some cycles of the heart the original cardiac output is restored

A

d. it decreases peripherial effusion, then after some cycles of the heart the original cardiac output is restored

172
Q

How does the increase of arterial blood volume influence blood pressure?

a. pulse pressure and mid-pressure increase
b. systolic pressure increases
c. diastolic pressure increases
d. static pressure on the vessels increases

A

a. pulse pressure and mid-pressure increase

173
Q

How does expansion of blood-vessels change in the elderly?

a. in a healthy individual age does not influence the elasticity of the vessels
b. pulse-pressure increases, compliance decreases
c. compliance increases
d. elasticity decreases

A

b. pulse-pressure increases, compliance decreases

174
Q

Where can the highest value of blood pressure be measured?

a. in the arteries
b. in the a. pulmonalis
c. in the left ventricle and in the aorta
d. in the right ventricle

A

c. in the left ventricle and in the aorta

175
Q

Where can the lowest value of blood pressure be measured?

a. in the right ventricle
b. venous side of the capillary
c. in the left atrium
d. in the right atrium

A

d. in the right atrium

176
Q

What causes the notch on the descending side of the arterial pulse wave?

a. reflection pressure
b. static pressure
c. the difference in the pressure between two points of the artery
d. dimmed effect of systolic pressure

A

a. reflection pressure

177
Q

How much is the velocity of pulse-wave?

a. 40 cm/sec
b. 7 m/sec
c. 0.3 mm/sec
d. 1.2 m/sec

A

b. 7 m/sec

178
Q

How does the value of pressure-pulse change towards the periphery?

a. it decreases
b. first it increases, then later it decreases
c. it increases
d. it does not change

A

c. it increases

179
Q

How does the value of flow-pulse change from the aorta towards the small arteries?

a. it does not change
b. first it increases, then it decreases
c. it increases
d. it decreases

A

d. it decreases

180
Q

On which section of the circulation does pulse-wave attenuate?

a. in the metarterioles
b. in the capillaries
c. in the small arteries
d. in the venule

A

a. in the metarterioles

181
Q

How does the value of midpressure change towards periphery?

a. it increases
b. it decreases continuously
c. first it decreases, then it increases
d. it does not change

A

b. it decreases continuously

182
Q

On which section of the circulation does blood flow become continuous?

a. in the capillaries
b. in the small arteries
c. after the metarterioles
d. in the venule

A

c. after the metarterioles

183
Q

Which process is dominant in the material exchange?

a. transcytosis
b. resorption
c. filtration
d. diffusion

A

d. diffusion

184
Q

What process determines the interstitial volume?

a. filtration/resorption
b. diffusion
c. filtration
d. filtration, diffusion

A

a. filtration/resorption

185
Q

On which interface do we find single muscle sphincter?

a. small arterioles - metarteriola
b. metarterioles - capillary
c. small arterioles - capillary
d. capillary - venule

A

b. metarterioles - capillary

186
Q

What is the percentage of capillaries that are open during resting state?

a. 1-2 %
b. 10-20 %
c. 5-10 %
d. 50 %

A

c. 5-10 %

187
Q

How much time does the total gas exchange in capillaries during resting state take?

a. 400-500 msec
b. 1 sec
c. 20-30 msec
d. 200-300 msec

A

d. 200-300 msec

188
Q

Which of the following factors does not influence the measurement of diffusion?

a. number of red blood cells
b. concentration gradients
c. permeability
d. surface area

A

a. number of red blood cells

189
Q

How large is the water transport by diffusion?

a. 0.6 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue
b. 300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue
c. 0.06 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue
d. 30 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

A

b. 300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

190
Q

How large is the water transport with filtration and resorption?

a. 0.6 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue
b. 300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue
c. 0.06 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue
d. 30 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue

A

c. 0.06 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

191
Q

Which of the following substances do not move by diffusion?

a. small molecular weight metabolites
b. the small molecular weight nutrients
c. gases
d. proteins

A

d. proteins

192
Q

Which of the following substance exchange is limited by its diffusion capability?

a. proteins
b. glucose
c. gases
d. small molecular nutrients

A

a. proteins

193
Q

How does the the oxygen diffusion change in the capillaries?
a. the partial pressure of the O2 linearly decreases as it flows towards the veins

b. the partial pressure of the O2 rapidly decreases as it flows towards the veins
c. the partial pressure of the O2 slightly decreases as it flows towards the veins
d. the partial pressure of the O2 increases as it flows towards the veins

A

b. the partial pressure of the O2 rapidly decreases as it flows towards the veins

194
Q

What is typical of the flow dependent material exchange?
a. the concentration increases in a small degree toward the venous side of capillaries

b. the concentration in the capillaries increases significantly towards the venous capillaries
c. it has a crucial importance in the case of easily diffusing substances
d. the growing flow rate reduces the substance deposition toward the tissues

A

c. it has a crucial importance in the case of easily diffusing substances

195
Q

What is typical of the diffusion limited transport?

a. the concentration does not change alongside the capillaries
b. the concentration rapidly increases in the tissue toward the venous side of the capillaries
c. it is typical of the transport of the easily diffusing substances
d. capillary transit time influences the rate of transport of large molecules

A

d. capillary transit time influences the rate of transport of large molecules

196
Q

What do we call Starling forces?
a. all the forces that play a role in the formation of the effective filtration pressure

b. all the forces that affect the oncotic pressure
c. all the facts that regulate the capillary permeability
d. all the facts that affect the effective hydrostatic pressure

A

a. all the forces that play a role in the formation of the effective filtration pressure

197
Q

What is typical for capillaries?
a. in the arterial capillaries filtration, in the venous resorption occurs

b. in some of the capillaries filtration, in others resorbtion happens
c. because of the loss of fluid the hydrostatic pressure decreases towards the venous side of the capillary
d. the effective filtration pressure is constant alongside the capillaries

A

b. in some of the capillaries filtration, in others resorbtion happens

198
Q

How can we calculate the effective filtration pressure?
a. on the basis of the difference between the oncotic pressure in the capillary and the blood pressure

b. on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure
c. on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure
d. it is the product of the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure

A

c. on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure

199
Q

What determines the filtration rate?

a. the oncotic pressure of the plasma
b. the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitium
c. the hydrostatic pressure of the plasma
d. the effective filtration pressure and the capillary permeability

A

d. the effective filtration pressure and the capillary permeability

200
Q

Which formula describes filtration rate?

a. Q= P effective x filtration coefficient of the capillary
b. Q= P hydrostatic x coefficient of the capillayr filtration
c. Q= P effective / coefficient of the capillary filtration
d. Q= (P onc.- P hidr.) x coefficient of the capillary filtration

A

a. Q= P effective x filtration coefficient of the capillary

201
Q

How much surplus filtrate is produced normally?

a. 1-2 ml / 100 kg
b. 10-15 ml / 100 kg
c. 3-4 ml / 100 kg
d. 30-40 ml / 100 kg

A

c. 3-4 ml / 100 kg

202
Q

What happens with the filtrate surplus at the interstitium?

a. the veins carry it away
b. it increases the oncotic pressure in the interstitium
c. it increases the hydrostatic pressure in the interstitium
d. the lymph vessels carry it away

A

d. the lymph vessels carry it away

203
Q

What is the most important fact which plays a role in the maintenance of the venous circulation?

a. the work of the heart
b. the presence of the valves
c. the peripheral resistance
d. the gravitation

A

a. the work of the heart

204
Q

How does the venous blood pressure change?
a. it is low in the small veins and the venules but grows toward the right atrium

b. it decreases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium

c. it increases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium
d. it does not change between the venules and the big veins but then it decreases suddenly

A

b. it decreases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium

205
Q

What is the most important factor in the extrinsic regulation of the circulation?

a. local autoregulation
b. nutritive demand of the tissues
c. the regulated contractile state of resistance and capacitance vessels
d. the effects of the parasymphatetic tone on the blood vessels

A

c. the regulated contractile state of resistance and capacitance vessels

206
Q

What happens when the blood pressure drops in an organ of high metabolic rate?

a. the tissue is damaged
b. nutrient supply to the cells decrease
c. vessel contraction compensates this change
d. normal perfusion is restored by adaptive vessel relaxation

A

d. normal perfusion is restored by adaptive vessel relaxation

207
Q

What happens if the blood pressure increases in a given organ of steady metabolic rate?
a. because of the compensatory contraction of the vessels the normal perfusion is restored

b. because of the relaxation of the vessels the blood pressure decreases
c. the metabolic rate increases in the tissues
d. oedema evolves

A

a. because of the compensatory contraction of the vessels the normal perfusion is restored

208
Q

In which range can the autoregulation restore normal perfusion?

a. 90-110 Hgmm
b. 40-140 Hgmm
c. 80-120 Hgmm
d. 20-240 Hgmm

A

b. 40-140 Hgmm

209
Q

What is the Bayliss-effect?

a. the circulation is under endocrine control
b. the constant midpressure of the arteries ensures microcirculation
c. increase of heart frequency in case of atrial expansion
d. the vessels reply to the decrease of pressure with relaxation

A

c. increase of heart frequency in case of atrial expansion

210
Q

What plays a role in the local adjustment of perfusion?

a. simply the laws of physics
b. parasymphathetic neural regulation
c. symphathetic neural regulation
d. myogenic answer

A

d. myogenic answer

211
Q

What role does the endothel layer have in the regulation of perfusion?

a. the factors produced by it influence contraction state of the muscular layer of the vessels
b. the NO produced by it contracts the vessels
c. the EDCF produced by it increases the blood flow
d. ERDF production of smooth muscles is stimulated

A

a. the factors produced by it influence contraction state of the muscular layer of the vessels

212
Q

How do smooth muscle elements react to acetylcholine in the walls of blood-vessels with a continuous endothel?

a. contraction
b. indirect relaxation
c. direct relaxation
d. EDCF mediated contraction

A

b. indirect relaxation

213
Q

What determines the diameter of blood-vessels?
a. the quantity of acetylcholine and other factors in the plasma

b. hormone producing ability of the endothel cell
c. the equilibrium of the sympathetic vasomotor tone and NO production
d. the metabolic state of the smooth muscle of the blood vessel

A

c. the equilibrium of the sympathetic vasomotor tone and NO production

214
Q

What stimulates NO synthesis?

a. release of endothelins
b. decreased bradikinin, histamine levels
c. decreased adenosine concentration
d. increased adenosine concentration

A

d. increased adenosine concentration

215
Q

Which substance is not part of the EDCF-family?

a. substance P
b. cyclooxigenase dependent factors
c. endothelins
d. angiotensin-II

A

a. substance P

216
Q

What changes take place in the tissues when their metabolic rate increases?

a. partial pressure of oxygen increases in the tissue
b. due to the indirect effect of EC metabolites perfusion increases
c. concentration of EC metabolites decreases perfusion
d. with their humoral signals enothel cells decrease perfusion

A

b. due to the indirect effect of EC metabolites perfusion increases

217
Q

What is hyperaemia?

a. susceptibility to bleeding
b. increased hematocrit value
c. local increase of perfusion
d. high blood pressure

A

c. local increase of perfusion

218
Q

When can we speak of active hyperaemia?
a. when increased perfusion is generated locally to compensate the decrease of systemic blood pressure

b. when increased perfusion is due to the increase of systemic blood pressure
c. when increased perfusion is a secondary effect
d. when perfusion increases parallelly with the increase of local metabolic rate

A

d. when perfusion increases parallelly with the increase of local metabolic rate

219
Q

In what ways can the decreased partial pressure of O2 influence perfusion?
a. primarily bystimulating NO release

b. decreased partial pressure of O2 acts only

c. indirectly on smooth muscle
mediated by an increased partial pressure of CO2

d. by increasing hydrogen concentration

A

a. primarily bystimulating NO release

220
Q

Where is the pressor center located?

a. in the caudal region of the reticular formation
b. in the dorsolateral region of the reticular formation
c. in the caudomedial region of the reticular formation
d. in the lateral region of hypothalamus

A

b. in the dorsolateral region of the reticular formation

221
Q

Where is the depressor center located??

a. in the caudal region of the reticular formation
b. in the dorsolateral region of reticular formation
c. in the ventromedial region of the reticular formation
d. in the medial region of hypothalamus

A

c. in the ventromedial region of the reticular formation

222
Q

What is true for depressor effect?

a. it causes vasoconstiction in the periphery
b. has a positive chronotrop and dromotrop effect
c. has spontaneous activity which decreases heart rate
d. it is mediated by n.vagus

A

d. it is mediated by n.vagus

223
Q

What is true for pressor effect?

a. has spontaneous activity, and it is mediated by the thoracolumbal sympathetic neurons
b. it causes vasodilatation
c. has a negative chronotrop and dromotrop effect
d. it is mediated by n.vagus

A

a. has spontaneous activity, and it is mediated

224
Q

What is the effect of sympathetic nervous system on the resistance vessels?
a. general vasoconstriction

b. vasodilatation in skeletal muscle, vasoconstriction in the splanchnic region
c. general vasodilatation
d. vasoconsriction in skeletal muscle, vasodilatation in the splanchnic region

A

b. vasodilatation in skeletal muscle, vasoconstriction in the splanchnic region

225
Q

What is the effect of sympathetic nervous system on the capacitance vessels?

a. vasodilatation
b. mild vasoconstriction
c. a little increase in sympathetic tone evokes immediate strong contraction
d. has little or no effect

A

c. a little increase in sympathetic tone evokes immediate strong contraction

226
Q

Of the following organs which is under parasympathetic control?

a. resistance vessels
b. skeletal muscle arterioles
c. skin vessels
d. heart

A

d. heart

227
Q

What is the role of parasympathetic system in the adjustment of the diamater of blood vessels?

a. no significant effect
b. strong vasodilator effect
c. mild vasoconstrictor effect
d. strong vasoconstrictor effect

A

a. no significant effect

228
Q

In which organ can indirect parasymathetic vasodilatation be found?

a. corpora cavernosa
b. salivary gland
c. uterus
d. pancreas

A

b. salivary gland

229
Q

In which organ can direct parasymathetic vasodilatation be found?

a. salivary gland
b. skin
c. uterus
d. liver

A

c. uterus

230
Q

What is the effect of a small quantity of epinephrine on the blood vessels?
a. general constriction

b. coronary constriction

c. dilatation in skin, constriction in skeletal
muscle and splanchnic regions

d. dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions

A

d. dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions

231
Q

What is the effect of a large quantity of epinephrine on the blood vessels?

a. generalized vasoconstriction
b. dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic
c. dilatation in skin, constriction in skeletal muscle and splanchnic
d. coronary constriction

A

a. generalized vasoconstriction

232
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the blood vessels?

a. beta-adrenergic constriction
b. alpha-adrenergic constriction
c. alpha-adrenergic dilatation
d. beta-adrenergic dilatation

A

b. alpha-adrenergic constriction

233
Q

What did the Heymans experiment prove?

a. the presence of volume receptors
b. the presence of osmotic receptors
c. the presence of baroreceptors
d. the presence of gas receptors

A

c. the presence of baroreceptors

234
Q

How does blood pressure change after the destruction of baroreceptors?

a. blood pressure does not change substantially
b. blood pressure increases beyond 180 mmHg
c. blood pressure decreases below 80 mmHg
d. blood pressure fluctuates between 40-170 mmHg

A

d. blood pressure fluctuates between 40-170 mmHg

235
Q

In case of what blood pressures does baroreceptor reflex regulate?

a. between 50-170 mmHg
b. below 80 mmHg
c. over 120 mmHg
d. between 80-120 mmHg

A

a. between 50-170 mmHg

236
Q

What defensive processes act below 50 mmHg blood pressure?
a. maximal parasympathetic effect, ceasing sympathetic activity

b. continuous maximal sympathetic and ceasing parasympathetic activity
c. in different parts of the organism simultaneously either increased parasympathetic or increased sympathetic activity can be observed
d. slow increase in sympathic activity

A

b. continuous maximal sympathetic and ceasing parasympathetic activity

237
Q

What kind of protecting processes begin above 17O mmHg blood pressure?

a. continuous maximal sympathetic and discontinued parasympathetic activity
b. mixed sympathetic and parasympathetic activities
c. maximal parasympathetic effect, discontinued sympathetic activity
d. slight parasympathetic increase

A

c. maximal parasympathetic effect, discontinued sympathetic activity

238
Q

Where are baroreceptors located?

a. glomus caroticum
b. a. pulmonalis
c. glomus aorticum
d. arcus aortae

A

d. arcus aortae

239
Q

Where are oxygen sensitive receptors located?

a. glomus aotricum
b. a. pulmonalis
c. sinus caroticus
d. arcus aortae

A

a. glomus aotricum

240
Q

What kind of effects are responsible for vasodilation?

a. increasing parasympathetic effect
b. decreasing sympatethic effect
c. increased tissue oxygen concentration
d. decreased tissue CO2 level

A

b. decreasing sympatethic effect

241
Q

In which animal do we find sympathetic cholinergic vasodilatation?

a. in birds
b. in ruminants
c. in dog and cat
d. in horse and pig

A

c. in dog and cat

242
Q

What mechanism acts against hypervolemia?

a. a peptide that is produced in the left ventricle increases sodium excretion
b. ANP is produced and it decerases sodium excretion
c. ADH is produced and increases water loss
d. decreased ADH and increased ANP production

A

d. decreased ADH and increased ANP production

243
Q

What is the Bainbridge reflex?

a. increasing volume of the atria increases heart frequency if it was low previously
b. increasing volume of the atria decreases heart frequency
c. it is the same as the Starling mechanism
d. it is a depressor reflex

A

a. increasing volume of the atria increases heart frequency if it was low previously

244
Q

How is cardiovascular and respiratory interrelated?

a. the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation
b. the increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation
c. the increase of the pCO2 in the glomus caroticum causes significant sympathetic activation
d. the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant parasympathetic activation

A

b. the increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

245
Q

How is cardiovascular and respiratory interrelated?
a. the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

b. the increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation
c. the increase of the pCO2 in the glomus caroticum causes significant sympathetic activation
d. the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant parasympathetic activation

A

b. the increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

246
Q

In the long run what is the most important regulator of coronary circulation?

a. the actual stage of the heart cycle
b. the aortic pressure change
c. the metabolic state of the heart
d. the arterial mean pressure

A

c. the metabolic state of the heart

247
Q

In which phase of heart cycle does the blood flow backward in the coronary artery?

a. never
b. slow ejection
c. fast ejection
d. fast filling

A

d. fast filling

248
Q

what phase of the heart cycle gets more blood into the coronary artery?

a. diastole
b. systole
c. slow filling
d. fast ejection

A

a. diastole

249
Q

What characterizes the regulation of brain circulation?
a. the perfusion is kept constant in different regions of the brain

b. the intravasal / EC volume is kept constant
c. mostly the sympathetic innervation regulates the ampleness of vessel
d. the principal local regulator is the pO2

A

b. the intravasal / EC volume is kept constant

250
Q

In which range of mean pressure is the brain circulation constant?

a. 90-110 mmHg
b. 80-120 mmHg
c. 30-200 mmHg
d. 60-160 mmHg

A

d. 60-160 mmHg

251
Q

What is the most important role of the skin circulation?

a. supporting heat balance
b. blood storing function
c. covering the high oxygen and nutrient demand of this organ
d. enlarging the resistance segment of the circulation

A

a. supporting heat balance

252
Q

What characterizes the splanchnic circulation?

a. extensive metabolic autoregulation
b. low capacity
c. double circulation, portal system
d. myogenic autoregulation

A

c. double circulation, portal system

253
Q

Among the following statements which is true for the splanchnic circulation?

a. low capacity
b. the liver has no significant reservoir function
c. the autoregulation has primary role
d. main regulator is the vasoconstrictor tone

A

d. main regulator is the vasoconstrictor tone

254
Q

What characterizes the fetal circulation?

a. the left ventricle pumps 2O% larger volumes than the right ventricule
b. two-thirds of blood flows to cranial areas from the aorta
c. the pressure of the pulmonary artery is 5 mmHg higher than the pressure of the aorta
d. O2 saturation of the a. umbilica is 85%

A

a. the left ventricle pumps 2O% larger volumes than the right ventricule

Physiology 1 (42 decks)

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