MIDTERM Flashcards
1
Q
What body changes does dieting cause due to increased cortisol?
A
Increases blood glucose by inducing gluconeogenesis, increases insulin production, suppresses immune function, speeds up aging by shortening telomeres, and leads to muscle mass loss and fat gain.
Cortisol causes glucose to be made from muscle protein, which is counterproductive during dieting.
2
Q
What is gluconeogenesis?
A
The process of producing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as muscle protein.
3
Q
What is denaturation?
A
The irreversible change in the 3-D shape of proteins, leading to loss of function due to factors like extreme pH, high temperature, and physical stress.
4
Q
What are cofactors?
A
Typically minerals like Cu, Zn, Ca, Mn, Mg that assist enzymes.
5
Q
What are coenzymes?
A
Complex organic molecules made up of vitamins, such as Folate, Vitamin B1, B2, B3, Ascorbic acid, and Biotin.
6
Q
What is the function of the hippocampus?
A
Responsible for learning and memory formation.
Limbic system
7
Q
What neurotransmitter blocks pain perception?
A
Endorphins.
8
Q
What does the pH scale measure?
A
How acidic or alkaline a solution is.
9
Q
What is the pH of sulfuric acid?
A
1.
10
Q
What is total daily energy expenditure?
A
The total number of calories your body burns in 24 hours, including all activities.
11
Q
What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A
Promotes relaxation and ‘rest and digest’ functions, including slowing heart rate and stimulating digestion.
12
Q
What part of the neuron receives impulses from the preceding neuron?
A
Dendrite.
13
Q
What is competitive inhibition?
A
A molecule temporarily occupies the binding site of the enzyme.
14
Q
What is feedback inhibition?
A
A process that prevents overproduction by inhibiting an enzyme through its accumulated product.
15
Q
What effect does acetylcholine have?
A
Used in somatic neurons for communication with skeletal muscles and by parasympathetic neurons for visceral organs.
16
Q
What is the primary role of the hypothalamus?
A
Homeostatic control and communication between the CNS and the endocrine system.
17
Q
What are the functions of the cerebellum?
A
Coordination of skeletal muscle contractions, awareness of body position, and maintenance of posture and balance.
18
Q
What is the primary function of the parietal lobe?
A
Primary sensory area.
19
Q
What is the primary metabolic waste product from protein breakdown?
A
Urea.
20
Q
What is pyelonephritis?
A
Diagnosis when a UTI spreads up to the renal pelvis.
21
Q
What structures are included in the nephron?
A
Glomerulus, Bowman’s Capsule, Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, Collecting Duct.
22
Q
What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?
A
Controls the rate of dropping chyme into the duodenum.
23
Q
What enzymes does the pancreas produce for digestion?
A
- Amylases for starches
- Lipases for triglycerides
- Proteases for proteins.
24
Q
Where does vitamin and mineral absorption primarily occur?
A
In the small intestine, specifically in the jejunum.
25
What are the three steps of cellular aerobic respiration?
* Glycolysis
* Krebs’ Cycle
* Electron Transport Chain.
26
What is the metabolic waste of protein deamination?
Ammonia (NH3).
27
How many ATP can aerobic respiration of one glucose molecule produce?
38.
28
What is the role of the sodium-potassium pump?
To accumulate Na+ outside the cell and K+ inside the cell, creating concentration gradients.
## Footnote
This process costs 1 ATP molecule for every 3 Na+ and 2 K+ ions transported.
29
What are the major electrolytes of the body?
Na+, K+, Cl
## Footnote
These electrolytes create electric flow potential in nerve cells and muscles.
30
How is glucose taken into the cell from the blood?
Facilitated diffusion
## Footnote
Special membrane proteins help transport glucose without using ATP.
31
What is the process of using glucose anaerobically called?
Glycolysis
## Footnote
This occurs in low oxygen conditions and is referred to as Anaerobic Respiration.
32
Where do the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain occur?
In the mitochondria
## Footnote
These processes are part of aerobic respiration.
33
What are the functions of cholesterol?
* Production of steroid hormones
* Production of vitamin D
* Production of bile salts and acids
* Provides rigidity and stability to cell membranes
34
What is the composition of the cytoplasmic membrane?
Mainly phospholipids and proteins
35
How do oxygen molecules pass through the cell membrane?
By simple diffusion
36
What is the movement of water molecules toward a more concentrated area called?
Osmosis
37
True or False: Facilitated diffusion and protein pumps both use special proteins to pass through the cell membrane.
True
38
What causes lipid oxidation?
Free radicals
## Footnote
Pro-oxidants include oxygen, radiation, smoking, alcohol, and light.
39
What is the reaction converting liquid oils into solid fats?
Hydrogenation
40
What foods contain cholesterol?
Animal products
## Footnote
Cholesterol is produced only by animals.
41
What type of fat rarely exists in nature?
Trans fat
42
What foods are a source of antioxidants?
* Vitamin E
* Vitamin C
* Beta carotene
* Selenium
* Flavonoids
* Anthocyanins
* Resveratrol
* Lycopene
43
What food is a source of trans fat?
Hydrogenated oils, margarine, and certain baked goods.
44
What is the role of the heart valves?
To ensure blood flows in one direction and prevent backflow.
45
What are the four chambers of the heart?
* Right Atrium
* Left Atrium
* Right Ventricle
* Left Ventricle
46
What is the function of the pericardial membrane?
To protect the heart and produce lubricating fluid.
47
What is the internal wall dividing the right and left sides of the heart called?
Septum
48
What is the valve that leads from the left ventricle into the aorta?
Aortic valve
49
What is the function of the left atrium?
Receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.
## Footnote
The left atrium plays a crucial role in the circulatory system by directing oxygenated blood to the left ventricle.
50
What is the primary protein structure?
The specific order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
51
What is a covalent bond?
A strong bond where atoms share electrons.
52
What is a triglyceride?
A lipid made of 1 glycerol and 3 fatty acids.
53
Define saturated fatty acid.
A fatty acid saturated with hydrogen atoms and containing only single bonds.
54
Define unsaturated fatty acid.
A fatty acid containing one or more double bonds between carbon atoms.
55
What is the monomer of fats?
Fatty acids.
56
What are the three types of cartilage?
* Hyaline
* Elastic
* Fibrous
| Hard CT. Cells: Chondrocytes.
57
What are epithelial cells?
Cells that make up body linings and all the glands.
58
What is iatrogenic nausea?
Nausea as a side effect from a medication prescribed by a doctor.
59
What is a nosocomial infection?
An infectious disease acquired at a clinical institution.
60
What is the reaction converting monomers to polymers?
Anabolic reaction
61
What is a non-digestible polysaccharide?
Cellulose
62
What is the polarity of water caused by?
Unequal sharing of electrons between oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
63
What is a monounsaturated fatty acid?
A fatty acid with only one Carbon-to-Carbon double bond.
64
What is a polyunsaturated fatty acid?
A fatty acid with two or more Carbon-to-Carbon double bonds.
65
How do saturated fats behave at room temperature?
They are usually solid.
66
What is the primary source of saturated fats?
Animal products.
67
What causes the kink in unsaturated fatty acids?
Double bonds between carbon atoms.
68
What is the cis-configuration in unsaturated fatty acids?
Hydrogen atoms on the same side as the adjacent carbon atoms in a double bond.
69
What is the trans-configuration in fatty acids?
Hydrogen atoms on opposite sides of the adjacent carbon atoms in a double bond.
70
What is hydrogenation?
A chemical reaction that adds hydrogen to a double bond, converting unsaturated fats into saturated fats.
71
What adverse byproduct is produced from incomplete hydrogenation?
Trans fats.
72
What is a phospholipid?
A lipid formed by replacing one fatty acid of a triglyceride with a phosphate group.
73
What role do phospholipids play in cell membranes?
They create a bilayer with hydrophilic heads facing outwards and hydrophobic tails facing inwards.
74
What is metabolism?
The SUM of ALL chemical reactions in an organism.
75
What are anabolic reactions?
Chemical reactions where larger molecules are built from smaller ones.
76
What are catabolic reactions?
Chemical reactions where larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones.
77
What is the formula for metabolism?
Metabolism = Anabolism + Catabolism.
78
What is the lowest form of energy?
Heat.
79
List the dimensions of health.
* Physical
* Mental
* Emotional
* Spiritual
* Social
* Environmental
80
Match carbohydrates with their monomer.
Carbohydrates (Glucose) → Starch.
81
Match proteins with their monomer.
Proteins (amino acids) → Polypeptides.
82
Match lipids with their monomer.
Lipids (fatty acids) → Triglycerides.
83
Match nucleic acids with their monomer.
Nucleic acids (nucleotides) → DNA & RNA.
84
Which organs are in the Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)?
* Liver
* Gallbladder
* Duodenum
* Right kidney
* Pancreas (part)
85
Which organs are in the Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)?
* Stomach
* Spleen
* Left kidney
* Pancreas (part)
86
Which organs are in the Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)?
* Appendix
* Cecum
* Right ovary (female)
* Right ureter
87
Which organs are in the Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)?
* Descending colon
* Sigmoid colon
* Left ovary (female)
* Left ureter
88
What is a polar molecule?
Any covalent or ionic molecule that has an uneven distribution of charge.
89
What causes magnetic attraction between polar molecules?
The positive end of one polar molecule is attracted to the negative end of another polar molecule.
90
Are polar molecules hydrophilic or hydrophobic?
Hydrophilic.
91
What are the six most commonly found elements in living organisms?
* Carbon (C)
* Hydrogen (H)
* Nitrogen (N)
* Oxygen (O)
* Phosphorus (P)
* Sulfur (S)
92
What does the dorsal (posterior) cavity include?
* Cranial cavity
* Spinal cavity
93
What does the ventral (anterior) cavity include?
* Thoracic cavity
* Abdominal cavity
* Pelvic cavity
94
What is the anatomical position?
Subject faces the viewer with palms turned up.
95
What is the prone position?
Palms down, thumbs in toward the body.
96
What does superior mean?
Above, higher than.
97
What does inferior mean?
Below, lower than.
98
What does anterior mean?
In front, before.
99
What does posterior mean?
Behind, after, toward the back.
100
What does ventral mean?
Toward the belly.
101
What does dorsal mean?
Toward the spine.
102
What does medial mean?
Toward the middle.
103
What does lateral mean?
Toward the side, away from the middle.
104
What does proximal mean?
Close to, up the stream or flow.
105
What does distal mean?
At a distance, farther down the stream.
106
What do frontal planes divide in the body?
The body into front and back aspects.
107
What do sagittal planes divide in the body?
The body into right and left parts.
108
What do transverse planes divide in the body?
The body into superior and inferior aspects.
109
What term is used for farther from the midline?
Lateral.
110
What is primary prevention for cervical cancer?
HPV vaccine.
111
What is the structure of an atom?
Each atom has a central nucleus with protons, neutrons, and electrons.
112
What is the charge and location of protons?
Positive charge, located in the nucleus.
113
What is the charge and location of neutrons?
No charge, located in the nucleus.
114
What is the charge and location of electrons?
Negative charge, revolve around the nucleus.
115
Pelvic cavity - the space from below your iliac crest line down to the perineum which contains the
urinary bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs.
116
The peritoneum (or peritoneal membrane) encloses the
stomach, parts of the intestines, liver, gall bladder, pancreas, and spleen.
117
Mediastinum – this divides the thoracic cavity into right and left halves.
It contains organs and vessels in the space between the lungs, such as the esophagus, aorta, etc.
118
Valency is the number of ____ that an atom wants to gain or lose to be “happy” (to have the outermost orbit filled to maximum capacity).
Electrons
119
Valency of hydrogen
H = 1 bond (valency 1)
120
Valency of oxygen
O = 2 bonds (valency 2)
121
Valency of carbon
C = 4 bonds (valency 4)
122
Valency of phosphorous
P = 5 bonds*, or sometimes, 3 (valency 5* or 3)
123
Valency of nitrogen
N = 3 bonds (valency 3)
124
Valency of sulfur
S = 2 bonds (valency 2)
125
An organic compound must have both
Carbon and hydrogen
126
NONDIGESTIBLE POLYSACCHARIDE…
CELLULOSE
127
Liquid CT is:
Blood and lymph
| Cells: blood cells
128
Soft/loost CT is:
Areolar/Adipose tissue
| Cells: Adipocytes
129
Fibrous CT is:
Tendons and ligaments
| Cells: Fibroblasts
130
Covalent bond
A strong bond, where atoms SHARE electrons on their outermost orbits. The electrons on the outermost orbit revolve around both atoms’ nuclei.
| Like a marriage for love
131
____ is a collective term for all the cells that support and protect neurons.
Neuroglia
## Footnote
They are also referred to as Glial Cells.
132
Examples of simple carbohydrates
Monosaccharides and disaccharides are called Simple Carbohydrates, or Sugars.
Glucose is a monosaccharide. Other examples of monosaccharides include fructose or galactose.
Examples of disaccharides include maltose, lactose, sucrose, etc.
133
WHAT ITEMS CARRIED IN THE BLOOD CAN NOT PASS THROUGH THE GLOMERULUS TO BOMAN’S CAPSULE BECAUSE THEY ARE TOO LARGE:
Large particles in the blood (such as proteins, HDL, LDL, blood cells, and platelets) cannot pass into the Bowman’s capsule, because they are too big.
134
DIETARY PROTEINS PRIMARY PURPOSE IS:
Dietary proteins are meant to provide the body with amino acids, which are then used as building blocks to make the body’s proteins.
135
ELEVATED KETONES IN URINE MEANS:
that your body is burning fat for energy instead of glucose, which can be a sign of a condition called ketoacidosis
136
THE PROBLEM WITH LOW FAT, HIGH-SUGAR DIET IS INCREASED PRODUCTION OF ____
INSULIN
137
Stimulates brain activity, focuses the brain, and produces a sense of
alertness. Used by sympathetic neurons for communication with visceral organs.
Epinephrine/Adrenaline
138
Produces a sense of pleasure and reward.
Dopamine
139
Produces a sense of calm, peace, and happiness.
Serotonin
140
Suppresses the activity of neurons and slows down Action Potential. Suppresses CNS activity.
GABA
141
Responsible for wakefulness, alertness and ability to focus
Reticular Activating System (RAS)
| Limbic system
142
Responsible for emotions and emotional responses (incl. fears)
Amygdala
| Limbic system
143
The location where a reaction happens
| Enzymes
Active Site
144
The location where substrates attach to the enzyme
Binding Site
145
The reactants, which are helped by an enzyme
Substrates
146
What functions does the Medulla Oblongata control? (bottom of the brainstem)
Vasomotor center
Respiratory control
Cough reflex
Vomit reflex
CN 9-12
147
What is the function of the Frontal Lobe?
Primary motor area, reasoning, problem-solving, and oral/written speech
148
The largest part of the brain responsible for conscious thought is the ____.
Cerebrum
149
How are the right and left cerebral hemispheres separated?
By the Longitudinal fissure
150
Which lobe is responsible for visual processing?
Occipital Lobe
151
Functions of the Pons (middle of brainstem)
Controls some respiratory reflexes and facial nerves
Origin of 4 cranial nerves: V (5), VI (6), VII (7), VIII (8).
152
Functions of the Midbrain
Center of eye reflexes
The origin for cranial nerves III and IV (both control movement of eye muscles)
Conducts impulses between the medulla oblongata and cerebellum, and between the spinal cord and diencephalon
153
The Diencephalon is the next level up from the Brainstem and it consists of 2 parts:
Thalamus and hypothalamus.
154
The ____ collects sensory impulses coming from the spinal cord and directs them to the appropriate parts of the Primary Sensory Area (PSA) in the cerebrum, the higher brain.
thalamus
155
5 STEPS OF THE REFLEX ARC:
1. Receptor (or sensory organ) initiates an impulse
2. The impulse (action potential) is carried up the Sensory Neuron toward CNS
3. In the CNS, the Interneurons analyze the sensory information and come up with a response
4. The responding impulse is carried out of CNS and down the Motor Neurons
5. Motor Neurons carry the action potential to the effector organs (muscles or glands) to carry out the response
156
COMPOSITION OF A BALANCED DIET:
50% carbohydrates, 30% fat, 20% protein
157
WHAT STIMULATES SKELETAL MUSCLE CONTRACTION:
acetylcholine
158
It is composed mainly of a PL bilayer and membrane proteins. Its function is to separate the inside of the cell from the outside and to control the passing of molecules in and out of the cell
Cytoplasmic membrane
159
It supports all organelles and serves as the medium for chemical reactions
Cytoplasm
160
It contains the DNA (the chromosomes)
Nucleus
161
It produces Ribosomes
Nucleolus
162
It traps the RNA as it leaves the nucleus and serves as the meeting place between the RNA and Ribosomes
Endoplasmic Reticulum
163
They translate the RNA sequence into an amino acid sequence to complete the primary protein structure
Ribosomes
164
It activates new proteins
Golgi Apparatus
165
2 tubular structures that conduct cell division (mitosis)
Centrioles
166
They produce most of the cell’s ATP’s (“the power plant” of the cell) in the presence of oxygen
Mitochondria
167
Bubbles filled with digestive enzymes that break down large particles
Lysosomes
168
A container organelle.
Vacuole
169
What does the Right Ventricle do?
Pumps blood to the lungs.
170
Name the four heart valves:
Aortic Valve, Tricuspid Valve, Pulmonary Valve, Mitral Valve
171
What is the name of the valve that leads from the right atrium into the right ventricle?
Tricuspid valve.
172
Which valve leads from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery?
Pulmonary valve
173
What is the valve called that leads from the left atrium into the left ventricle?
Mitral valve.
174
What direction does oxygen-poor blood flow in the heart?
Enters the right atrium from the superior and inferior vena cavae
175
Where does blood go after the right atrium?
Right ventricle
176
After the right ventricle, where is blood pumped next?
To the lungs through the pulmonary arteries
177
Where does oxygen-rich blood enter the heart?
Left atrium through the pulmonary veins
178
What are the flaps that seal or open the heart valves called?
Leaflets or cusps
179
The membrane that surrounds the heart is called?
Pericardium
180
Which heart chamber contracts to send blood out to the aorta?
Left ventricle
181
Which heart chamber receives blood from the vena cava?
Right atrium
182
Which heart chamber sends blood to the pulmonary artery?
Right ventricle
183
What is the heart valve that serves as a one-way door between the left atrium and left ventricle?
Mitral valve
184
What heart valve serves as the exit from the right ventricle?
Pulmonary valve
185
What heart valve serves as the exit from the left ventricle?
Aortic valve
186
Amino acids within the chain will be either hydrophilic or hydrophobic. How these aa’s interact with each other will cause the chain to coil or bend in a specific way, resulting in Apha Helixes or Beta Pleated Sheets.
Secondary Protein Structure
187
The protein chain continues to bend and coil depending on the amino acids’ order and their corresponding attractions and repulsions. The resulting 3-D shape is the Globulin.
Tertiary Protein Structure
188
The activated protein results from an addition to or subtraction from the 3-D “blob”. The 3-D “blob” gets activated by the Golgi apparatus.
Quaternary Protein Structure
189
Synovial CT
Lining of the synovial joints’ cavities (easily movable joints in extremities).
∙ Produces synovial fluid for lubrication
190
Meningeal (Meninges) CT
CT layers cover and protect the brain and the spinal cord.
191
Fascia CT
∙ Holds internal organs in place.
∙ Also separates and covers skeletal muscles.
