Lecture 15 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two ways bacteria can make us sick?

A

Infection and intoxication

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2
Q

Define infection in the context of pathogenic bacteria.

A

Microbes cause illness by their presence, using host resources, and destroying host tissues

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3
Q

Define intoxication in the context of pathogenic bacteria.

A

Microbes produce chemicals that are toxic to the host, causing poisoning when ingested

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4
Q

Provide an example of a bacteria that causes infection.

A

E. coli

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5
Q

Provide an example of a bacteria that causes intoxication.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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6
Q

What is the Food Temperature Danger Zone?

A

40°F – 140°F or 4°C – 60°C

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7
Q

How long can food be kept within the temperature danger zone?

A

No longer than 3 hours total

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8
Q

What is one key food safety rule regarding hand washing?

A

Always wash your hands when preparing food

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9
Q

Which bacteria is known for producing an enterotoxin that causes food poisoning?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Also causes acne. Is heat resistant.

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10
Q

True or False: Freezing kills microbes.

A

False

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11
Q

What is the primary treatment for Methicillin-resistant Staph aureus (MRSA)?

A

Vancomycin (IV only)

Common cause of bed-sore infections and wound infections in bed-ridden patients

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12
Q

What disease does Treponema pallidum cause?

A

Syphilis

Spiral-shaped bacteria use their shape to penetrate tissues like a screw

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13
Q

What are the common symptoms of Salmonella enteric infection?

A

Diarrhea, fever, abdominal cramps

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14
Q

What type of bacteria is Helicobacter pylori?

A

Spirilli-shaped bacteria

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15
Q

What is the primary disease caused by Clostridium difficile?

A

Colitis

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16
Q

Fill in the blank: The first symptom of Tetanus is _______.

A

locked jaw

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17
Q

What causes Botulism?

A

Ingesting live Clostridium botulinum bacterial cells

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18
Q

What should be done with food that is suspected to be contaminated with Clostridium botulinum?

A

When in doubt – throw it out!

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19
Q

What is the common cause of Gas Gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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20
Q

What are the symptoms of Bacillus cereus food-borne infection?

A

Nausea and Vomiting

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21
Q

What is a significant risk factor for developing ulcers from Helicobacter pylori?

A

Smoking, alcohol, coffee on an empty stomach, stress

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22
Q

True or False: Clostridium tetani is an obligate anaerobe.

A

True

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23
Q

What is a common source of contamination for Escherichia coli?

A

Animal feces

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24
Q

What happens when Staphylococcus aureus multiplies in food?

A

It produces an enterotoxin that causes food poisoning

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25
Which bacteria is known to cause bacterial meningitis in children?
Haemophilus influenzae
26
Fill in the blank: Antibiotic therapy for Tuberculosis can take up to _______ months.
12
27
What type of bacteria is Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Gram-negative diplococcus
28
What is the condition under which Cl. botulinum endospores will not germinate?
Acidic conditions
29
What is the pH level that prevents Cl. botulinum infections in anaerobic foods?
pH > 6.3
30
When in doubt about food safety, what should you do?
Throw it out
31
Match Treponema pallidum with its disease.
Syphilis, lesions in multiple tissue layers
32
Match E. coli with its associated symptom.
Diarrhea
33
Match MRSA with its associated symptom.
Bed sore infections, penicillin-resistant
34
Match Clostridium tetani with its associated symptom.
Spastic paralysis
35
Match Clostridium botulinum with its associated symptom.
Flaccid paralysis
36
Match Mycobacterium tuberculinum with its associated symptom.
Pus tubercles in lungs or bone tissue ## Footnote ∙ Rod-shaped, with atypical cell wall
37
Match Staph. aureus with its associated symptom.
Food poisoning: N/V/D
38
Match Bacillus cereus with its associated symptom.
Nausea and Vomiting only ## Footnote ∙ Large gram-positive rods ∙ Sporulating, come from soil
39
Match C. diff. with its associated symptom.
Gas, bloating, constipation
40
Match Clostridium perfringens with its associated symptom.
Gas gangrene
41
Match Helicobacter pylori with its associated disease.
Stomach ulcer
42
Match Hemophilus influenza with its associated disease.
Bacterial meningitis in children | Part of normal upper respiratory flora ## Footnote ∙ Can also cause laryngitis, conjunctivitis (pink eye), otitis (ear infection) ∙ Causes secondary infection as a result of immunosuppression by primary infections (such as flu) or by medications.
43
Match Neisseria gonorrhoea with its associated symptom.
Excess discharge from external genitalia ## Footnote * If untreated in a pregnant woman, it may get introduced to the baby during delivery and cause blindness.
44
Which of the following is NOT a factor that increases the risks of peptic ulcers?
None - all of the above increase the risk of peptic ulcers
45
Gas gangrene is most common in patients with which condition?
Diabetes
46
Acne is most commonly caused by which bacterium?
Staph. aureus
47
What type of organisms are viruses considered?
Obligate intracellular parasites
48
Why are viruses not considered living organisms?
They have no metabolic processes of their own
49
What must viruses do to reproduce?
Be inside a host cell
50
What do viruses inject into their host cells?
DNA or RNA
51
What is the additional step in the retroviral life cycle?
Reverse Transcription RNA → DNA
52
What enzyme is used for Reverse Transcription in retroviruses?
Reverse Transcriptase
53
What is an example of a DNA-containing virus?
Herpes virus
54
What is an example of a retrovirus?
HIV
55
What is a prion?
A special protein introduced into the body by ingesting the brain and nervous tissue of infected animals.
56
What disease can a prion cause?
Mad Cow's Disease
57
What are the functions of the skeletal system?
1. Support and movement of the body 2. Mineral storage 3. Blood cell formation (inside the bone marrow) 4. Protection of internal organs
58
What is the process of turning cartilage into bone called?
Ossification
59
Which cells are responsible for bone formation?
Osteoblasts
60
What do osteoclasts do?
Break down bone
61
How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region?
5
62
What are the top 7 pairs of ribs called?
True ribs
63
How many pairs of floating ribs are there?
2 ## Footnote ribs 11-12
64
What is the role of osteocytes in bone tissue?
Maintain bone tissue
65
What happens during osteoporosis?
Bones break down faster than they can be built up
66
What is the main function of osteoblasts?
Deposit calcium into the bone matrix
67
What is the main function of osteoclasts?
Release calcium into circulation
68
The food leftovers MUST be quickly...
cooled and refrigerated immediately!
69
Food leftovers can be reheated...
ONLY ONCE!
70
When reheating food, make sure to bring the internal temperature of the food to...
AT LEAST 140 degrees F.
71
The virus contains ____ inside its capsule ## Footnote Ex: Herpes virus, Flu virus
DNA
72
Retrovirus contains ____ inside its capsule ## Footnote Ex: HIV
RNA
73
Steps for the reproduction of viral particles is as follows:
1. When a viral particle attaches to its host cell, it injects its DNA into the host. 2. Then the DNA makes its way into the host’s nucleus, where it begins expression. 3. As the viral DNA is transcribed and translated, the host’s cell, without realizing it, produces body parts for more viral particles 4. The viral body parts assemble themselves into complete viral particles. 5. Eventually, the host cell bursts, and newly made viral particles are released to go on and attack more host cells.
74
The retroviral life cycle has one additional step: ∙ For the host cell to express the viral genes, the genes have to be in DNA form; this means that a retrovirus must first convert RNA back into DNA. This is called:
Converting RNA back into DNA is called Reverse Transcription. This step is accomplished by a special enzyme called Reverse Transcriptase.
75
Anti-HIV drugs work by
Inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme
76
2. Which of the following is NOT true about the life cycle of a Retrovirus? a. Retrovirus carries the reverse transcriptase with it b. When retrovirus binds to its host cell, it injects its DNA into it c. Retroviral DNA is composed of genes that code for more retrovirus particles d. Retroviral body parts assemble themselves into complete retrovirus particles e. HIV is an example of a Retrovirus
b. When retrovirus binds to its host cell, it injects its DNA into it
77
Which of the following is NOT true about viruses? a. They can reproduce only inside host cells b. They produce metabolic waste products that can poison the host cell c. They match with specific types of host cell d. They carry their genes inside a capsid to inject it into the matching host cell e. They use the host cell's resources to make more viral particles
b. They produce metabolic waste products that can poison the host cell
78
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
Top 7
79
How many thoracic vertebrae?
Middle 12
80
Sacral is:
S1-S5
81
tailbone is AKA?
Coccyx
82
The Rib Cage is a cage of ____ pairs of ribs attached to the ____ vertebrae in the back and to the ____ in the front.
12, thoracic, sternum
83
Ribs (#8, 9, and 10) are ____ ribs, because they are attached to the rib above them, not to the sternum.
False
84
Which of the following is NOT true about bone turnover? a. Osteoclasts take calcium out of the bone matrix to put it in the bloodstream b. Osteoblasts take calcium from blood and deposit it into bone matrix c. Osteoblasts produce collagen and elastin d. Once ossified, the bone tissue stays unchanged
d. Once ossified, the bone tissue stays unchanged