microbiology ch 8 Flashcards

1
Q

What is genetics?

A

The study of genes, how they carry information, how information is expressed, and how genes are replicated

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2
Q

What is genetics also known as?

A

The science of heredity

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3
Q

What is a genome?

A

All the genetic information in a cell

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4
Q

What are genes?

A

Segments of DNA that encode functional products, usually proteins

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5
Q

What are chromosomes?

A

Structures containing DNA that physically carry hereditary information

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6
Q

What do chromosomes contain?

A

Genes

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7
Q

This is the study of genes, how they carry information, how information is expressed, and how genes are replicated; also known as the science of heredity

A

Genetics

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8
Q

This is all the genetic information in a cell

A

Genome

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9
Q

These are segments of DNA that encode functional products (usually proteins)

A

Genes

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10
Q

These are structures containing DNA that physically carry hereditary information

A

Chromosomes

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11
Q

What is the genetic code?

A

A set of rules that determines how a nucleotide sequence is converted to an amino acid sequence of a protein

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12
Q

What is the central dogma?

A

Sequence of nucleotides in DNA determine the sequence of amino acids in a protein

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13
Q

This is a set of rules determining how a nucleotide sequence is converted to an amino acid sequence of a protein

A

Genetic code

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14
Q

This says that the sequence of nucleotides in DNA determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein

A

Central dogma

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15
Q

What is a genotype?

A

The genetic makeup of an organism

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16
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

An expression of an organism’s genes

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17
Q

Does a genotype represent an organism’s potential properties?

A

Yes

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18
Q

Does a genotype represent an organism’s expressed properties?

A

No

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19
Q

This is the genetic makeup of an organism

A

Genotype

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20
Q

This is the expression of an organism’s genes

A

Phenotype

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21
Q

Does a phenotype represent an organism’s potential properties?

A

No

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22
Q

Do bacteria have a single circular chromosome made of DNA and associated proteins?

A

Yes

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23
Q

What are short tandem repeats (STRs)?

A

Repeating sequences of noncoding DNA

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24
Q

Do bacterial genomes contain back-to-back genes?

A

No

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25
Q

These usually have a single circular chromosome made of DNA and associated proteins

A

Bacteria

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26
Q

These are repeating sequences of noncoding DNA

A

Short tandem repeats (STRs)

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27
Q

What is vertical gene transfer?

A

The flow of genetic information from one generation to the next

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28
Q

What is horizontal gene transfer?

A

The transfer of genetic information between two organisms in the same generation

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29
Q

This is the flow of genetic information from one generation to the next

A

Vertical gene transfer

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30
Q

This is the transfer of genetic information between two organisms in the same generation

A

Horizontal gene transfer

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31
Q

What happens during DNA replication?

A

One parental double-stranded DNA molecule is converted into two identical offspring molecules

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32
Q

What is semiconservative replication?

A

When each double-stranded DNA molecule contains one original strand and one new strand

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33
Q

During this, one “parental” double-stranded DNA molecule is converted into two identical offspring molecules

A

DNA replication

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34
Q

This is when each double-stranded DNA molecule contains one original strand and one new strand

A

Semiconservative replication

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35
Q

What shape does a DNA molecule form?

A

Double helix

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36
Q

What does the ‘backbone’ of the DNA double helix consist of?

A

Deoxyribose-phosphate

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37
Q

How are the two strands of the DNA double helix held together?

A

By hydrogen bonds between A-T and C-G

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38
Q

What forms the genetic instructions of the organism?

A

Order of the nitrogen-containing bases

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39
Q

This forms a double helix

A

DNA molecule

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40
Q

This part of DNA consists of deoxyribose-phosphate

A

DNA ‘backbone’

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41
Q

These are held together by hydrogen bonds between A-T and C-G

A

Two strands of nucleotides in DNA double helix

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42
Q

This forms the genetic instructions of the organism

A

Order of nitrogen-containing bases

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43
Q

In DNA replication, what does one strand serve as?

A

A template for the production of a second strand

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44
Q

What two enzymes relax the strands in DNA replication?

A

Topoisomerase and gyrase

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45
Q

What enzyme separates the strands during DNA replication?

A

Helicase

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46
Q

What do topoisomerase and gyrase do during DNA replication?

A

Relax the DNA strands

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47
Q

What does helicase do during DNA replication?

A

Separates the DNA strands

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48
Q

What three roles does DNA polymerase have during DNA replication?

A

Adds nucleotides to growing DNA strand; removes RNA primers, joins Okazaki fragments (along with DNA ligase)

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49
Q

What direction does DNA polymerase go in during DNA replication?

A

5 –> 3’

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50
Q

What initiates DNA synthesis during replication?

A

RNA primer

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51
Q

Is the leading strand of synthesized continuously during DNA replication?

A

Yes

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52
Q

Is the lagging strand synthesized continuously during DNA replication?

A

No

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53
Q

What enzyme removes RNA primers?

A

DNA polymerase

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54
Q

What two enzymes join Okazaki fragments?

A

DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

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55
Q

What enzyme adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand?

A

DNA polymerase

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56
Q

Does DNA polymerase add nucleotides to the growing DNA strand in a 3’ to 5’ direction?

A

No

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57
Q

How is the leading strand synthesized in DNA replication?

A

Continuously

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58
Q

Does synthesis of the lagging strand by DNA polymerase create Okazaki fragments?

A

Yes

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59
Q

How is the lagging strand synthesized in DNA replication?

A

Discontinuously

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60
Q

Does synthesis of the leading strand by DNA polymerase create Okazaki fragments?

A

No

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61
Q

Is the leading strand synthesized discontinuously in DNA replication?

A

No

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62
Q

Is the lagging strand synthesized discontinuously in DNA replication?

A

Yes

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63
Q

What are Okazaki fragments?

A

Sections of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand by DNA polymerase

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64
Q

What supplies the energy for DNA replication?

A

Nucleotides

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65
Q

What process provides energy from nucleotides for DNA replication?

A

Hydrolysis of two phosphate groups on nucleotides

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66
Q

What direction does most bacterial DNA replication go in?

A

Bidirectional

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67
Q

How many copies of the DNA molecule does each offspring cell receive?

A

1

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68
Q

What makes replication so accurate?

A

Proofreading capability of DNA polymerase

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69
Q

Is most bacterial DNA replication unidirectional?

A

No

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70
Q

Does each offspring cell receive 2 copies of the DNA molecule?

A

No

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71
Q

What does the proofreading capability of DNA polymerase ensure?

A

That replication is highly accurate?

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72
Q

What three components distinguish RNA from DNA

A

Single-stranded nucleotide; 5-carbon ribose sugar; Uracil instead of thymine

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73
Q

This molecule is made up of a single-stranded nucleotide, a 5-carbon ribose sugar, and uracil rather than thymine

A

Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

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74
Q

This form of RNA is an integral part of ribosomes

A

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

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75
Q

This form of RNA transports amino acids during protein synthesis

A

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

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76
Q

This form of RNA carries coded information from DNA to ribosomes

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

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77
Q

What is the function of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?

A

Forms an integral part of ribosomes

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78
Q

What is the function of transfer RNA (tRNA)?

A

Transports amino acids during protein synthesis

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79
Q

What is the function of messenger RNA (mRNA)?

A

Carries coded information from DNA to ribosomes

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80
Q

What is transcription?

A

Synthesis of a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA template

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81
Q

When does transcription begin?

A

When RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence on DNA

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82
Q

What direction does transcription go in?

A

5 –> 3

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83
Q

How many DNA strands are transcribed by RNA polymerase?

A

1 of 2

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84
Q

When does transcription stop?

A

When RNA polymerase reaches the terminator sequence on DNA

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85
Q

This is the synthesis of a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA template

A

Transcription

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86
Q

RNA polymerase binding to the promoter sequence on DNA begins this process

A

Transcription

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87
Q

Are both DNA strands transcribed by RNA polymerase?

A

No

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88
Q

Does transcription proceed in the 5 –> 3 direction?

A

Yes

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89
Q

What happens when RNA polymerase reaches the terminator sequence on DNA?

A

Transcription stops

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90
Q

What is mRNA translated into?

A

The ‘language’ of proteins

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91
Q

What are codons?

A

Groups of three mRNA nucleotides that code for a particular amino acid

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92
Q

How many codons are there?

A

64

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93
Q

How many amino acids are there?

A

20

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94
Q

How many sense codons encode the 20 amino acids?

A

61

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95
Q

How many ‘nonsense’ or stop codons are there?

A

3

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96
Q

What is it mean that the genetic code involves degeneracy?

A

Each amino acid is coded by several codons (redundancy)

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97
Q

This is translated into the ‘language’ of proteins

A

mRNA

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98
Q

These are groups of three mRNA nucleotides that code for a particular amino acid

A

Codons

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99
Q

These codons encode the 20 amino acids

A

Sense codons

100
Q

These codons do not encode for amino acids

A

Nonsense/stop codons

101
Q

This feature of the genetic code means that each amino acid is coded by several codons and therefore has redundancy

A

Degeneracy

102
Q

Which codon does translation of mRNA begin with?

A

Start codon AUG

103
Q

Which three codons does translation of mRNA end with?

A

Nonsense/stop codons UAA, UAG, or UGA

104
Q

How are mRNA codons ‘read’

A

Sequentially

105
Q

The start codon AUG begins this process

A

Translation of mRNA

106
Q

Nonsense/stop codons UAA, UAG, or UGA stop this process

A

Translation of mRNA

107
Q

These are ‘read’ sequentially during mRNA translation

A

Codons

108
Q

These transport the required amino acids to the ribosome during translation

A

tRNA molecules

109
Q

tRNA molecules have these that base-pair with the codon

A

Anticodon

110
Q

These are joined by peptide bonds during translation

A

Amino acids

111
Q

In bacteria, can translation begin before transcription is complete?

A

Yes

112
Q

Where does transcription occur in eukaryotes?

A

In the nucleus

113
Q

Where does translation occur in eukaryotes?

A

Cytoplasm

114
Q

What are exons?

A

Regions of DNA that code for proteins

115
Q

What are introns?

A

Regions of DNA that do not code for proteins

116
Q

What do small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs) do?

A

Remove introns and splice exons together

117
Q

These are regions of DNA that code for proteins

A

Exons

118
Q

These are regions of DNA that do not code for proteins

A

Introns

119
Q

These remove introns and splice exons together

A

Small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs)

120
Q

What type of bacterial genes are expressed at a fix rate?

A

Constitute genes

121
Q

What two types of bacterial genes are expressed only as needed?

A

Inducible and repressible genes

122
Q

This inhibits gene expression and decreases enzyme synthesis

A

Repression

123
Q

What are repressors?

A

Proteins that block transcription

124
Q

What is the default position of a repressible gene?

A

On

125
Q

This turns on gene expression

A

Induction

126
Q

What is induction initiated by?

A

An inducer

127
Q

What is the default position of an inducible gene?

A

Off

128
Q

This is a segment of DNA where RNA polymerase initiates transcription of structural genes

A

Promoter

129
Q

This is a segment of DNA that controls transcription of structural genes

A

Operator

130
Q

This is a set of operator and promoter sites and the structural genes they control

A

Operon

131
Q

In the operon model of gene expression, what is a promoter?

A

Segment of DNA where RNA polymerase initiates transcription of structural genes

132
Q

In the operon model of gene expression, what is an operator?

A

Segment of DNA that controls transcription of structural genes

133
Q

In the operon model of gene expression, what is an operon?

A

Set of operator and promoter sites and the structural genes they control

134
Q

What happens in repressible operons?

A

Structural genes are transcribed until they are turned off

135
Q

In these, structural genes are transcribed until they are turned off

A

Repressible operons

136
Q

What does a corepressor do?

A

Binds and activates the repressor to bind to the operator, stopping synthesis of an amino acid

137
Q

This binds and activates the repressor to bind to the operator, stopping synthesis of an amino acid

A

Corepressor

138
Q

In this, structural genes are not transcribed unless an inducer is present

A

Inducible operon

139
Q

What happens in an inducible operon?

A

Structural genes are not transcribed unless an inducer is present

140
Q

What does catabolite repression do?

A

Inhibits cells from using carbon sources other than glucose

141
Q

What builds up in a cell when glucose is not available?

A

Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

142
Q

What does cAMP do?

A

Binds to the catabolic activator protein (CAP) that in turn binds to the lac promoter, initiating transcription and allowing the cell to use lactose

143
Q

This inhibits cells from using carbon sources other than glucose

A

Catabolite repression

144
Q

This builds up in a cell when glucose is not available

A

Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

145
Q

This binds to the catabolic activator protein (CAP)

A

Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

146
Q

What does the cAMP and CAP binding to the lac promoter do?

A

Initiates transcription and allows the cell to use lactose

147
Q

What do methylating nucleotides do?

A

Turn genes off

148
Q

Can methylated (off) genes be passed to offspring cells?

A

Yes

149
Q

Is epigenetic control permanent?

A

No

150
Q

These nucleotides turn genes off

A

Methylating nucleotides

151
Q

These can be passed to offspring cells and are not permanent

A

Methylated (off) genes

152
Q

What do microRNAs (miRNAs) do?

A

Base pair with mRNA to make it double-stranded

153
Q

What happens to double-stranded RNA?

A

It is enzymatically destroyed, preventing production of a protein

154
Q

What is the riboswitch?

A

A part of an mRNA molecule that binds to a substrate and changes the mRNA structure

155
Q

What does the riboswitch do to translation?

A

Initiates or stops it

156
Q

These base pair with mRNA to make it double stranded and enzymatically destroyed

A

MicroRNAs (miRNAs)

157
Q

This is a part of an mRNA molecule that binds to a substrate and changes the mRNA structure, initiating or stopping translation

A

Riboswitch

158
Q

What is a mutation?

A

A permanent change in the base sequence of DNA

159
Q

What are mutagens?

A

Agents that cause mutations

160
Q

What are spontaneous mutations?

A

Mutations that occur in the absence of a mutagen

161
Q

This is a permanent change in the base sequence of DNA that may be neutral, beneficial, or harmful?

A

Mutation

162
Q

These are agents that cause mutations

A

Mutagen

163
Q

These mutations occur in the absence of a mutagen

A

Spontaneous mutations

164
Q

What happens with base substitutions (point mutations)?

A

One base in DNA changes

165
Q

In this type of mutation, there is a change in one base in DNA

A

Base substitution (point mutation)

166
Q

What happens in a missense mutation?

A

Base substitution results in change in an amino acid

167
Q

In this type of mutation, a base substitution results in change in an amino acid

A

Missense mutation

168
Q

What happens in a nonsense mutation?

A

Base substitution results in a nonsense (stop) codon

169
Q

In this type of mutation, a base substitution results in a nonsense (stop) codon

A

Nonsense mutation

170
Q

What happens in a frameshift mutation?

A

The insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotide pairs shifts the transitional ‘reading frame’

171
Q

In this type of mutation, the insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotide pairs shifts the translational ‘reading frame’

A

Frameshift mutation

172
Q

What are three categories of mutagens?

A

Radiation, chemical, infections agents

173
Q

What are two examples of radiation mutagens?

A

UV and X-rays

174
Q

What are five examples of chemical mutagens?

A

Carcinogens, processed foods, preservatives, cosmetics, and cleaning products

175
Q

What are two examples of infectious mutagens?

A

Viruses and bacteria

176
Q

How does nitrous acid work as a mutagen?

A

Causes adenine to bind with cystosine instead of thymine

177
Q

How do nucleoside analogs work as mutagens?

A

By incorporating into DNA in place of a normal base and causing mistakes in base pairing

178
Q

How is nitrous acid emitted into the air?

A

By burning fossils fuels

179
Q

What are nucleoside analogs used in?

A

Treatment of cancer and HIV

180
Q

This mutagen causes adenine to bind with cytosine instead of thymine

A

Nitrous acid

181
Q

This mutagen incorporates into DNA in place of a normal base and causes mistakes in base pairing

A

Nucleoside analog

182
Q

How does ionizing radiation work as a mutagen?

A

Causes formation of ions that can oxidize nucleotides and break the deoxyribose-phosphate backbone

183
Q

What causes thymine dimers?

A

Ultraviolet radiation

184
Q

This type of mutagen causes formation of ions that can oxidize nucleotides and break the deoxyribose-phosphate backbone

A

Ionizing radiation

185
Q

This type of radiation causes thymine dimers

A

Ultraviolet radiation

186
Q

What is the spontaneous mutation rate?

A

1 in 10 replicated genes

187
Q

What does positive (direct) selection do?

A

Detects mutant cells as they grow or appear different than unmutated cells

188
Q

What does negative (indirect) selection do?

A

Detects mutant cells that cannot grow or perform a certain function

189
Q

What is an auxtotroph?

A

Mutant that has a nutritional requirement absent in the parent

190
Q

This type of mutation identification detects mutant cells because they grow or appear different than unmutated cells

A

Positive (direct) selection

191
Q

This type of mutation identification detects mutant cells that cannot grow or perform a certain function

A

Negative (indirect) selection

192
Q

This type of mutant has a nutritional requirement absent in the parent

A

Auxtotroph

193
Q

What are carcinogens?

A

Substances that cause cancer in animals, including humans

194
Q

What does the Ames test do?

A

Exposes mutant bacteria to mutagenic substances to measure the rate of reversal of the mutation

195
Q

What does the Ames test indicate?

A

The degree to which a substance is mutagenic

196
Q

These are substances that cause cancer in animals, including humans

A

Carcinogens

197
Q

This test exposes mutant bacteria to mutagenic substances to measure the rate of reversal of the mutation

A

Ames test

198
Q

This test indicates the degree to which a substance is mutagenic

A

Ames test

199
Q

What is genetic recombination?

A

Exchange of genes between two DNA molecules

200
Q

What does genetic recombination create?

A

Genetic diversity

201
Q

What is one mechanism of genetic recombination?

A

Crossing over

202
Q

What happens in crossing over?

A

Two chromosomes break and rejoin, resulting in the insertion of foreign DNA into the chromosome

203
Q

This is the exchange of genes between two DNA molecules and creates genetic diversity

A

Genetic recombination

204
Q

This is a mechanism of genetic recombination in which two chromosomes break and rejoin, resulting in the insertion of foreign DNA into the chromosome

A

Crossing over

205
Q

What are plasmids?

A

Self-replicating circular pieces of DNA

206
Q

How large are plasmids?

A

1 to 5% the size of a bacterial chromosome

207
Q

What do plasmids often code for?

A

Proteins that enhance the pathogenicity of a bacterium

208
Q

These are self-replicating circular pieces of DNA, 1 to 5% the size of a bacterial chromosome

A

Plasmids

209
Q

These often code for proteins that enhance the pathogenicity of a bacterium

A

Plasmids

210
Q

What do conjugative plasmids (F factors) carry genes for?

A

Sex pili and transfer of the plasmid

211
Q

What do dissimilation plasmids encode?

A

Enzymes for the catabolism of unusual compounds, such as petroleum

212
Q

What do resistance factors (R factors) encode?

A

Antibiotic resistance

213
Q

What does resistance transfer factor (RTF) have genes for?

A

Plasmid replication and conjugation

214
Q

What does R-determinant have?

A

Resistance genes

215
Q

This type of plasmid carries genes for sex pili and transfer of the plasmid

A

Conjugative plasmids (F factors)

216
Q

These encode enzymes for the catabolism of unusual compounds, such as petroleum

A

Dissimilation plasmids

217
Q

These encode antibiotic resistance

A

Resistance factors (R factors)

218
Q

These include genes for plasmid replication and conjugation

A

Resistance transfer factor (RTF)

219
Q

This has the resistance genes

A

R-determinant

220
Q

What are transposons?

A

Segments of DNA that can move from one region of DNA to another

221
Q

Do transposons occur in prokaryotic organisms?

A

Yes

222
Q

Do transposons occur in eukaryotic organisms?

A

Yes

223
Q

What do transposons contain?

A

Insertion sequences that code for transposase that cuts and reseals DNA

224
Q

What do complex transposons carry?

A

Other genes (e.g. antibiotic resistance)

225
Q

These are segments of DNA that can move from one region of DNA to another and contain insertion sequences that code for transposase

A

Transposons

226
Q

What does transposase do?

A

Cuts and reseals DNA

227
Q

These transposons carry other genes, such as for antibiotic resistance

A

Complex transposons

228
Q

What happens in bacterial conjugation?

A

Plasmids are transferred from one bacterium to another

229
Q

What does conjugation in bacteria require?

A

Cell-to-cell contact via sex pili

230
Q

This is when plasmids are transferred from one bacterium to another

A

Conjugation

231
Q

This requires cell-to-cell contact via sex pili

A

Conjugation

232
Q

What are F+ cells?

A

Donor cells that carry the plasmid F factor

233
Q

What are recipient cells in bacterial conjugation called?

A

F- cells

234
Q

What do Hfr (high frequency of recombination) cells contain?

A

F factor on the chromosome

235
Q

These are donor cells that carry the plasmid (F factor)

A

F+ cells

236
Q

What are recipient cells called prior to conjugation?

A

F- cells

237
Q

These F factor-carrying cells have the factor integrated into the chromosome

A

Hfr (high frequency of recombination) cells

238
Q

What is DNA transferred through from a donor cell to a recipient?

A

Bacteriophage

239
Q

What is generalized transduction?

A

Random bacterial DNA is packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

240
Q

What is specialized transduction?

A

Specific bacterial genes are packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

241
Q

In this type of transduction, random bacterial DNA is packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

A

Generalized transduction

242
Q

In this type of transduction, specific bacterial genes are packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

A

Specialized transduction

243
Q

What do mutations and recombination create?

A

Cell diversity

244
Q

What is the raw material for evolution?

A

Diversity

245
Q

These create cell diversity

A

Mutations and recombinations

246
Q

Diversity is the raw material for this

A

Evolution