Medsurg 9

Question 1

____ can cause urinary urgency and frequency, dysuria, abdominal cramps or bladder spasms, and urethral itching,

Answer 1

Urinary tract infections

Question 2

____ is a radiographic technique that’s used to detect breast cysts or tumors, especially those that aren’t palpable on physical examination.

Answer 2

Mammography

Question 3

To promote early detection of ____ the nurse should palpate the testes during routine physical examinations and encourage the patient to perform monthly selfexaminations during a warm shower.

Answer 3

testicular cancer

Question 4

Patients who have ____ require no treatment. Those with thalassemia major require frequent transfusions of red blood cells.

Answer 4

thalassemia minor

Question 5

A ____ serum marker that persists for 3 months or more after the onset of acute hepatitis B infection suggests chronic hepatitis or carrier status.

Answer 5

high level of hepatitis B

Question 6

___ is caused by disruption of nerve transmission to the bladder. It may be caused by certain spinal cord injuries, diabetes, or multiple sclerosis.

Answer 6

Neurogenic bladder dysfunction

Question 7

____ move between the lungs and the bloodstream by diffusion.

Answer 7

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

Question 8

To grade the severity of ____ , the following system is used: grade 1, shortness of breath on mild exertion, such as walking up steps; grade 2, shortness of breath when walking a short distance at a normal pace on level ground; grade 3, shortness of breath with mild daily activity, such as shaving; grade 4, shortness of breath when supine (orthopnea)

Answer 8

dyspnea

Question 9

A patient with ____ should consume a diet low in residue, fiber, and fat, and high in calories, proteins, and carbohydrates. The patient also should take vitamin supplements, especially vitamin K.

Answer 9

Crohn’s disease

Question 10

In the ____ , the patient cleans the meatus and urinates 10 to 15 ml in the first bottle and 15 to 30 ml (midstream) in the second bottle. Then the physician performs prostatic massage, and the patient voids into the third bottle.

Answer 10

three-bottle urine collection method

Question 11

____ are interpreted as follows: pus in the urine (pyuria) in the first bottle indicates anterior urethritis; bacteria in the urine in the second bottle indicate bladder infection; bacteria in the third bottle indicate prostatitis.

Answer 11

Findings in the three-bottle urine collection method

Question 12

Signs and symptoms of ____ include a loud, rough systolic murmur over the aortic area; exertional dyspnea; fatigue; angina pectoris, arrhythmias; low blood pressure; and emboli.

Answer 12

aortic stenosis

Question 13

___ is primarily a matter of choice. It isn’t essential to the patient’s survival, but it may improve the patient’s health, comfort, or self-esteem.

Answer 13

Elective surgery

Question 14

____ is recommended by the physician. It may be delayed, but is inevitable.

Answer 14

Required surgery

Question 15

___ must be performed within 24 to 48 hours.

Answer 15

Urgent surgery

Question 16

____ must be performed immediately,

Answer 16

Emergency surgery

Question 17

___ of arterial emboli originate in the heart chambers.

Answer 17

About 85%

Question 18

____ usually results from thrombi dislodged from the leg veins.

Answer 18

Pulmonary embolism

Question 19

The conscious interpretation of pain occurs in the ____

Answer 19

cerebral cortex.

Question 20

To avoid interfering with new cell growth, the dressing on a ____ site shouldn’t be disturbed.

Answer 20

donor skin graft

Question 21

A ____ is any abnormal condition that follows and is the result of a disease, a treatment, or an injury.

Answer 21

sequela

Question 22

____, patient care includes bed rest, oxygen therapy, analgesics as prescribed, I.V. fluid monitoring, and thorough documentation of fluid intake and output.

Answer 22

During sickle cell crisis

Question 23

A patient who has an ____ should maintain a daily fluid intake of 2,000 ml.

Answer 23

ileal conduit

Question 24

In a ____ , continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber or bottle indicates a leak.

Answer 24

closed chest drainage system

Question 25

____ is a sensation of heart pounding or racing associated with normal emotional responses and certain heart disorders.

Answer 25

Palpitation

Question 26

____ is likely to occur within the first 24 hours after a long-bone fracture.

Answer 26

Fat embolism

Question 27

____ can occur in a patient with a pelvic fracture as a result of peroneal nerve compression against the head of the fibula.

Answer 27

Footdrop

Question 28

To ____ after an amputation, the nurse should wrap an elastic bandage around the distal end of the stump.

Answer 28

promote venous return

Question 29

____ that accumulates in the tubing of a ventilator should be removed.

Answer 29

Water

Question 30

The most common route for the administration of epinephrine to a patient who is having a severe allergic reaction is the ____

Answer 30

subcutaneous route

Question 31

The nurse should use ____ for a patient who has abdominal pain caused by appendicitis

Answer 31

Fowler’s position

Question 32

The nurse ____ to a patient who has abdominal pain caused by appendicitis because these drugs may mask the pain that accompanies a ruptured appendix.

Answer 32

shouldn’t give analgesics

Question 33

____ may cause insulin resistance

Answer 33

Acidosis

Question 34

As a last-ditch effort, a ____ coma may be induced to reverse unrelenting increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which is defined as acute ICP of greater than 40 mm Hg persistent elevation of ICP above 20 mm Hg, or rapidly deteriorating neurologic status

Answer 34

barbiturate

Question 35

The primary signs and symptoms of ____ are stridor and progressive difficulty in swallowing

Answer 35

epiglottiditis

Question 36

____ is the first step in the digestion of starch.

Answer 36

Salivation

Question 37

A patient who has a ____ should measure the pulse rate before rising in the morning, notify the physician if the pulse rate drops by 5 beats/minute, obtain a medical identification card and bracelet, and resume normal activities, including sexual activity.

Answer 37

demand pacemaker

Question 38

____ is a temporary procedure that’s performed to divert the fecal stream in a patient who has acute intestinal obstruction,

Answer 38

Transverse, or loop, colostomy

Question 39

____ are 0 to 15 mm/hour for men younger than age 50 and 0 to 20 mm/hour for women younger than age 50.

Answer 39

Normal values for erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 40

A ____ that’s more than 5% of total CK or more than 10 U/L suggests a myocardial infarction.

Answer 40

CK-MB level

Question 41

___ blocks sympathetic nerve stimuli that increase cardiac work during exercise or stress, which reduces heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen consumption.

Answer 41

Propranolol (inderal)

Question 42

____ , electrocardiogram changes (ST-segment elevation, Twave inversion, and Q-wave enlargement) usually appear in the first 24 hours, but may not appear until the 5th or 6th day.

Answer 42

After a myocardial infarction

Question 43

____ is manifested by systolic blood pressure of less than 80 mm Hg, gray skin, diaphoresis, cyanosis, weak pulse rate, tachycardia or bradycardia, and oliguria (less than 30 ml of urine per hour).

Answer 43

Cardiogenic shock

Question 44

A patient who is receiving ____ shouldn’t eat cottage cheese, fish, canned beans, chuck steak, chocolate pudding, Italian salad dressing, dill pickles, and beef broth.

Answer 44

a low-sodium diet

Question 45

____ include dried prunes, watermelon (15.3 mEq/ portion), dried lima beans (14.5 mEq/portion), soybeans, bananas, and oranges.

Answer 45

High potassium foods

Question 46

___ are faster and deeper than normal respirations and occur without pauses, as in diabetic ketoacidosis.

Answer 46

Kussmaul’s respirations