Medsurg 3

Question 1

During the tertiary stage of ____ spirochetes invade the internal organs and cause permanent damage.

Answer 1

syphilis

Question 2

In ____ weight gain is the most reliable indicator of a positive response to therapy.

Answer 2

total parenteral nutrition

Question 3

The nurse may administer an ____ through a central or peripheral catheter, but shouldn’t use an in-line filter because the fat particles are too large to pass through the pores.

Answer 3

I.V. fat emulsion

Question 4

If a patient who has a ___ is using a Cunningham clamp, instruct him to wash and dry his penis before applying the clamp. He should apply the clamp horizontally and remove it at least every 4 hours to empty his bladder to prevent infection.

Answer 4

prostatectomy

Question 5

If a woman has signs of ___ , she should be instructed to drink six to eight glasses of water per day, urinate before and after intercourse, and perform Kegel exercises.

Answer 5

urinary tract infection during menopause

Question 6

If a menopausal patient experiences a “hot flash,” she should be instructed ____

Answer 6

to seek a cool, breezy location and sip a cool drink.

Question 7

___ causes fissures at the angles of the mouth and indicates a vitamin B2, riboflavin, or iron deficiency.

Answer 7

Cheilosis

Question 8

___ may result from hypocalcemia caused by hypoparathyroidism.

Answer 8

Tetany

Question 9

A patient who has ___ may experience vaginal bleeding for 1 to 3 months after intracavitary radiation.

Answer 9

cervical cancer

Question 10

___ is the accumulation of fluid, containing large amounts of protein and electrolytes, in the abdominal cavity. It’s commonly caused by cirrhosis.

Answer 10

Ascites

Question 11

Normal pulmonary artery pressure is ___ Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure is 5 to 12 mm Hg.

Answer 11

10 to 25 mm Hg

Question 12

____ the site is monitored for bleeding and hematoma formation, pulses distal to the site are palpated every 15 minutes for 1 hour, and the patient is maintained on bed rest with the extremity extended for 8 hours.

Answer 12

After cardiac catheterization

Question 13

___ is a bleeding disorder that’s transmitted genetically in a sex-linked (X chromosome) recessive pattern. Although girls and women may carry the defective gene, hemophilia usually occurs only in boys and men.

Answer 13

Hemophilia

Question 14

____ is an autosomal dominant bleeding disorder that’s caused by platelet dysfunction and factor VIII deficiency.

Answer 14

Von Willebrand’s disease

Question 15

Sickle cell anemia is a congenital hemolytic anemia that’s caused by defective hemoglobin Molecules. It primarily

Answer 15

blacks

Question 16

____ has a homozygous inheritance pattern. Sickle cell trait has a heterozygous inheritance pattern.

Answer 16

Sickle cell anemia

Question 17

___ is a characteristic sign of Hodgkin’s disease. Fever recurs every few days or weeks and alternates with afebrile periods.

Answer 17

Pel-Ebstein fever

Question 18

___ is an inherited metabolic disorder that’s characterized by red blood cells that are deficient in G6PD, a critical enzyme in aerobic glycolysis.

Answer 18

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

Question 19

Preferred ____ are the posterior superior iliac crest, anterior iliac crest, and sternum.

Answer 19

sites for bone marrow aspiration

Question 20

During bone marrow harvesting, the donor receives general anesthesia and ___

Answer 20

400 to 800 ml of marrow is aspirated,

Question 21

A ___ across the bridge of the nose is a characteristic sign of systemic lupus erythematosus.

Answer 21

butterfly rash

Question 22

Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic, destructive collagen disease characterized by symmetric inflammation of the ____ that leads to joint swelling.

Answer 22

synovium

Question 23

Screening for human immunodeficiency virus antibodies begins with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Results are confirmed by the ____

Answer 23

Western blot test.

Question 24

The ____ 4 to 8 hours after a myocardial infarction, peaks at 12 to 24 hours, and returns to normal in 3 days.

Answer 24

CK-MB isoenzyme level increases

Question 25

____ may significantly antagonize the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). The patient should be cautioned to avoid eating an excessive amount of leafy green vegetables.

Answer 25

Excessive intake of vitamin K

Question 26

A lymph node biopsy that shows Reed-Sternberg cells provides a definitive diagnosis of _____

Answer 26

Hodgkin’s disease.

Question 27

____ is unilateral facial weakness or paralysis caused by a disturbance of the seventh cranial (facial) nerve.

Answer 27

Bell’s palsy

Question 28

During an ___ lack of a wheal after injection of tuberculin purified protein derivative indicates that the test dose was injected too deeply. The nurse should inject another dose at least 2” (5 cm) from the initial site.

Answer 28

initial tuberculin skin test

Question 29

A ____ should be read 48 to 72 hours after administration.

Answer 29

tuberculin skin test

Question 30

In reading a tuberculin skin test. ___ is usually not significant.

Answer 30

erythema without induration

Question 31

Death caused by ___ usually results from delayed diagnosis and respiratory complications

Answer 31

botulism

Question 32

In a patient who has ___ , saliva contains the virus and is a hazard for nurses who provide care

Answer 32

rabies

Question 33

A ___ is the most common transfusion reaction.

Answer 33

febrile nonhemolytic reaction

Question 34

____ (abnormally low concentration of potassium in the blood) may cause muscle weakness or paralysis, electrocardiographic abnormalities, and GI disturbances,

Answer 34

Hypokalemia

Question 35

___ , a serious vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency, affects alcoholics who have poor dietary habits. It’s epidemic in Asian countries where people subsist on unenriched rice. It’s characterized by the phrase “____” indicating that the patient is too ill to do anything.

Answer 35

Beriberi, I can’t

Question 36

___ may cause respiratory depression,

Answer 36

Excessive sedation

Question 37

The primary postoperative concern is maintenance of a ___

Answer 37

patent airway.

Question 38

If cyanosis occurs ___ , sublingually, or in the nail bed, the oxygen saturation level (Sao 2) is less than 80%.

Answer 38

circumorally

Question 39

A ___ in a postoperative patient may indicate pain, bleeding, dehydration, or shock.

Answer 39

rapid pulse rate

Question 40

Increased pulse rate and blood pressure may indicate that a patient is experiencing ___ (pain that can’t be expressed verbally, such as when a patient is recovering from anesthesia)

Answer 40

“silent pain”

Question 41

___ exerts antiarrhythmic action by suppressing automaticity in the Purkinje fibers and elevating the electrical stimulation threshold in the ventricles.

Answer 41

Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

Question 42

___ (a bluish discoloration around the umbilicus) is seen in patients who have a perforated pancreas.

Answer 42

Cullen’s sign

Question 43

During the postoperative period, the patient should cough and breathe deeply every 2 hours unless otherwise ____ (for example, after craniotomy, cataract surgery, or throat surgery).

Answer 43

contraindicated

Question 44

Before surgery, a patient’s respiratory volume may be measured by incentive ___ . This measurement becomes the patient’s postoperative goal for respiratory volume.

Answer 44

spirometry

Question 45

The postoperative patient should use ___ 10 to 12 times per hour and breathe deeply.

Answer 45

incentive spirometry

Question 46

___ a postoperative patient should dangle his legs over the side of the bed and perform deep-breathing exercises.

Answer 46

Before ambulating