Medsurg 2

Question 1

If a patient has a gastric drainage tube in place, the nurse should expect the physician to order ____

Answer 1

potassium chloride

Question 2

An increased ___ is one of the first indications of respiratory difficulty. It occurs because the heart attempts to compensate for a decreased oxygen supply to the tissues by pumping more blood.

Answer 2

pulse rate

Question 3

___ is characterized by brittle bones, pinpoint peripheral hemorrhages, and friable gums with loosened teeth.

Answer 3

Vitamin C deficiency

Question 4

____ results from the failure to absorb vitamin B12 in the GI tract and causes primarily GI and neurologic signs and symptoms.

Answer 4

Pernicious anemia

Question 5

Normally, intraocular pressure is 12 to 20 mm Hg. It can be measured with a ___.

Answer 5

tonometer

Question 6

To assess capillary refill, the nurse applies pressure over the nail bed until blanching occurs, quickly releases the pressure, and notes the rate at which blanching fades. Capillary refill indicates ____ , which decreases in shock, thereby lengthening refill time. Normal capillary refill is less than 3 seconds.

Answer 6

perfusion

Question 7

Except for patients with renal failure, urine output of less than 30 ml/hour signifies ___ and the potential for shock.

Answer 7

dehydration

Question 8

In elderly patients, the most common fracture is ____ . Osteoporosis weakens the bones, predisposing these patients to fracture, which usually results from a fall.

Answer 8

hip fracture

Question 9

Before ___ , the nurse should ask the patient whether he’s allergic to the dye, shellfish, or iodine and advise him to take nothing by mouth for 8 hours before the procedure.

Answer 9

angiography

Question 10

During ____ , approximately 10 to 15 ml of cerebrospinal fluid is removed for laboratory studies and an equal amount of contrast media is injected.

Answer 10

myelography

Question 11

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea may indicate ___

Answer 11

heart failure

Question 12

A patient who takes a cardiac glycoside, such as digoxin, should consume a diet that includes ___ .

Answer 12

high-potassium foods

Question 13

The nurse should limit tracheobronchial suctioning to ___ and should make only two passes.

Answer 13

10 to 15 seconds

Question 14

Before performing tracheobronchial suctioning, the nurse should ventilate and oxygenate the patient five to six times with a resuscitation bag and 100% oxygen. This procedure is called ___

Answer 14

Bagging

Question 15

Signs and symptoms of ___ include tachypnea, restlessness, hypotension, and tracheal deviation.

Answer 15

pneumothorax

Question 16

The cardinal sign of toxic shock syndrome is ___

Answer 16

rapid onset of a high fever.

Question 17

key sign of peptic ulcer is ___, which can be bright red or dark red, with the consistency of coffee grounds.

Answer 17

hematemesis

Question 18

___ is a common adverse reaction to aluminum hydroxide.

Answer 18

Constipation

Question 19

If the body doesn’t use glucose for energy, it metabolizes fat and produces ____.

Answer 19

ketones

Question 20

Hypertension and hypokalemia are the most significant clinical manifestations of primary ____

Answer 20

hyperaldosteronism

Question 21

After percutaneous aspiration of the bladder, the patient’s first void is usually ___: however, urine with trank blood should be reported to the physician.

Answer 21

pink

Question 22

A patient who is undergoing dialysis should take a vitamin supplement and eat foods that are high in calories, but ____

Answer 22

low in protein, sodium, and potassium

Question 23

In a patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the most effective ways to reduce thick secretions are to ___ to 2,500 ml/day and encourage ambulation.

Answer 23

increase fluid intake

Question 24

The nurse should teach a patient with emphysema how to perform ____ because this slows expiration, prevents alveolar collapse, and helps to control the respiratory rate.

Answer 24

pursed lip breathing

Question 25

___ may develop in a patient who has chronic COPD obstructive pulmonary disease.

Answer 25

Clubbing of the digits and a barrel chest

Question 26

A stroke (“brain attack”) disrupts the brain’s blood supply and may be caused by ___.

Answer 26

hypertension

Question 27

In a patient who is ____ desired outcomes are normal weight, normal serum albumin level (3.5 to 5.5 g/dl), and adequate protein intake (1.2 to 1.5 g/kg of body weight daily).

Answer 27

undergoing dialysis

Question 28

Intermittent peritoneal dialysis involves performing three to seven treatments that total ___

Answer 28

40 hours per week

Question 29

In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the best way to administer oxygen is by ____ The normal flow rate is 2 to 3 L/minute.

Answer 29

nasal cannula

Question 30

___ can be administered with a handheld nebulizer or by intermittent positive-pressure breathing

Answer 30

Isoetharine (Bronkosol)

Question 31

__ is irreversible cessation of brain function.

Answer 31

Brain death

Question 32

_____ requires four exchanges per day, 7 days per week, for a total of 168 hours per week.

Answer 32

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

Question 33

The ____ are dry mouth, drowsiness, and blurred vision

Answer 33

classic adverse reactions to antihistamines

Question 34

Because of the risk of ____ , a patient who has received a general anesthetic can’t take anything by mouth until active bowel sounds are heard in all abdominal quadrants

Answer 34

risk of paralytic ileus

Question 35

The level of alpha-fetoprotein, a tumor marker, is elevated in patients who have ____.

Answer 35

testicular germ cell cancer

Question 36

Clinical manifestations of ____caused by bacteria or mumps include high temperature, chills, and sudden pain in the involved testis.

Answer 36

orchitis

Question 37

The level of prostate-specific antigen is elevated in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia or ____

Answer 37

prostate cancer.

Question 38

The level of prostatic acid phosphatase is elevated in patients with ____

Answer 38

advanced stages of prostate cancer

Question 39

Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine), a mydriatic, is instilled in a patient’s eye ____

Answer 39

to dilate the eye

Question 40

To promote fluid drainage and relieve edema in a patient with ____, the nurse should elevate the scrotum on a scrotal bridge,

Answer 40

epididymitis

Question 41

__ is commonly used to assess corneal abrasions because it outlines superficial epithelial defects.

Answer 41

Fluorescein staining

Question 42

__ is loss of near vision as a result of the loss of elasticity of the crystalline lens.

Answer 42

Presbyopia

Question 43

A sign of acute appendicitis, __ is tenderness at McBurney’s point (about 2” [5 cm] from the right anterior superior iliac spine on a line between the spine and the umbilicus).

Answer 43

McBurney’s sign

Question 44

When caring for a patient with ____, the nurse should focus on respiratory interventions as the disease process advances.

Answer 44

Guillain - Barre syndrome

Question 45

Signs and symptoms of ___ include rectal bleeding, change in bowel habits, intestinal obstruction, abdominal pain, weight loss, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.

Answer 45

colon cancer

Question 46

Symptoms of ___ include frequent urination and dysuria.

Answer 46

prostatitis

Question 47

A ___ is a painless, ulcerative lesion that develops during the primary stage of syphilis.

Answer 47

chancre