Medsurg 10

Question 1

___ respirations are characterized by alternating periods of apnea and deep, rapid breathing. They occur in patients with central nervous system disorders.

Answer 1

Cheyne-Stokes

Question 2

___ can result from an increased frequency of breathing, an increased tidal volume, or both.

Answer 2

Hyperventilation

Question 3

____ is the absence of spontaneous respirations,

Answer 3

Apnea

Question 4

____ , a patient may receive potassium iodide, antithyroid drugs, and propranolol (Inderal) to prevent thyroid storm during surgery.

Answer 4

Before a thyroidectomy

Question 5

The normal life span of red blood cells (erythrocytes) is ____

Answer 5

110 to 120 days.

Question 6

__ means that the patient sees at 20’ (6 m) what a person with normal vision sees at 100’ (30 m).

Answer 6

Visual acuity of 20/100

Question 7

____ are more common in girls and women than in boys and men because the shorter urethra in the female urinary tract makes the bladder more accessible to bacteria, especially Escherichia coli.

Answer 7

Urinary tract infections

Question 8

____ is administered orally 1 to 2 hours before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals because food may interfere with the drug’s absorption

Answer 8

Penicillin

Question 9

Mild reactions to ____ may include palpitations, tinnitus, vertigo, apprehension, confusion, and a metallic taste in the mouth.

Answer 9

local anesthetics

Question 10

About 22% of cardiac output goes to the ____ ,

Answer 10

kidneys

Question 11

To ensure accurate ____ readings, the nurse should place the manometer or transducer level with the phlebostatic axis.

Answer 11

central venous pressure

Question 12

A patient who has lost 2,000 to 2,500 ml of blood will have a pulse rate of 140 beats/minute (or higher), display a systolic blood pressure of 50 to 60 mm Hg, and appear ____

Answer 12

confused and lethargic.

Question 13

____ is bright red, flows rapidly, and (because it’s pumped directly from the heart) spurts with each heartbeat.

Answer 13

Arterial blood

Question 14

____ is dark red and tends to ooze from a wound.

Answer 14

Venous blood

Question 15

____ is taken with the patient in the supine, sitting, and standing positions, with 1 minute between each reading. A 10-mm Hg decrease in blood pressure or an increase in pulse rate of 10 beats/minute suggests volume depletion.

Answer 15

Orthostatic blood pressure

Question 16

A ____ should be used cautiously in pregnant women and patients with head injuries.

Answer 16

pneumatic antishock garment

Question 17

After a patient’s circulating volume is restored, the nurse ____ , starting with the abdominal chamber and followed by each leg The garment should be removed under a physician’s supervision.

Answer 17

should remove the pneumatic antishock garment gradually

Question 18

Most _____ associated with mismatching of ABO blood types stem from identification number errors.

Answer 18

hemolytic transfusion reactions

Question 19

Warming of blood to more than 107° F (41.7° C) can cause ____ ,

Answer 19

hemolysis

Question 20

___ is the amount of blood ejected from the heart each minute. It’s expressed in liters per minute

Answer 20

Cardiac output

Question 21

____ is the volume of blood ejected from the heart during systole.

Answer 21

Stroke volume

Question 22

____ contains dextrose, amino acids, and additives, such as electrolytes, minerals, and vitamins,

Answer 22

Total parenteral nutrition solution

Question 23

The most common type of ____ is spinal shock. It usually occurs 30 to 60 minutes after a spinal cord injury.

Answer 23

neurogenic shock

Question 24

After a ____ , peristalsis stops within 24 hours and usually returns within 3 to 4 days

Answer 24

spinal cord injury

Question 25

___ is manifested by a temperature of at least 102° F (38.8° C), an ervthematous rash, and systolic blood pressure of less than 90 mm Hg. From 1 to 2 weeks after the onset of these signs, desquamation (especially on the palms and soles) occurs.

Answer 25

Toxic shock syndrome

Question 26

The signs and symptoms of ____ are commonly caused by histamine release.

Answer 26

anaphylaxis

Question 27

The most common cause of ____ is gram-negative bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, and Pseudomonas organisms,

Answer 27

septic shock

Question 28

____ that resemble heart murmurs and result from turbulent blood flow through a diseased or partially obstructed artery.

Answer 28

Bruits are vascular sounds

Question 29

Urine pH is normally ____

Answer 29

4.5 to 8.0,

Question 30

Urine pH of greater than 8.0 can result from a urinary tract infection, a ____ or systemic alkalosis.

Answer 30

high-alkali diet

Question 31

____ may be caused by a high-protein diet, fever, or metabolic acidosis

Answer 31

Urine pH of less than 4.5

Question 32

____ , the patient should be placed on a firm surface and positioned on the abdomen. A sandbag is placed under the abdomen to stabilize the kidneys

Answer 32

Before a percutaneous renal biopsy

Question 33

____ is characterized by marked proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, mild to severe dependent edema, ascites, and weight gain.

Answer 33

Nephrotic syndrome

Question 34

____ is a form of therapy performed in a Hubbard tank!

Answer 34

Underwater exercise

Question 35

Most women with ____ have a malodorous, frothy, greenish gray vaginal discharge. Other women may have no signs or symptoms.

Answer 35

trichomoniasis

Question 36

____ may be performed to detect bladder and urethral abnormalities. Contrast medium is instilled by gentle syringe pressure through a urethral catheter, and overhead X-ray films are taken to visualize bladder filling and excretion.

Answer 36

Voiding cystourethrography

Question 37

___ may be performed to identify the cause of urinary tract infections congenital anomalies, and incontinence. It also is used to assess for prostate lobe hypertrophy in men.

Answer 37

Cystourethrography

Question 38

____ is characterized by recurrent episodes of blisters on the skin and mucous membranes. It has two variations. In type 1, the blisters appear in the nasolabial region; in type 2, they appear on the genitals, anus, buttocks, and thighs.

Answer 38

Herpes simplex

Question 39

Most patients with ____ trachomatis infection are asymptomatic, but some have an inflamed urethral meatus, dysuria, and urinary urgency and frequency,

Answer 39

Chlamydia

Question 40

The ____ regulates the autonomic nervous system and endocrine functions

Answer 40

hypothalamus

Question 41

A patient whose _____ is less than normal (3 to 6” [7.5 to 15 cm) must use accessory muscles to breathe.

Answer 41

chest excursion

Question 42

Signs and symptoms of ___ from thyroid replacement therapy include rapid pulse rate, diaphoresis, irritability, weight loss, dysuria, and sleep disturbance.

Answer 42

toxicity

Question 43

The most common allergic reaction to penicillin is a ___

Answer 43

rash

Question 44

An ____ is deep, rapid respirations.

Answer 44

early sign of aspirin toxicity

Question 45

The most serious and irreversible consequence of ____ is mental retardation, which results from neurologic damage.

Answer 45

lead poisoning

Question 46

_____ in the adult, the nurse should check skin turgor on the sternum.

Answer 46

To assess dehydration

Question 47

For a patient with a ____ , the type of diet is less important than including foods in the diet that the patient can tolerate

Answer 47

peptic ulcer

Question 48

A patient with a ____ must establish an irrigation schedule so that regular emptying of the bowel occurs without stomal discharge between irrigations. When using rotating tourniquets, the nurse shouldn’t restrict the blood supply to an arm or leg for more than 45 minutes at a time.

Answer 48

colostomy