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Physiology III > Lecture 13: Modulation for movement by the basal ganglia and cerebellum > Flashcards

Lecture 13: Modulation for movement by the basal ganglia and cerebellum Flashcards

1
Q

What two structures modulate activity of the upper motor neurons

A

Cerebellum and basal ganglia

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2
Q

T or F: cerebellum and basal ganglia generate movement

A

False!

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3
Q

The ___ sends information to the cerebellum and basal ganglia

A

Motor cortex

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4
Q

The cerebellum and basal ganglia send information back to the motor cortex through the ___

A

Thalamus

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5
Q

T or F: the effects of cerebellum and basal ganglia are similar

A

False, opposite

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6
Q

The contribution of the basal ganglia and the cerebellum allow for ___, ___ movements

A

Smooth and coordinated movement

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7
Q

Disturbances in either the cerebellum or basal ganglia will create ___ disorders

A

Motor

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8
Q

What are the 5 parts of the basal ganglia

A
  1. Caudate nucleus and putamen
  2. Globes pallidus
  3. Substantia Nigra
  4. Subthalamic nucleus
  5. Thalamus
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9
Q

What role does the caudate nucleus and putamen play in the basal ganglia

A

Receives excitatory input from the cortex

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10
Q

What two structures make up the globus pallidus

A

External/outer segment and internal/inner segment

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11
Q

What two structures make up the substantia nigra

A

Pars compacta and pars reticularis

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12
Q

What does the thalamus do in the basal ganglia

A

Sends modulated excitatory feedback to the cortex

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13
Q

describe the direct pathway

A

1.cortex signals to striatum (putamen)
2. Striatum sends inhibitory signal to globulus pallidus (internal) and substantia nigra (pars reticulata)
3. Those two structures send an inhibitory signal to the thalamus resulting in disinhibition of thalamus
4. Thalamus sends stimulatory signal to cortex to increase activity in cortex
5. Cortex sends out signal to upper motor neurons

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14
Q

Describe the indirect pathway

A
  1. Cortex signals to striatum
  2. Striatum sends inhibitory signals to globulus pallidus which inhibits subthalamic nucleus
  3. Subthalamic nucleus sends activating signal to globulus pallidus and substantia nigra
  4. Activated globulus pallidus and substantia nigra will NOT disinhibit thalamus
  5. Thalamus will decrease activating signal sent back to cortex
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15
Q

What is disinhibition

A

Inhibition of inhibition

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16
Q

What does disinhibition result in

A

Reduction in inhibition that leads to an increase in feedback from the thalamus to the cortex

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17
Q

Thalamus output is always___

A

Excitatory

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18
Q

Direct pathway ___thalamic excitation of the cortex

A

Increases

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19
Q

The indirect pathway ___ thalamic excitation of the cortex

A

Decreases

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20
Q

What neurotransmitter does the cortex release onto the striatum

A

Glutamate

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21
Q

What neurotransmitter does the substantia nigra release onto striatum

A

Dopamine

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22
Q

Damage to the substantia nigra can cause what kinds of diseases

A

Parkinsonian

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23
Q

What neutrotransmitter do the striatum interneurons release

A

Acetylcholine

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24
Q

What neurotransmitter does the striatum release onto the globus pallidus

A

GABA

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25
Q

What neurotransmitter does the globulus pallidus release onto the thalamus

A

GABA

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26
Q

What does the Subthalamic nucleus release onto the globulus pallidus

A

Glutamate

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27
Q

What does the thalamus release onto cortex

A

Glutamate

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28
Q

Where is dopamine produced in the brain

A

Substantia nigra

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29
Q

Where is dopamine released in the brain

A

Striatum/putamen

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30
Q

DA is __ to cells in the striatum as part of the direct pathway

A

Excitatory

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31
Q

What receptors does DA stimulate in direct pathway

A

D1

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32
Q

DA is __ to cells in striatum that are part of the indirect pathway

A

Inhibitory

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33
Q

What receptors does dopamine act on in the indirect pathway

A

D2

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34
Q

What produces ACh and where

A

Interneurons in the striatum

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35
Q

ACh is ___ to cells in the striatum that are part of the direct pathway

A

Inhibitory

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36
Q

The striatum releases ACh onto ___ in the direct pathway

A

Globulus pallidus and substantia nigra

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37
Q

ACh is ___ to cells in the striatum that are part of the indirect pathway

A

Excitatory

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38
Q

The effects of ACh are ___ to that of DA

A

Opposite

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39
Q

Effects of dopamine ___ thalamic input to cortex

A

Increase

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40
Q

Effects of ACh ___thalamic input to the cortex

A

Decrease

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41
Q

How do you achieve balance of direct and indirect pathway

A

Balance ACh and DA in brain

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42
Q

Activation of the direct basal nuclei pathway ___excitation of the cortex

A

Increases

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43
Q

Activation of the indirect basal nuclei pathway ___ excitation of the cortex

A

Decreases

44
Q

Increased ___signaling in both pathways increases excitation of the cortex

A

Dopamine

45
Q

Increased ____signaling in both pathways decreased excitation of the cortex

A

Acetylcholine

46
Q

Damage to the basal nuclei results in two kinds of disorders:

A
  1. Hyperkinesia- increase movement
  2. Hypokinesia- decrease movement
47
Q

What species is knapweed poisonous to

A

Horses

48
Q

What causes chewing disease in horses

A

Knapweed poisoning

49
Q

what is symptoms are involved in chewing disease

A
  1. Impaired ability to eat and drink
  2. Confused behavior
  3. Mouth held open with chewing motions that can injure mouth or gums
  4. Starvation or dehydration
50
Q

__inhibts dopamine transport in the equine brain in knapweed poisoning

A

DDMP

51
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in knapweed posoining

A

CN V, VII, and IX

52
Q

Injuries to cranial nerves V, VII, and IX results in ___ to facial muscles

A

Hypertonicity

53
Q

Knapweed poisoning can cause lesions in what brain structures

A

Substantia nigra and globus pallidus

54
Q

What structure in the brain compares intended movements to actual movements and makes adjustments

A

Cerebellum

55
Q

Cerebellar lesions result in ___

A

Ataxia

56
Q

Lesions to the cerebellar do not ___ or ___

A

Prevent movement or impair strength

57
Q

What are the 3 regions of the cerebellum

A

Vestibulocerebellum, spinocerebellum, cerebrocerebellum

58
Q

What is the vestibulocerebellum responsible for

A

Input from the vestibular nucleus that regulates balance and eye movements

59
Q

What does the spinocerebellum do

A

Receives input from the muscles, skin and cortex. Enhances muscle tone and coordinates skilled voluntary movement, predicts position of the body in space during movement

60
Q

What does the cerebrocerebellum do

A

Receives input from the primary motor cortex and plans and initiates voluntary activity, procedural memory

61
Q

Which structure in the brain allows for unconscious control of fine motor movements

A

Cerebellum

62
Q

What is the main output of the cerebellum

A

Motor cortex

63
Q

The cerebellum receives inputs from what three things

A
  1. Cortex
  2. Vestibular system
  3. Muscle spindles
64
Q

What is the molecular layer of the cerebellum

A

Represents the outer layer, sparse in cell bodies

65
Q

What is the granule layer in the cerebellum

A

Inner layer of the cerebellum, rich in cell bodies

66
Q

Small granule cells project their axons into the ___layer

A

Molecular

67
Q

What layer has myelinated fibers that bring signals in and out

A

White matter

68
Q

What are the large cells at the edge of the granule cell layer

A

Purkinje cells

69
Q

What cells are the only output of the cerebellum

A

Purkinje fibers

70
Q

Where are deep cerebellar nuclei located

A

In the white matter

71
Q

What are the inputs for feed forward control of cerebellum

A
  1. Copy of the motor plan from the cerebral cortex
  2. Sensory information from the vestibular system, eyes, skin, joints and muscles

Integration: motor and sensory inputs are integrated to make an error correction and adjust posture

72
Q

Describe the flow chart of cortex motor output to posture distributed

A
  1. Cortex motor output (UMN—>LMN)
  2. Body moves
  3. Posture is distributed
73
Q

The cortex motor output is responsible for the ____of anticipated postural disturbances

A

Feed forward

74
Q

The distribution of posture is responsible for the ___of unanticipated postural disturbances

A

Feedback

75
Q

The feedback and feed forward mechanisms of postural disturbances result in

A

An adjusted posture

76
Q

What is the input to the vestibulocerebellum

A

Vestibulosensory input from vestibular organ, superior colliculus, striate(visual) cortex

77
Q

What is the output of the vestibulocerebellum

A
  1. Vestibulocerebellum
  2. Lateral and medial vestibular nuclei
  3. Vestibulospinal and bulbar tracts
78
Q

What is the function of the vestibulocerebellum

A

Coordinate the movement of the head and eyes and control antigravity muscles

79
Q

What is the result of dysfunction of the vestibulocerebellum system

A

Ataxia, poor balance, wide gate

80
Q

What is the input to the spinocerebellum

A

Spinal and trigeminal sensory inputs, auditory inputs, striate (visual) cortex

81
Q

What is the output of the spinocerebellum

A
  1. Spinocerebellum
  2. Interposted and fastigial nuclei
  3. Descending brain stem and corticospinal pathways
82
Q

What is the function of the spinocerebellum system

A

Proper execution of coordinated movements

83
Q

What is the result of dysfunction of the spinocerebellum system

A

Dysmetria, functional tremor, decreased muscle tone

84
Q

What is the input to the cerebrocerebellum

A

Premotor, supplementary and primary motor cortex

85
Q

What is the output of the cerebrocerebellum

A
  1. Cerebrocerebellum
  2. Den Tate nucleus
  3. Red nucleus sends output to ipsilateral olivary nucleus
  4. Motor and premotor cortices
86
Q

What is the function of the cerebrocerebellum

A

Planning, initiation, timing, learning of motor skills and properly timed movement sequences

87
Q

What are some symptoms of patients with cerebellar lesions

A

Wide gait, ataxia, dysmetria, asynergia, intention tremor, nystagmus, head bobbing

88
Q

What is dysmetria

A

Inappropriate measure of muscle length. Movements continue for too long or too short; goose stepping. Typified by undershooting or overshooting intended targets

89
Q

What is asynergia

A

Miscoordination of the components of a complex, multiple joint movements

90
Q

What is an intention tremor

A

Oscillating movement that is more severe when an animal is moving or completing a movement

91
Q

What is nystagmus

A

Eyes not coordinated

92
Q

Where does the superior cerebellar peduncle cross

A

Casual midbrain level

93
Q

Why would a cerebellar lesion prior to the decussation of the superior cerebellar peduncle cause an ipsilateral motor deficit

A

Because the ascending information from the lesion in cerebellum decussates to contra lateral side but descending information from UMN to LMN decussates back to ipsilateral side

94
Q

If you have a lesion on the left cerebellum prior to the decussation would the motor deficit be ipsilateral on the left side or contralateral on the right side

A

Left side- Ipsilateral (same side)

95
Q

What is canine multiple system degeneration

A

Fatal familial movement disorder

96
Q

When does ataxia develop in canine multiple system degneration

A

3-6 months old

97
Q

What are the severe symptoms of canine multiple system degeneration

A

Akinesia and severe postural instability

98
Q

T or F: both the basal nuclei and cerebellum are affected in canine multiple system degeneration

A

True

99
Q

What is bovine virus diarrhea virus

A

Transplacental infection of developing fetus in the first 6 months may result in various congenital malformations including neurological disorders

100
Q

What is the most frequent neurological disorder in BVDV

A

Cerebellar hypoplasia

101
Q

What is degenerated in cerebellar hypoplasia

A

Purkinje cells, loss of granule cell layer, resulting in a reduced cerebellum

102
Q

Cats can develop cerebellar hypoplasia if they inherited or acquired what disease

A

Panleukopenia virus

103
Q

T or F: panleukopenia can be transmitted across the placenta

A

True

104
Q

What does panleukopenia attack that causes cerebellar hypoplasia

A

Attacks diving cells in outer layers of cerebellum

105
Q

What are some symptoms of cerebellar hypoplasia

A

Intentional tremor, ataxia, wide gate, head bobbing

Physiology III (34 decks)

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