L20: Urinary Tract and Genital Infections Flashcards

1
Q

UTI’s or pyelonephritis refer to infections of the kidneys and ureters, which make up the…
A. Lower Urinary Tract
B. Upper Urinary Tract

A

B. Upper Urinary Tract

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2
Q

True or False: Urethritis may be due to either NF or STI, whereas BV is usually due to displaced flora

A

False -
while Urethritis may be due to either NF or STI, BV is usually due to OVERGROWTH of NF at a site that it’s normally found

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3
Q

Which four gram (-) bacilli commonly cause cystitis and pyelonephritis?
(hint: PEP K)

Which four gram (+) cocci commonly cause cystitis and pyelonephritis
(hint: SOS E)

A

Gram (-) Bacilli
1) P. mirabilis
2) E. coli
3) P. aeuroginoas
4) Klebsiella

Gram (+) Cocci
1) S. aureus
2) Other coag-negative staph
3) S. saprophyticus
4) Enterococcus

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4
Q

Which is the number one agent of UTI’s?

A

E. coli

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5
Q

Which of the following gram (-) bacilli secretes urease (urea to ammonia) leading to:
1) Alkaline urine
2) Urine crystals/stones made of struvite

A. P. mirabilis
B. E. coli
C. P. aeuroginoas
D. Klebsiella

A

A. Proteus mirabilis

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6
Q

What is the most common route for UTI’s?

A

Ascending Route

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7
Q

What path does a pathogen take to cause a UTI?

A

Urethra - colonization
Bladder - penetration
Ureter - ascension
Kidney

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8
Q

Once pathogen colonized urethra, it migrates to the bladder. As result, there is immune response induced by ___, leading to ___ accumulation on catheter, provides environment for attache of uropathogens that express __ ___ proteins

A

catheterization; fibrinogen; fibrinogen-binding proteins

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9
Q

___ is important for establishing a UTI while ___ can assist in tissue invasion
A. Biofilm; Hemolysins
B. Urease; Capsule
C. Adhesions; Hemolysins
D. Capsule; Biofilm

A

C. Adhesions; Hemolysins

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptoms of Cystitis (bladder infection)?
A. Hematuria
B. Increased urinary frequency or urgency
C. Fever
D. Suprapubic pain

A

C. Fever

  • Fever is associated with Pyelonephritis
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11
Q

What is the most common mechanism of transmission of urogenital infections?
A. Hand-Genital
B. Vertical
C. Fomites
D. Sexual

A

D. Sexual

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of normal vaginal flora?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Anaerobes
C. Klebsiella
D. Staphylococci
E. Streptococci

A

C. Klebsiella

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13
Q

A patient has pus or exudate. Tests show they have co-infection with Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. Which complication should you warn them about?
A. Cervical Cancer
B. HIV
C. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A

C. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

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14
Q

A patient has HPV (genital warts). Which complication should you warn them about?
A. Cervical Cancer
B. HIV
C. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A

A. Cervical Cancer

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15
Q

Which of the following pathogens is a gram (-) diplococci that should be grown on selective media, such as: Thayer Martin
A. N. gonorrhoeae
B. C. trachomatis

A

A. N. gonorrhoeae

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16
Q

What are 2 ways that N. gonorrhoeae can infect mucosal surfaces and survive within a neutrophil?

How does N. gonorrhoeae establish an infection?

A

1) Attach to mucosal cell
2) Penetrate cell

  • Est. infection by passing into sub-epithelial space
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17
Q

What three features allow N. gonorrhoeae to adhere and invade?

A

1) Opa protein - firm attachment
2) OM proteins - prevents phagolysome fusion
3) Type IV Pili - attach, neutrophil killing

18
Q

Which of the following is NOT a strategy used by N. gonorrhoeae to evade immune system
A. LOS - endotoxin activity
B. IgA Protease
C. OM Proteins
D. Pili

A

C. OM Proteins
- used for invasion and adherence

19
Q

True or False: Cervicitis, Urethritis, or Vaginal/Urethra discharge may result due to infection by N. gonorrhoeae

20
Q

True or False: Chlamydia can cause non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU) while N. gonorrhoeae can cause gonococcal urethritis (GU)

21
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with Chlamydia?
A. LPS - weak endotoxin activity
B. MOMP’s
C. Obligate Intracellular Pathogen
D. Light microscopy

A

D. Light microscopy

22
Q

What’s the difference between the two different forms of Chlamydia: Elementary Body (EB) and Reticulate Body (RB)?

A

EB = Infectious, non-replication, resistant to harsh environment

RB = Non-Infectious, replicating, met. activity

23
Q

Which of the following replicates using binary fission, remains in cytoplasmic phagosome, and is seen as inclusion with antibody staining?
A. Elementary Body
B. Reticulate Body

A

B. Reticulate Body

24
Q

Although ___ is commonly asymptomatic, mucopurulent discharge can be seen as a result of infection
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia

A

B. Chlamydia

25
What can occur if a neonate gets Chlamydia?
Inclusion or neonatal conjunctivitis
26
True or False: Both men and women can develop urethritis due to infection by C. trach or N. gonorrhoeae
True
27
T. pallidum causes ____
Syphilis
28
When is syphilis most contagious?
Primary and secondary stage
29
True or False: C. trach enters the skin and mucous membranes, then disseminates via: circulatory system
False - this is the case with T. pallidum
30
True or False: Early infection by T. pallidum infect skin and mucosal surfaces while late infection can affect any organ system
True
31
Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a papule that has progressed to an infectious -- yet, painless-- ulcer/chancre? A. Secondary B. Primary C. Latent
B. Primary
32
If primary syphilis is not treated, it will progress to secondary syphilis, which is characterized by ___ and other lesions (e.g condylomata lata)
rash
33
True or False: Condylomata lata lesions--which characterize secondary syphilis--are highly infectious
True
34
True or False: Gumma, CV Syphilis, and Neurosyphilis are features of tertiary (late stage) syphilis
True
35
When is the risk of Congenital Syphilis (transmission of T. pallidum to fetus) greatest?
Primary or Secondary Syphilis
36
True or False: T. pallidum requires darkfield microscopy and is fastidious (meaning: cannot be cultured in vitro)
True
37
_____ a condition in which H2O2-producing Lactobacilli are replaced by other pathogens. There is NO inflammation.
BV (bacterial vaginosis)
38
What two etiologic agents are responsible for BV?
1) Garnerella* - Facultative anerobe - Non motile - Rod 2) Mobiluncus - Obligate anaerobe - Vibrio
39
Which gram negative rod is responsible for causing failures/recurrence after metronidazole treatment of BV? A. Prevotella B. Fusobacterium C. Atopobium D. Bacteroides
C. Atopobium
40
True or False: Having BV is a risk factor for HIV
True
41
Why is there no inflammation seen in BV?
Production of succinate (inhibits infiltration of PMN's)
42
True or False: (+) Clue cells and (+) Whiff or Sniff Test , as well as pH that is greater than 6 suggests BV
True