Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical Microbiology > L1 and L2: Intro, Functional Anatomy, and Life Cycle > Flashcards

L1 and L2: Intro, Functional Anatomy, and Life Cycle Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

True or False: Prokaryotes lack a nuclear membrane and contain a single, circular molecule of DNA

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False: Eukaryotes have a nuclear membrane and use mitosis for both division and sexual repro

A

False - while eukaryotes do have nuclear membranes, they use mitosis for division and meiosis for sexual repro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do prokaryotes divide? sexually reproduce?

A

Prokaryotes divide via: binary fission
and use horizontal gene transfer for repro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or False: prokaryotes have membranes that CONTAIN sterols

A

False - prokaryotes have membranes that usually LACK sterols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

50S, 30S, and 70S are found in ____ while 40S, 60S, and 80S are found in ____

A

50S, 30S, and 70S = Prokaryotes
40S, 60S, and 80S = Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Compare respiratory system in prokaryotes vs. eukaryotes:

A

Prokaryotes - plasma membrane
Eukaryotes - mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of cell wall is present in prokaryote vs. eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryote - peptidoglycan cell wall
Eukaryote - polysaccharide cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: eukaryotes have endospores

A

False - only prokaryotes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or False: Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have cytoskeleton

A

True
(in eukaryotes: tubulin, actin, and IF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do flagella compare in prokaryotes vs. eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes: submicroscopic, single-repeating peptide

Eukaryotes: 9+2 arrangement of microtubules; microscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or False: Gliding is present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

True
(in eukaryotes: amoeboid and pseudopodia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: Mycoplasma and Polio virus are two of the largest bacteria/virus while Bacilus anthracis and pox virus is one of the smallest

A

False - Mycoplasma and Polio virus are one of the SMALLEST while Bacilus anthracis and Pox Virus is one of the LARGEST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can T. pallidum best be seen?
A. Darkfield microscopy
B. Bright field microscopy

A

A. Darkfield microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which stain will stain CELLS and not the extracellular medium?
A. Positive
B. Negative

A

A. Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which stain will stain the EXTRACELLULAR MEDIUM and not the cells?
A. Positive
B. Negative

A

B. Negative
- Note: India ink for visualizing capsules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False: Gram positive cell wall/peptidoglycan layer retains crystal violet-iodine complex, while Gram negative wall does not

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the steps of staining bacteria?

A

Crystal violet
Iodine (fixative)
Alcohol (decolorizer)
Safranin (counterstain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which two gram (+) bacteria stain Gram-variable and Gram(-) negative, respectively?
A. Listeria; Lactobacillus
B. Enterococcus; Gardnerella
C. Garderella; Mobiluncus

A

C. Garderella; Mobiluncus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False: 70S exists in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A

True - mitochondria in eukaryotes is 70S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the five steps to staining?

A

1) Fixation (heat)
2) Crystal Violet
3) Iodine Treatment
4) Decolorization (alcohol)
5) Counter stain (safranin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

You have a Gram (+) bacteria. However, after doing the staining procedure, it becomes red (not purple). Why is this?

A

Forgot to treat with iodine (therefore: bacteria did not get fixed with the primary stain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In the second step of staining, crystal violet is administered to the bacteria, causing both gram positive and gram negative bacteria to turn ___

In the third step of staining, bacteria is treated with iodine, causing both gram positive and negative bacteria to turn ___

A

blue
purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

During the decolorization phase of staining, what color is the gram (+) bacteria? Gram (-) bacteria?

A

Gram (+) = Purple
Gram (-) = None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At the final stage of staining, what color is gram (+) bacteria? Gram (-) bacteria?

A

Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What can occur if you over decolorize Gram (+) bacteria? What can occur if you under decolorize Gram (-) bacteria?

A

Gram (+) = translucent to red
Gram (-) = purple to purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the three types of cellular arrangements that bacteria can take?

A

Diplococci (kidney bean or lancet) ; Chain ; Cluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the five types of cellular morphology that bacteria can have?

A

1) Cocci
2) Rod
3) Helicoidal
4) Pleomorphic Bacillus
5) Endospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the four medically significant gram (+) bacteria that end in -coccus?

A

1) Strepto
2) Staphylo
3) Entero
4) Peptostrepto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: Clostridium is a medically significant gram NEGATIVE bacteria

A

False - clostridium is a medically significant gram (+) bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the four medically significant gram (+) bacteria that end in -bacterium?

A

1) Corynebacterium
2) Bifidobacterium
3) Propionibacterium
4) Cutibacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two medically significant gram (+) bacteria that end in -cillus?

A

Bacillus and Lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or False: Both Gardnerella and Mobiluncus are structurally gram (+)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the three medically important “kidney bean” shaped GRAM NEGATIVE diplococci?

A

1) Neisseria
2) Moraxella
3) Veillonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or False: This is a gram (+) bacteria diplococci, known as N. gonorrhoeae

A

False - while this is N. gonorrhoeae - it is a gram negative diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which medically important “lancet-shaped” diplococci is this?
A. Listeria
B. Neisseria
C. Streptococcus pneumonia

A

C. Streptococcus pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True or False: This is an acid fast positive (pink) bacteria, which utilizes a: Carbol Fuchsin/ Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mycobacteria and Nocardia are: _____
A. Gram (+) Bacteria
B. Gram (-) Bacteria
C. Viruses
D. Endospore Formers
E. Acid-Fast Bacteria

A

E. Acid-Fast Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mycobacteria and Nocardia are: _____
A. Gram (+) Bacteria
B. Gram (-) Bacteria
C. Viruses
D. Endospore Formers
E. Acid-Fast Bacteria

A

E. Acid-Fast Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Clostridium and Bacillus are: ____
A. Gram (+) Bacteria
B. Gram (-) Bacteria
C. Viruses
D. Endospore Formers
E. Acid-Fast Bacteria

A

D. Endospore Formers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True or False: This is an example of bacterial endospore formers

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following gram-negative comma (vibrio) shaped bacteria is shown?
A. Vibrio
B. Helicobacter
C. Campylobacter

A

B. Helicobacter (H. pylori)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following gram-negative comma (vibrio) shaped bacteria is shown?
A. Vibrio
B. Helicobacter
C. Campylobacter

A

C. Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following gram-negative comma (vibrio) shaped bacteria is shown?
A. Vibrio
B. Helicobacter
C. Campylobacter

A

A. Vibrio (V. cholera)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Bipolar staining is used and the bacteria have a safety-pin appearance. What two features can you determine about this bacteria given these facts?
A. Gram positive, bacillus
B. Gram positive, cocci
C. Gram negative, rod
D. Gram negative, helicoidal

A

C. Gram negative, rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which gram negative, rod-shaped bacteria caused the plague?

Which gram negative, rod-shaped bacteria can arise via animal bites?

A

Plague - Yersinia pestis
Animal bites - Pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

True or False: E.coli and Klebsiella are rod shaped, gram (+) bacteria

A

False - while they are rod shaped, they are gram (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Identify the following stains:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following is shown?
A. Streptococci (chain)
B. Staphylococci (cluster)

A

B. Staphylococci (cluster)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following is shown?
A. Streptococci (chain)
B. Staphylococci (cluster)

A

A. Streptococci (chain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or False: Both Staphylococci and Streptococci are gram positive bacteria

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

___ is shown to be a very short rod

A

Coccobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What type of arrangement does Klebsiella, a gram negative, rod shaped bacteria, have?
A. Chain
B. Single

A

B. Single

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of arrangement does Bacillus have?
A. Chain
B. Single

A

A. Chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True or False: Diptheroids are thin-branching filamentous rods

A

False - diptheroids are club-shaped rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following is shown:
A. Corynebacterium
B. Nocardia
C. Actinomyces
D. Vibrio

A

A. Corynebacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

This bacteria is a thin-branching, filamentous rods. Given this, which of the following is it most likely to be?
A. Coccobacillus
B. Actinomyces
C. Corynebacterium
D. Nocardia

A

B/D

57
Q

True or False: Borrelia and Treponema are spirochetal shaped

A

True

58
Q

True or False: This a curved rod (Vibrio)

A

False - it is spirochetal (treponema)

59
Q

True or False: H. influenzae is pleomorphic bacillus, meaning it varies in size and shape

A

True

60
Q

Which three features make up the bacterial envelope?

A

1) Capsule
2) Cell wall - peptidoglycan
3) Cell membrane - cytoplasmic/plasma membrane

61
Q

Which three features are sometimes present in a bacterial cell?

A

Plasmic, Capsule, and Flagella

62
Q

___ are extrachromosomal elements found intracellularly in bacteria

A

plasmids/prophages

63
Q

True or False: Bacterial chromosomes are single, circular, and double-stranded

A

True

64
Q

True or False: Intracellular bacteria structures are monomeric units (Type II-T independent antigens)

A

False - cell surface structures (such as: flagella, pili, or the capsule) are monomeric units (therefore: Type II-T independent antigens)

65
Q

Which bacterial structures are also known as H antigens?

Which bacterial structures are also known as K antigens?

A

Flagella = H antigens
Capsule/slime layer = K antigens

66
Q

What are the three primary functions of pili?

A

Adherence, motility, and anti-phagocytic
(also conjugation, sometimes)

67
Q

True or False: Type IV Pili is important for gliding and twitching motility

A

True

68
Q

What are three types of exopolysaccharides that can be used to create a capsule/slime layer?

A

1) Simple sugar molecule
2) Complex polysaccharides
3) D-glutamic acid

69
Q

True or False: D-glutamic acid is used to form a polypeptide capsule in B. anthracic

A

True

70
Q

Three functions of capsules and biofilm?

A

1) Adherence to host tissue and surface - e.g catheters/moving solutions
2) Antigen used to identify agent in serodiagnosis
3) Protection
a. Anti-phagocytic
b. Serum factors
c. Antibodies
d. Antibiotics

71
Q

True or False: The H antigen is important for motility and chemotaxis

A

True

72
Q

___: A protected structure of bacterial cells/microcolonies enmeshed in mucoid exopolysaccharide adhering to a wet surface

A

Biofilms

73
Q

True or False: Bacteria in biofilms undergo a phenotypic change and persist in the presence of antimicrobial agents that they are normally susceptible to

A

True

74
Q

True or False: Both Gram (+) and Gram (-) bacteria have a cell membrane

A

True

75
Q

Typically the cell membrane of prokaryotes lack sterols, except which four prokaryotes?
(hint: AHEM)

A

A-Anaplasma
H-Heliobacter
E-Ehrlichia
M-Mycoplasma

76
Q

True or False: In both gram positive and gram negative bacteria, the cell membrane is differentially permeable (to nutrients) and membrane transport exists for nutrients that are not permeable

A

True

77
Q

Where is the site of septum formation for cellular replication?

A

cell membrane and plasma membrane

78
Q

The peptidoglycan layer in the Gram positive cell wall is much ___ than the Gram negative cell wall

A

thicker

79
Q

Polysaccharides are covalently linked to the peptidoglycan layer in the ____ cell wall, not in the ____ cell wall

A

Gram positive; gram negative

80
Q

True or False: Lipid-containing molecules anchored in the cell membrane extend through the peptidoglycan layer in Gram negative cell walls, but not Gram positive cell walls

A

FALSE - lipid containing molecules anchored in the cell membrane extend through the peptidoglycan layer in GRAM POSITIVE CELL WALL (not in gram negative cell wall!!)

81
Q

Which of the following cell walls contains an outer membrane with LPS?
A. Gram positive cell wall
B. Gram negative cell wall

A

B. Gram negative cell wall

82
Q

Which of the following cell walls contains the periplasm where the peptidoglycan layer is located?
A. Gram positive cell wall
B. Gram negative cell wall

A

B. Gram negative cell wall

83
Q

Label the following structures found in the Gram (+) bacteria:

A
84
Q

Label the following structures found in the Gram (-) bacteria:

A
85
Q

True or False: The cell wall/peptidoglycan of bacteria act as virulence and toxicity factors, as well as antigens

A

True

86
Q

Which type of bacteria is O-antigen found in?

A

Gram (-)

87
Q

____: site where differential staining occurs during gram staining
A. Cell membrane
B. Cytoplasm
C. Cell wall

A

C. Cell wall

88
Q

Which bacterial structure prevents cell bursting via: osmotic forces and provides mechanical strength and rigidness?

A

Cell Wall

89
Q

Penicillin is not effective is bacteria that lack peptidoglycan, such as ____
A. Bacillus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Streptococcus

A

C. Mycoplasma

90
Q

True or False: Only Gram (+) Bacteria possess peptidoglycan

A

False - both gram positive and gram negative bacteria posses peptidoglycan

91
Q

_____ structure: fabric shell/mesh-like layer/crystal lattice structure encasing the cell

A

Murein (peptidoglycan) structure

92
Q

Peptidoglycan is made of a network of polymers, each consisting of repeating units containing _____ and ______

A

N-acetylmuramic (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)

93
Q

___ acts on the aminosugar backbone of peptidoglycan

A

Lysozyme

94
Q

How are N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) subunits on different strands crosslinked?

A

Via peptide stems (amino acid side chains)
- provides mechanical strength and prevents cell bursting

95
Q

True or False: In peptidoglycan, the cross-linkage via: peptide stems provides mechanical strength and prevents cell from bursting via: osmotic pressure

A

True

96
Q

Gram ____ cell wall consists of a periplasm and outer membrane

A

Gram negative

97
Q

The periplasm contains the ___ layer, which is only 1 layer thick

A

peptidoglycan

98
Q

True or False: LPS is unique to the outer membrane of Gram positive bacteria

A

False - LPS is unique to the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

99
Q

What feature of Gram (-) bacteria allows them to be resistant to dyes, hydrolytic enzymes, and detergents?

A

Outer Membrane

100
Q

How does the structure of peptidoglycan vary between bacterial species?

A

1) peptide side chain composition
2) bridge composition
3) chemical modification of amino acid

101
Q

Which amino acid is the bridge in the peptidoglycan for Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Glycine

102
Q

Why are gram positive bacterias susceptible to dyes, detergents, hydrolytic enzymes?

A

Lack OM

103
Q

Major function of periplasm?

A

Osmotic protection
- nutrient uptake
- chemotaxis

104
Q

True or False: OM is composed of lipopolysaccharide and phospholipid

A

True

105
Q

True or False: LPS is an exotoxin

A

False - endotoxin

106
Q

True or False: N. meningitis, N. gonorrhoeae, H. influenzae, and Haemophilus lack O-antigenic chain

A

True

107
Q

What are the four important structures that make up the LPS in gram negative bacteria?

A

1) Lipid A - disaccharides, phosphate groups, FA
2) Core polysaccharide - namely: KDO
3) Terminal polysaccharide - very specific
4) LOS

108
Q

True or False: LPS is chromosomally encoded and can induce a systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and act as an exogenous pyrogen due to its broad specificity

A

True

109
Q

True or False: LPS forms toxoids and is heat stable, even after autoclaving

A

False - LPS does not form toxoids; however it is heat stable, even after autoclaving

110
Q

How can you detoxify LPS?

A

Burning or oxidation, which disrupts Lipid A

111
Q

___ is heat labile, meaning it can be inactivated via 10 minutes of boiling

A

Exotoxin

112
Q

LPS an an important immunomodulator that can initiate SIRS, which can lead to ______

A

distributive shock

113
Q

Four clinical manifestations of SIRS?

A

temperature
tachy
tachypnea
leukocytosis or leukopenia

114
Q

What indirect effects can be mediate via LPS binding to LBP?

A

1) Surface bound CD14 - initiates signal transduction via TLR on macrophages + signal transduced through cytoplasm to the nucleus

2) Soluble CD13 receptor present in serum, which then binds to endothelial cells

115
Q

SIRS + a UTI suggests:
A. Sepsis
B. Severe Sepsis
C. Septic shock

A

A. Sepsis

116
Q

Sepsis + Organ Failure suggests:
A. Distributive Shock
B. Septic Shock
C. Severe Sepsis

A

C. Severe Sepsis

117
Q

Severe sepsis + refractory hypotension suggests:
A. Septic shock
B. Distribute Shock
C. Sepsis

A

A. Septic shock

118
Q

What causes Distributive Shock (DS) - warm shock/hypovolemic shock?

A

LPS activates macrophages and binds to the hypothalamus

119
Q

Non-blanching rash (petechial and purpuric rashes) and fever suggest ____ due to LPS activation of macrophages and binding to hypothalamus

A

distributive shock
- more specifically: DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)

120
Q

Which two tests can be used to detect LPS?

A

LAL (limulus amebocyte lysate) test or MAB against LPS

121
Q

True or False: Distributive shock causes drop in blood pressure due to vascular obstruction

A

False - due to loss of fluid from vascular system

122
Q

Endotoxin (LPS) initiates/activates SIRS by binding to ___

A

LBP (LPS binding protein)

123
Q

True or False: Gram positive cell wall has an outer membrane and LPS/Endotoxin

A

False - it does not

124
Q

Which gram cell contains a thick peptidoglycan cell wall, teicoic acid (covalently bound to peptidoglycan) and lipoteichoic acid?

A

Gram(+) cell wall

125
Q

True or False: The teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid of the gram positive cell wall can extend beyond the peptidoglycan

A

True

126
Q

What is the reason for differential staining in gram positive vs. negative cells?

A

Peptidoglycan is found in greater amounts in the gram (+) bacteria and there is more extensive cross-linkage of muramic acid’s peptide side chain

127
Q

What are two ways in which the peptidoglycan in gram (+) cell walls is similar to LPS in gram (-) cells?

A

1) Can induce TNF-a and IL-6
2) Can cause hypotensive shock

128
Q

True or False: Teichoic acids have a role in adhesion and anti-phagocytosis, like LPS

A

False - LIPOTEICHOIC ACID has a role in adhesion and anti-phagocytosis, like CAPSULE and PILI

129
Q

True or False: Both LPS and Teichoic Acids activate complement (alternate pathway) and can initiate hypotensive shock

A

True

130
Q

True or False: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is limited to gram positive and gram negative bacteria

A

False - it is NOT Linked to these only

131
Q

Detection of pathogens through a particular binding pattern, known as ______, which induce specific transduction pathways

A

PAMP’s

132
Q

Peptidoglycan, teichoic acid, LPS, and CpG nucleotides are all ____

A

PAMP’s

133
Q

Bacterial spores (endospores) are only found in which bacteria?

A

Gram positive

134
Q

Bacillus and Clostridium are both _____

A

endospore-formers

135
Q

____: Heat, desiccation, and chemical resistant organisms that can remain dormat for decades until favored conditions are present

A

Endospores

136
Q

What are the stages of bacterial spore formation?

A

Forespore -> formation of cortex -> formation of coat -> endospore -> free spore

137
Q

Why are mycobacterium and nocardia considered to be atypical bacteria?

A

Cell wall is made of mycolic acid (basis for acid fast stain)

138
Q

____: an atypical bacteria that is wall-less and pleomorphic (lacks peptidoglycan); cell wall is stabilized by sterols
A. Chlamydia
B. Mycoplasma
C. Nocardia
D. Mycobacterium

A

B. Mycoplasma

139
Q

____: an atypical bacteria that has gram negative wall architecture, but minimal peptidoglycan
A. Chlamydia
B. Mycoplasma
C. Nocardia
D. Mycobacterium

A

A. Chlamydia

Medical Microbiology (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions