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OBS and GYN > jan 22 > Flashcards

jan 22 Flashcards

1
Q

treatment of otitis externa

A

TOPICAL antibiotic with or without topic glucocorticoid

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2
Q

transient synovitis clinical presentation

A
  • well-appearing
  • afebrile or low-grade fever
  • able to bear weight
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3
Q

diagnosis of transient synovitis

A

-normal or mildly elevated WBCs, ESR, CRP
-unilateral or bilateral joint effusion on ultrasound
(diagnosis of exlusion)

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4
Q

ultrasound findings of transient synovitis?

A

unilateral or bilateral joint effusion

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5
Q

treatment of transient synovitis?

A

conservative

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6
Q

clinical presentation of septic arthritis

A
  • ill-appearing
  • febrile
  • non-weight bearing
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7
Q

diagnosis of septic arthritis

A
  • elevated WBCs, ESR, CRP
  • possible positive blood culture
  • unilateral joint effusion on ultrasound
  • synovial fluid >50 000 WBCs
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8
Q

treatment of septic arthritis

A

joint drainage & antibiotics

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9
Q

how to diagnosis septic arthritis VS transient synovitis:

A

Hip ultrasound: if unilateral joint effusion, then arthrocentesis is required to differentiate

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10
Q

causes of pleuritic chest pain?

A
  • PE
  • costochondritis
  • pericarditis
  • malignany
  • infection
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11
Q

a PE can cause pleuritic chest pain T or F

A

TRUE

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12
Q

work up in suspected PE?

A

CT pulmonary angiography

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13
Q

patients with sickle cell disease are at high risk for sepsis from which organisms?

A
  • strep pneumonia
  • H influenza
  • Neisseria meningitis
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14
Q

what is olopatadine?

A

mast cell stabilizing agent

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15
Q

what is azelastine?

A

mast cell stabilizing agent

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16
Q

management of viral conjunctivits?

A

-warm or cold compress

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17
Q

presentation of herpes simplex keratitis?

A

-painful, red eye, impaired vision, opacification of the cornea, corneal ulcers

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18
Q

management of pes anserine bursitits?

A

-rest and NSAIDs, exercises to improve strength in quadriceps and hamstring

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19
Q

chronic kidney disease significantly increases the risk of…

A

TB reactivation

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20
Q

lab findings of osteomalacia?

A
  • increased alkaline phosphatase
  • increased PTH
  • decreased serum calcium and phosphorous, decreased urinary calcium
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21
Q

vitamin D deficiency may lead to…..

A

osteomalacia

22
Q

causes of toxic peripheral neuropathy?

A
  • alcohol use
  • medications
  • heavy metals
23
Q

alcoholic neuropathy presentation?

A

symmetric distal polyneuropathy -stocking glove pattern with parasthesias, burning pain, numbness

24
Q

presentation of whipple disease

A
  • chronic malabsorptive diarrhea
  • weight loss
  • migratory non-deforming arthritis
  • lymphadenoapthy
  • low grade fever
25
Q

small intestine biopsy findings in Whipple disease

A

PAS positive macrophages in the lamina propria containing non-acid-fast gram + bacilli

26
Q

does breastfeeding or breast milk jaundice present in the first week of life?

A

breastfeeding jaundice

27
Q

does breastfeeding or breast milk jaundice peak at 2 weeks of life?

A

breast milk jaundice

28
Q

path of breastfeeding jaundice?

A

-insufficient intake of breast milk -> decreased bilirubin elimination

29
Q

path of breast milk jaundice?

A

high levels of Beta-glucoronidase in breast milk -> deconjugation of intestinal bilirubin

30
Q

how often should a newborn breastfeed?

A

every 2-3 hours

31
Q

Aseptic (viral) meningitis, rash and genearl lymphadenopathy with negative enterovirus or HSV, suggests…

A

Acute HIV infection

32
Q

patients with chronic autoimmune disease are at increasd risk for which cancer?

A

non-hodgkins lymphoma

33
Q

presentation of non-hodgkins lymphoma

A

painless lymphadenopathy, B symptoms (night sweats, fever, weight loss)

34
Q

lab findings of Non-hodgkins lymphoma?

A

increased LDH

35
Q

if NSAIDs are ineffecitve for back pain, the next pharmacotherapy is…

A

non-benzo muscle relaxants

36
Q

what causes fetal hydantoin syndrome?

A

in utero exposure to anti-epileptics (phenytoin, valproate, etc)

37
Q

features of fetal hydantoin syndrome?

A

cleft lip and palate, wide fontanelle, distal phalange hypoplasia, microcephaly, cardiac defects

38
Q

which organs are often targeted in graft vs host disease?

A
  • palms, soles, face -> rash
  • intestines -> bloody diarrhea
  • liver -> LFTs and jaundice
39
Q

where are neuroblastomas commonly located?

A
  • adrenal medulla

- cervical parasympathetic chain

40
Q

clinical features of a neuroblastoma?

A
  • age <2
  • abdominal mass
  • periorbital echymoses
  • spinal cord compression
  • opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome
41
Q

which gene is associated with neuroblastoma?

A

n-myc

42
Q

histology findings of neuroblastoma?

A

small, round, blue cells

43
Q

what is commonly elevated in the blood of children with neuroblastoma?

A

catelcholamine metabolites

44
Q

xray findings of a foreign body aspiration?

A
  • hyperinflation of the effected side
  • mediastinal shift toward unaffected side
  • atelectasis if obstruction is complete
45
Q

decreased serum albumin can lead to…

A

low serum calcium

46
Q

ondansetron MOA

A

serotonin receptor antagonist

47
Q

first line treatment for chemo induced nausea?

A

serotonin receptor antagonists

48
Q

what must the CD4 count be of an HIV + patient before they get the live varicella vaccine?

A

> 200

49
Q

what is the best diagnostic test for bronchiectasis?

A

high resolution CT scan

50
Q

what is the leading cause of sentinel events?

A

suboptimal teamwork

OBS and GYN (42 decks)

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