jan 11 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the strongest risk factor for acute aortic dissection?

A

hypertension

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2
Q

treatment of a baby with congenital syphilis?

A

Penicillin - to prevent later manifestations of the disease

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3
Q

presentation of HIV in infancy?

A
  • failure to thrive
  • chronic diarrhea
  • lymphadenopathy
  • pneumocystitis pneumonia
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4
Q

what is laryngomalacia?

A

collapse of supraglottic tissue on inspiration

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5
Q

clinical presentatino of laryngomalacia?

A
  • inspiratory stridor that worsens when supine

- peaks at 4-8 months

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6
Q

diagnosis of laryngomalacia?

A

laryngoscopy (flexible fiberoptic laryngoscopy)

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7
Q

laryngoscopy findings in laryngomalacia?

A

-omega shaped epiglottis and collapse of supraglottic tissue during inspiration

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8
Q

myelomeningocele is associatd wtih…

A

chiari malformation II

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9
Q

treatment of mild croup

A

humidified air + one dose of corticosteroid

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10
Q

treatment of moderate/severe croup

A

corticosteroids + nebulized epinephrine

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11
Q

what is seen on imaging of tuberculosis meningitis?

A

basilar meningeal enhancement + hydrocephalus

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12
Q

clinical features of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

-fatigue, anorexia, weight loss
-nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
-postural hypotension, salt craving
-hyperpigmentation
Acute adrenal crisis: shock, confusion/hypotension

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13
Q

lab findings of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, eosinophilia

- low morning cortisol, high ACTH

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14
Q

treatment of acute dystonia?

A

IV anticholinergics (benztropine, trihyexyphenidyl)

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15
Q

presentation of cryptococcus neoformans infection

A

-headaches, nauseau/vomiting, confusion, abducens nerve palsy, scattered umbilicated skin lesions

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16
Q

what is a gamma gap?

A

difference between total protein and albumin

17
Q

what is waldenstorms macroglobulinemia

A

B-cell malignancy with excessive production of igM

18
Q

screening for waldenstorms macroglobulinemia

A

serum protein electrophoresis

19
Q

manifestations of waldenstorms macroglobulinemia

A
  • hyperviscosity syndrome
  • neuropathy
  • bleeding
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • lympadenopathy
20
Q

lab findings in hyperigM syndrome?

A
  • normal B cells
  • low igG and igA
  • high igM
21
Q

lab findings in x-linked agammaglobulinemia

A
  • decreased or absent b cells

- decreased immunoglobulins

22
Q

patients on metformin may develop a ___ deficiency

23
Q

the most common cause of stent thrombosis?

A

poor adherence to dual antiplatelet therapy

24
Q

features of gaucher disease?

A
  • severe splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
  • anemia, thrombocytopenia
  • bony pain
  • failure to thrive, delayed puberty
25
what is deficient in gaucher disease?
glucocerebrosidase
26
CMV retinitis presentation
progressive blurred vision, floaters, photopsia
27
fundoscopy findings of CMV
yellow-white, fluffly, hemorhagic lesions adjacent to the fovea and retinal vesseles
28
what drugs improve longtime survival in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction
ACE inhibitors, ARBs, beta blockers, mineralocorticoids receptor antagonists
29
what is epleronone?
a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
30
is the pharyngitis caused by mono exudative or non-exudative
exudative
31
what is transverse myelitis
-immune-mediated disorder characterised by the infiltration of inflammatory cells into a segment of the spinal cord -> neuronal death and oligodendrocyte death and demyleination
32
presentation of transvere myelitis?
- rapidly progressive myelopathy that is characterized by: - motor weakness - autonomic dysfunction - sensory dysfunction
33
diagnostic findings of infectious mononucleousis?
- positive herteophile antibody - atypical lymphocytosis - transient hepatitis
34
how is CMV spread?
body fluids (urine, saliva)
35
treatmnet of TCA overdose?
Na Bicarbonate
36
most imporant lifestyle recommendation to improve hypertension in a normal weight patient?
DASH diet