jan 11 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the strongest risk factor for acute aortic dissection?

A

hypertension

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2
Q

treatment of a baby with congenital syphilis?

A

Penicillin - to prevent later manifestations of the disease

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3
Q

presentation of HIV in infancy?

A
  • failure to thrive
  • chronic diarrhea
  • lymphadenopathy
  • pneumocystitis pneumonia
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4
Q

what is laryngomalacia?

A

collapse of supraglottic tissue on inspiration

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5
Q

clinical presentatino of laryngomalacia?

A
  • inspiratory stridor that worsens when supine

- peaks at 4-8 months

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6
Q

diagnosis of laryngomalacia?

A

laryngoscopy (flexible fiberoptic laryngoscopy)

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7
Q

laryngoscopy findings in laryngomalacia?

A

-omega shaped epiglottis and collapse of supraglottic tissue during inspiration

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8
Q

myelomeningocele is associatd wtih…

A

chiari malformation II

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9
Q

treatment of mild croup

A

humidified air + one dose of corticosteroid

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10
Q

treatment of moderate/severe croup

A

corticosteroids + nebulized epinephrine

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11
Q

what is seen on imaging of tuberculosis meningitis?

A

basilar meningeal enhancement + hydrocephalus

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12
Q

clinical features of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

-fatigue, anorexia, weight loss
-nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
-postural hypotension, salt craving
-hyperpigmentation
Acute adrenal crisis: shock, confusion/hypotension

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13
Q

lab findings of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, eosinophilia

- low morning cortisol, high ACTH

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14
Q

treatment of acute dystonia?

A

IV anticholinergics (benztropine, trihyexyphenidyl)

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15
Q

presentation of cryptococcus neoformans infection

A

-headaches, nauseau/vomiting, confusion, abducens nerve palsy, scattered umbilicated skin lesions

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16
Q

what is a gamma gap?

A

difference between total protein and albumin

17
Q

what is waldenstorms macroglobulinemia

A

B-cell malignancy with excessive production of igM

18
Q

screening for waldenstorms macroglobulinemia

A

serum protein electrophoresis

19
Q

manifestations of waldenstorms macroglobulinemia

A
  • hyperviscosity syndrome
  • neuropathy
  • bleeding
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • lympadenopathy
20
Q

lab findings in hyperigM syndrome?

A
  • normal B cells
  • low igG and igA
  • high igM
21
Q

lab findings in x-linked agammaglobulinemia

A
  • decreased or absent b cells

- decreased immunoglobulins

22
Q

patients on metformin may develop a ___ deficiency

A

B12

23
Q

the most common cause of stent thrombosis?

A

poor adherence to dual antiplatelet therapy

24
Q

features of gaucher disease?

A
  • severe splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
  • anemia, thrombocytopenia
  • bony pain
  • failure to thrive, delayed puberty
25
Q

what is deficient in gaucher disease?

A

glucocerebrosidase

26
Q

CMV retinitis presentation

A

progressive blurred vision, floaters, photopsia

27
Q

fundoscopy findings of CMV

A

yellow-white, fluffly, hemorhagic lesions adjacent to the fovea and retinal vesseles

28
Q

what drugs improve longtime survival in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction

A

ACE inhibitors, ARBs, beta blockers, mineralocorticoids receptor antagonists

29
Q

what is epleronone?

A

a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist

30
Q

is the pharyngitis caused by mono exudative or non-exudative

A

exudative

31
Q

what is transverse myelitis

A

-immune-mediated disorder characterised by the infiltration of inflammatory cells into a segment of the spinal cord -> neuronal death and oligodendrocyte death and demyleination

32
Q

presentation of transvere myelitis?

A
  • rapidly progressive myelopathy that is characterized by:
  • motor weakness
  • autonomic dysfunction
  • sensory dysfunction
33
Q

diagnostic findings of infectious mononucleousis?

A
  • positive herteophile antibody
  • atypical lymphocytosis
  • transient hepatitis
34
Q

how is CMV spread?

A

body fluids (urine, saliva)

35
Q

treatmnet of TCA overdose?

A

Na Bicarbonate

36
Q

most imporant lifestyle recommendation to improve hypertension in a normal weight patient?

A

DASH diet