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BDS1 BAMS human systems > Human Systems Overview > Flashcards

Human Systems Overview Flashcards

1
Q

Structure and layers of GI tract?

A
  • mucosa (epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosa)
  • submucosa
  • muscularis propria (inner circular, outer longitudinal)
  • serosa
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2
Q

What is the string on skin under the tongue called?

A

Frenulum

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3
Q

What is the dangling thing at the back of the mouth?

A

Uvula

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4
Q

Where does the parotid gland open into the oral cavity?

A

Stensons duct opposite the second molar

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5
Q

Where do both the submandibular and sublingual glands open into the oral cavity?

A

Wharton’s duct under the tongue on the floor of the mouth

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6
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

A

Facial nerve

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7
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?

A

Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

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8
Q

What are and where are the muscles of mastication?

A
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9
Q

What are the boundaries of the pharynx?

A

Base of skull to C6

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10
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the masseter?

A
  • zygomatic arch
  • angle of mandible
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11
Q

What is the only muscle which opens the mouth?

A

Lateral pterygoid

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12
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the temporalis?

A
  • floor of temporal fossa
  • coronoid process
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13
Q

What are tonsils made up of?

A

Lymphoid tissue

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14
Q

What are the main tonsils pairs?

A
  • pharyngeal
  • tubal
  • palatine
    ^waldeyers ring
  • lingual tonsils
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15
Q

Does the oesophagus lie posterior or anterior to the trachea?

A

Posterior

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16
Q

What is the epithelium in the oral cavity and oesophagus?

A

Stratified squamous

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17
Q

What is the extra layer of muscularis propria in the stomach?

A

Innermost oblique

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18
Q

What is a common clinical diagnosis surrounding the oesophagus?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus due to metaplasia

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19
Q

What is dysphasia?

A

Difficulty swallowing

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20
Q

What do mucous cells secrete?

A

Alkaline mucous secretions

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21
Q

What do parietal cells secrete?

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

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22
Q

What do chief cells secrete?

A

Pepsinogen

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23
Q

What do G cells secrete?

A

Gastrin

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24
Q

What increases secretions by parietal cells?

A

Gastrin from G cells

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25
What does intrinsic factor (parietal cells) do?
Increases B12 absorption
26
What converts pepsinogen to pepsin?
HCl from parietal cells
27
What is the epithelium in the nasal cavity?
Pseudo stratified ciliates epithelium
28
What epithelium is in the trachea?
Ciliated simple columnar
29
What type of epithelium lines alveoli?
Simple squamous
30
What are the parts of the stomach?
- cardia - fundus - body - pylorus
31
What is the function of rugae?
Increase surface area
32
What are the three arteries which branch off if the coeliac trunk?
- left gastric artery - common hepatic artery - splenic artery
33
What are the branches off the common hepatic artery?
- right gastric artery - gastroduodental artery
34
What are the branches of the splenic artery?
- short gastric - left gastroepiploic
35
What is the branch off the gastroduodenal artery?
right gastroepiploic
36
What are the two veins in which all veins off the stomach drain to?
- splenic vein - superior mesenteric vein
37
What is the primary site of absorption and digestion?
The small intestine
38
What is the function of villi?
Increase surface area for absorption
39
Where are burners glands located and what is there function?
Duodenum - secrete alkaline mucous to protect
40
Where is bile produced?
The liver
41
Where is bile stored and concentrated?
The gallbladder
42
What is the sphincter of oddi?
Muscular valve controlling pancreatic/bile secretions surrounding the major duodenal papilla
43
What is CCK?
Cholecystokinin
44
What are brush border enzymes and their function?
Found in the jejunum - aid digestion
45
What are peters patches and their function?
Found in the ileum - keep intestinal flora levels correct
46
What are the three parts of the small intestine?
- duodenum - jejunum - ileum
47
What is meckel’s diverticulum?
Clinical diagnosis surrounding the small intestine - 2 years old - 2 inches long - 2 types of mucosa - 2% of the population
48
What are the two turns in the large intestine called?
- hepatic flexure - splenic flexure
49
What are taeniae coli?
3 longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the large intestine which aid contraction
50
What are haustra?
Pouches of peritoneum filled with fat on the large intestine
51
What are cells which are found in abundance in the large intestine?
Goblet cells
52
What iso the function of intestinal flora?
Ferment fibre and lipids, producing gases and synthesise vit B and vit K
53
What is the function of vit K?
Blood clotting
54
What is the name for movement of food through the GI tract?
Peristalsis
55
Which enzymes are produced in the pancreas?
Amylase Lipase Trypsin Nucleases
56
What is the other secretion of the pancreas which isn’t an enzyme?
Bicarbonate
57
What is the function of amylase?
Breaks down starch
58
What is the function of lipase?
Breaks down fat
59
What is the function of trypsin?
Breaks down proteins
60
What is the function of nucleases?
Breaks down nucleotides
61
What is the function of bicarbonate?
Neutralises gastric acid
62
What % of the pancreas is exocrine?
99%
63
What are the hormones produces by the endocrine pancreas?
Insulin (beta cells) increase glucose absorption Glucagon (alpha cells) release of glucose Somatostatin (delta cells) slows digestion
64
What is a symptom of obstructive jaundice?
Yellow skin from bilirubin- blocked bile duct
65
What is bilirubin?
Found in bile- made up of broken down RBSs
66
What is the largest gland in the body?
The liver
67
What is the function of the hepatic ducts?
Carry bile from the liver to the gallbladder
68
What is the function of the hepatic vein?
Carries blood to the liver from the GI tract
69
What happens to bilirubin?
Removed from the body by the liver
70
What is GIP?
Gastric inhibitory peptide from duodenum - inhibits acid secretion - increases insulin
71
What is secretin?
- reduces gastric acid secretion - increases bicarbonate secretion from pancreas - produced in duodenum
72
What CN provides sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
Glossopharyngeal nerve IX
73
What CN provides sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Hypoglossal XII
74
What is the control of the internal anal sphincter?
Autonomic- Parasympathetic
75
What is the control of the external anal sphincter?
Somatic
76
What is VIP?
Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
77
What is an unfertilised egg called?
Ovum
78
What is a fertilised egg called?
Zygote
79
When is a human classed as an embryo?
0-9 weeks
80
What is a 16 cell embryology stage?
Morula- 4-6 days
81
What is a 32 cell embryology stage?
Blastocyst- 6-10 days
82
What is the outer cells in the blastocyst?
Trophoblast- will become the placenta
83
What does the epiblast layer of the bilaminar embryonic disc give rise to?
- ectoderm - mesoderm - endoderm
84
What does the hypoblast layer of the bilaminar embryonic disk give rise to?
- endoderm - extra embryonic mesoderm
85
What occurs in the gastrulation phase of embryology?
- third layer of cells arises- mesoderm
86
What does the neural tube give rise to?
The CNS
87
What is a common embryological diagnosis during organogenesis?
Spina bifida- neural groove persists
88
What does ectoderm give rise to?
- skin - CNS - enamel - mucous membranes
89
What does mesoderm give rise to?
- connective tissue - muscle - blood vessels - kidneys - reproductive system
90
What does the endoderm give rise to?
- alimentary system - respiratory system
91
What does the neural crest/ectomesenchyme give rise to?
- PNS - melanocytes - remaining dental tissues (not enamel) - adrenal medulla
92
Function of astrocytes?
Neuroglia, blood brain barrier CNS
93
Function of microglia?
Neuroglia, phagocytes CNS
94
Function of oligodendrocytes?
Neuroglia, myelin formation in CNS
95
Function of ependymal cells?
Neuroglia, cerebrospinal fluid PNS
96
Function of Schwann cells?
Neuroglia, myelin formation PNS
97
What’s a dermatome?
Area of sensory input
98
What is a myotome?
Area of motor output
99
Spinal nerves?
- 8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal
100
Cranial nerves
- olfactory - optic - oculomotor - trochlear - trigeminal - abducens - facial - vestibulochoclear - glossopharyngeal - vagus - accessory - hypoglossal
101
What are afferents?
Sensory nerves
102
What are efferents?
Motor nerves
103
What is the function of dendrites?
Receive inputs from other neurons
104
What maintains the resting membrane potential?
Outwards diffusion of potassium ions and sodium potassium pump
105
How does local anaesthetic work?
Blocks sodium channels and stops nerve conduction
106
Action potential
- stimulus - small depolarisation of membrane - if reaches -55mV (threshold) sodium voltage gated channels open - large depolarisation due to influx of sodium - peak voltage reached- 35mV - sodium voltage gated channels close - voltage gated potassium channels open - potassium flows out the cell giving depolarisation - slight overshoot of resting potential - resting potential reestablished
107
What increases the speed of an action potential?
- larger axon diameter - myelination
108
What are nodes of ranvier?
Breaks in myelin to allow ion flow
109
Events at a synapse- excitatory
- AP in presynaptic cell opens voltage gated calcium ions- calcium influx - depolarisation of pre synaptic cell - triggers vesicles containing neurotransmitters to secrete into the synaptic cleft - neurotransmitter binds to receptors on post synaptic cell causing a graded potential - AP in post synaptic cell - repuptake and enzyme degradation of remaining neurotransmitter in synaptic cleft to inactivate
110
What is an inhibitory post synaptic response?
The neurotransmitter causes hyperpolarisation
111
What is the name of the neurotransmitter at a neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine
112
What is the name for the release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?
Exocytosis
113
What are the nerves involved in the PNS?
CN 3,7,9,10 S2,3,4
114
What nerves are involved with the SNS?
T1-L2
115
Which branch of the ANS controls constriction/dilation of blood vessels?
Sympathetic (alpha=constriction, beta=dilation)
116
What type of receptors do noradrenaline bind to?
Adrenergic receptors
117
What types of receptors does acetylcholine bind to?
- cholinergic - muscarinic - nicotinic
118
What do beta blockers do?
Block beta-1 adrenoreceptors to lower heart rate and contraction
119
What are the meninges which cover the brain and spinal cord?
- dura matter - arachnoid membrane - pia matter
120
What matters surrounds what in the spinal cord?
White surrounds grey
121
What matter surrounds what in the brain?
Grey surrounds white
122
Where is the dorsal horn?
Th back of the spinal cord
123
Where is the ventral horn?
The front of the spinal cord
124
What type of neurons does the dorsal horn contain?
Afferents (sensory)
125
What type of neurons does the ventral horn contain?
Efferents (motor)
126
Anatomy of the brain/brain stem
127
What are the layers of the heart muscle?
- endocardium - myocardium - fatty connective tissue - pericardium (serous/fibrous)
128
Sequence of blood flow around the heart
- deoxygenated blood flow into the right atrium via the vena cava - thought the tricuspid valve into right ventricle - through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery - to the lungs to collect oxygen - into the pulmonary vein - into the left atrium - through the mitral valve into the left ventricle - through the aortic valve into aorta
129
What are papillary muscles?
Projections the heart wall attached to coordinate tendinae which attach to atrioventricular valves to prevent back flow of blood
130
What are the semilunar valves?
The pulmonary and aortic valves- close via gravity so don’t require cohordinae tendinae
131
What is a normal ejection fraction?
Over 55%
132
What indicates an impaired ejection fraction?
Less than 35%
133
What type of muscle is cardiac muscle?
Striated
134
What is the stoke volume and how would you calculate it?
The volume of blood ejected per contraction =end diastolic volume-end systolic volume
135
What is the resting potential in most cells?
-70mV
136
What is the resting potential in cardiac cells?
-90mV
137
What maintains the resting potential in cardiac cells?
Sodium and calcium diffusion into the cell Potassium diffusion out of the cell
138
Describe the sequence of events which occur in a cardiac action potential
- electric stimulus triggers sodium channels to open - influx of sodium leads to depolarisation - once peak is reached (15mV) sodium channels close - potassium channels open and K+ leaks out - potassium channels close - L-type calcium channels open which allow slow influx of Ca+ - potassium channels open allowing K+ to flow out and resting potential is reastablished
139
Phases of a cardiac action potential
Plateau is phase 2
140
Contraction of the heart
SA node AP - SA resting membrane potential is -60mV - spontaneous depolarisation at SA node (pacemaker cells) due to slow influx of Na+ and Ca2+ through L and T type channels (4) - influx of Ca2+ through L-type channels- depolarisation to 0mV (0) - Ca2+ influx stops and K+ exits the cell- depolarisation (3) AV node AP - AV resting potential is -80mV - depolarisation due to influx of Na+ (0) - peak reached, Na+ influx stops and K+ exit (1) - K+ exit whilst Ca2+ influx- plateau (2) - Ca2+ influx stops, K+ exit- repolarisation (3) - rest- pacemaker depolarisation (Na/K ATPase, Ca2+ pump, Na+/Ca2+) (4) - AP travels down bundle of his to purkinje fibres for simultaneous contraction Contraction - AP depolarisation travels through T tubules - calcium influx from plateau phase and from sarcoplasmic reticulum - calcium binds to troponin C - troponin C binds to tropomyosin - conformational change - myosin can now bind to actin - adp+ pi causes a power stroke - sliding filament mechanism - atp binding causes myosin to release actin - relaxation
141
How would you calculate mean arterial pressure?
- diastolic blood pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure OR - cardiac output x total peripheral resistance
142
What is the structure and layers in an artery?
- basement membrane - tunica intima - tunica media - tunica adventitia
143
What is the function of the tunica media in arteries?
- expansion/relaxation - contraction/dilation
144
How would you calculate vascular compliance?
Change in volume/change in pressure
145
What is vascular compliance?
Ability for vessel wall to expand and recoil
146
What layers in the vessel wall do capillaries lack?
- tunica media - tunica adventitia
147
What does adrenaline bind to to cause vasodilation?
beta-1 adrenoreceptors
148
What does adrenaline bind to to cause vasoconstriction?
Alpha-1 adrenoreceptors
149
What is ANP and its function?
Atrial natriuretic peptide - vasodilation
150
What is the function of angiotensin II?
Part of RAAS - vasoconstriction
151
What is the RAAS?
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system - blood pressure regulator
152
What inhibits the RAAS?
- ACE inhibitors - angiotensin II receptor blockers
153
What are examples of vasodilators?
- nitric oxide - prostaglandin 12
154
Describe the action of nitric oxide
- induces relaxation of smooth muscle via cGMP - in response to acetylcholine, shear stress etc
155
Describe the action of prostaglandin 12
Causes vasodilation via protein kinase
156
What are examples of vasoconstrictors?
- endothelin 1 - thromboxane A2 - angiotensin II - adrenaline binding to a-1 adrenoreceptors
157
What activates thromboxane A2?
Tissue injury and inflammation
158
Hydrostatic pressure vs osmotic pressure
159
What % of blood is made up of plasma?
55%
160
What is plasma made up of?
- extracellular fluid - water - electrolytes - organic molecules - plasma proteins
161
What is the most abundant plasma protein?
Albumins (60%)
162
What are thrombocytes?
Platelets
163
What is the function of albumins?
Lipid transport
164
What is the function of globulins?
Transport/immune function
165
What is the function of fibrinogens?
Co agulation
166
What does oncotic pressure do to fluid?
Pulls it into the capillaries
167
Where are red blood cells formed?
Red bone marrow
168
What is erythropoesis?
Red blood cell (erythrocyte) formation
169
What enzyme regulates red blood cell formation?
Erythropoietin
170
How many haeme groups does haemoglobin have?
4 - 2 alpha, 2 beta
171
What is the most abundant leukocyte?
Neutrophil
172
What are examples of granulocytes?
- neutrophil - basophil - eosinophil
173
What is the haemocrit?
Proportion of red blood cells to total blood volume
174
What are the variables within poiseulle’s equation?
Blood flow in relation to vessel radium, pressure change, viscosity of blood and length of vessel
175
How is blood flow controlled locally?
- auto regulation - active hyperaemia - reactive hyperaemia
176
What does an increase in vessel length do to resistance?
Increases resistance
177
What is resting heart rate in a healthy individual?
60-100 bpm
178
What system controls heart rate?
Autonomic nervous system
179
Describe sympathetic control of heart rate
- noradrenaline binds to beta-1 adrenoreceptors on the SA node - G proteins - Adenyl cyclise - increases cAMP - protein kinase A - acts on receptors and ca channels in cardiomyocytes
180
What are the effects of the sympathetic nervous system on heart rate?
increase in: - chronotropy - inotropy - lucitropy - dromotropy
181
What is chronotropy?
Heart rate
182
What is inotropy?
Contraction strength
183
What is lusitropy?
Relaxation strength
184
What is dromotropy?
Conduction speed
185
Describe parasympathetic effect on heart rate?
- cholinergic nerves of the vagus nerve release acetylcholine - acetylcholine bind to m-2 muscarinic receptors at nodes - G proteins - cAMP - K+ influx
186
What is the parasympathetic effect on heart rate?
decrease in: - chronotropy - inotropy - lusitropy - dromotropy
187
What does the P wave in an ECG represent?
Atrial depolarisation
188
What does the QRS region of an ECG represent?
Ventricular depolarisation (phase 0)
189
What does the T region of an ECG represent?
Ventricular repolarisation (phase 3)
190
What does the P-R interval of an ECG represent?
Delay through the AV node
191
What does the S-T interval of an ECG represent?
The plateau phase (phase 2)
192
What arteries supply the heart?
Coronary arteries
193
What is haemolysis?
Red blood cell destruction
194
What happens to heart rate during the tilt table experiment?
Increases then decreases again
195
What happens to blood pressure during the tilt table experiment?
Increases then decreases
196
Describe the sequence of events when the tilt table is tilted upright
- decrease in blood pressure - decrease in baroreceptor firing - decrease in PSNS control - increase in SNS control - increase in heart rate - increase in blood pressure
197
What is hypercapnia?
Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide
198
What are baroreceptors?
A type of mechanoreceptors - detect stretch in blood vessel walls
199
Describe the sequence of events in baroreceptors following an increase in arterial blood pressure
- baroreceptors detect a increase in blood pressure - increase baroreceptor firing AP - decrease in SNS - increase in PSNS
200
What does the valsava manoeuvre investigate?
The attempt to expire against a closed glottis - increases pressures
201
What are the components of the urinary system?
- kidneys - ureters - bladder - urethra
202
What are the parts of the kidney?
- cortex - medulla - pelvis
203
Where are most kidney nephrons found?
Cortex
204
Where is the site of urine concentration in the kidney?
Medulla
205
What is the function of the pelvis in the kidney?
Collection area for urine
206
How much of the total cardiac output does the kidneys receive?
1/5
207
How much of the filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT?
2/3
208
What are the parts of the loop of Henle?
- PCT - descending limb - ascending limb (thin and thick) - distal convoluted tubule
209
What parts of the kidney make up the renal corpuscle?
- glomerulus - bowman’s capsule
210
How much of the filtrate is reabsorbed in the renal corpuscle?
99%
211
Where is the site of filtration in the kidney?
Renal corpuscle
212
What makes the epithelium of bowman’s capsule specialised?
Podocytes with projections called pedicels to increase surface area for improved filtration efficiency
213
What makes up the filtration barrier of the kidney?
- glomerular endothelium - basement membrane - pedicels
214
What can pass through the filtration barrier?
- small molecules - positive molecules
215
What is a healthy GFR value?
180litres per day
216
What drives GFR?
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure
217
What counteracts GFR?
Hydrostatic pressure in bowmans capsule Glomerular oncotic pressure
218
What parts of the kidney make up the renal tubule?
- PCT - loop of henle - DCT - collecting ducts
219
What is the function of the renal tubule?
Re absorption and secretion
220
How much sodium is reabsorbed overall by the renal tubule?
98%
221
Where is most sodium re absorption carried out and why?
PCT, presence of sodium potassium pump
222
Describe the properties of the PCT
- sodium potassium pumps - sodium reabsorbed - water, glucose and negative ions follow
223
What is the main function of the distal convoluted tubule?
Fine tuning- homeostasis
224
What are properties of the ascending limb?
IMPERMEABLE to water
225
What is the function of ADH?
Antidiuretic hormone - aquaporin insertion for water re absorption - increases blood pressure
226
Where is ADH produced?
Hypothalamus
227
What is the function of aldosterone?
Increases sodium potassium pumps to increase sodium re absorption
228
Where is aldosterone produced?
The cortex of adrenal medulla
229
Describe the RAAS
- juxtaglomerular apparatus detects a decrease in blood pressure - kidneys release enzyme renin - renin converts angiotensinogen (from liver) to angiotensin I - angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by ACE - angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction to increase BP - angiotensin II also triggers release of aldosterone (adrenal glands) and ADH (pituitary gland) - aldosterone and ADH retain sodium in blood which increases blood flow and pressure
230
What is the function of the RAAS?
Blood pressure and blood flow regulation
231
ANH function in kidneys?
Atrial naturetic hormone - released form increase in BP - inhibits sodium retention decreasing BP
232
Adenosine function in kidneys?
- constriction of afferents arterioles - lower GFR, increasing re absorption
233
What are the paranasal sinuses?
Frontal Ethmoid Sphenoid Maxillary
234
What are the boundaries of the larynx?
C3-C6
235
What is the larynx?
Voice box
236
What are the 9 cartilages of the larynx?
Thyroid Epiglottic Circoid Arytenoid 2 Corniculate 2 Cuneiform 2
237
What is the smooth muscle which completes the ring of the trachea?
Trachealis
238
Which bronchi is more vertical?
Right
239
What is a type I pneumocyte?
Simple squamous epithelial cell at blood-air barrier
240
What is a type II pneumocyte?
Surfactant cell which reduces friction at the blood-air barrier
241
What nerves innervate the diaphragm?
C 3,4,5
242
What is the V/Q ratio?
Ventilation/perfusion ratio
243
What is the average V/Q ratio?
0.8
244
What contributes to anatomical dead space?
Air conductors - pharynx - respiratory tree
245
What is physiological dead space?
Total volume of gas which doesn’t contribute to gas exchange
246
What is the partial pressure of O2 in the alveoli?
100
247
What is the partial pressure of O2 in the deoxygenated blood?
40
248
What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the alveoli?
40
249
What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the deoygenated blood?
45
250
How is oxygen transported around the blood?
- mostly bound to haemoglobin - some dissolved
251
How is carbon dioxide transported around the body?
- mostly converted to bicarbonate - some bound to haemoglobin - some dissolved
252
What is normal ventilation at rest?
6-7 litres/minute (12-15 breaths)
253
How is air filtered?
Cilia on epithelium attach to mucous particles
254
What is the dorsal column mediated pathway responsible for?
- proprioception - fine touch
255
What is the spinothalamic pathway responsible for?
- pain - crude touch
256
Where does the dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway cross the midline?
Brain stem nucleus
257
Where does the spinothalamic pathway cross the midline?
In the spinal cord
258
where does the dorsal trigeminothalamic pathway cross the midline?
Brain stem nucleus
259
Where does the ventral trigeminothalamic pathway cross the mid line?
The spinal nucleus
260
What is the triple response?
Red line Flare Wheal
261
What are the methods of pain modulation?
Gate control theory - beta- nerve fibres activated - this activates inhibitory neurons - these inhibit the 2nd order afferents neurons
262
What type of joint is the TMJ?
Synovial
263
What are the functions of calcium?
- remineralisation - 2nd messenger - co agulation - action potentials
264
What cells release calcitonin?
C cells in the thyroid
265
What hormones regulate calcium levels?
- parathyroid hormone - calcitonin - vit D
266
What is hyperplasia?
Increase in cell numbers
267
What is hypertrophy?
Increase in cell size
268
Where is cortisol released?
Adrenal glands
269
Where is growth hormone produced?
Pituitary gland
270
What hormone can impede growth at high levels?
Cortisol
271
What is haemorrhage?
Excessive blood loss
272
What are the physiological responses to haemorrhage?
- immediate Vascular Platelet Plasma - short term BP - medium term FV - long term
273
Describe the process of coagulation?
Fibrinogen converted to fibrin via thrombin
274
What vitamin is required for the synthesis of clotting factors?
Vitamin K
275
What is fibrinolysis?
Dissolves blood clot
276
What is required for erythropoesis?
- folic acid - vit B12 - iron
277
What are the stages in stress?
- alarm - resistance - exhaustion
278
Where are corticosteroids produced?
Adrenal cortex
279
Where is adrenaline produced?
Adrenal medulla
280
What is the main stress hormone?
Cortisol
281
What are the consequences of the exhaustion stage?
- adrenal failure - immunosuppression - cardiovascular system disease
282
What is another name for ADH?
Vasopressin
283
Where is angiotensinogen produced?
Liver
284
Where is ADH released from?
Posterior pituitary gland
285
What are the fibres involved in nociception?
A delta C
286
What are the fibres involved in the dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway?
A beta fibres
287
What fibres are involved in reflexes?
A alpha Muscle loading reflex is A beta
288
What is prescribed to patients with kidney disease?
Furosemide- acts on the thick ascending limb to prevent sodium and water re absorption to reduce blood pressure, side effect is xerostomia
289
Is there any glucose in urine?
NO

BDS1 BAMS human systems (47 decks)

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