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BDS1 BAMS human systems > Human Systems Overview > Flashcards

Human Systems Overview Flashcards

1
Q

Structure and layers of GI tract?

A
  • mucosa (epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosa)
  • submucosa
  • muscularis propria (inner circular, outer longitudinal)
  • serosa
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2
Q

What is the string on skin under the tongue called?

A

Frenulum

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3
Q

What is the dangling thing at the back of the mouth?

A

Uvula

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4
Q

Where does the parotid gland open into the oral cavity?

A

Stensons duct opposite the second molar

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5
Q

Where do both the submandibular and sublingual glands open into the oral cavity?

A

Wharton’s duct under the tongue on the floor of the mouth

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6
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

A

Facial nerve

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7
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?

A

Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

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8
Q

What are and where are the muscles of mastication?

A
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9
Q

What are the boundaries of the pharynx?

A

Base of skull to C6

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10
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the masseter?

A
  • zygomatic arch
  • angle of mandible
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11
Q

What is the only muscle which opens the mouth?

A

Lateral pterygoid

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12
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the temporalis?

A
  • floor of temporal fossa
  • coronoid process
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13
Q

What are tonsils made up of?

A

Lymphoid tissue

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14
Q

What are the main tonsils pairs?

A
  • pharyngeal
  • tubal
  • palatine
    ^waldeyers ring
  • lingual tonsils
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15
Q

Does the oesophagus lie posterior or anterior to the trachea?

A

Posterior

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16
Q

What is the epithelium in the oral cavity and oesophagus?

A

Stratified squamous

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17
Q

What is the extra layer of muscularis propria in the stomach?

A

Innermost oblique

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18
Q

What is a common clinical diagnosis surrounding the oesophagus?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus due to metaplasia

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19
Q

What is dysphasia?

A

Difficulty swallowing

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20
Q

What do mucous cells secrete?

A

Alkaline mucous secretions

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21
Q

What do parietal cells secrete?

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

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22
Q

What do chief cells secrete?

A

Pepsinogen

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23
Q

What do G cells secrete?

A

Gastrin

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24
Q

What increases secretions by parietal cells?

A

Gastrin from G cells

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25
Q

What does intrinsic factor (parietal cells) do?

A

Increases B12 absorption

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26
Q

What converts pepsinogen to pepsin?

A

HCl from parietal cells

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27
Q

What is the epithelium in the nasal cavity?

A

Pseudo stratified ciliates epithelium

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28
Q

What epithelium is in the trachea?

A

Ciliated simple columnar

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29
Q

What type of epithelium lines alveoli?

A

Simple squamous

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30
Q

What are the parts of the stomach?

A
  • cardia
  • fundus
  • body
  • pylorus
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31
Q

What is the function of rugae?

A

Increase surface area

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32
Q

What are the three arteries which branch off if the coeliac trunk?

A
  • left gastric artery
  • common hepatic artery
  • splenic artery
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33
Q

What are the branches off the common hepatic artery?

A
  • right gastric artery
  • gastroduodental artery
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34
Q

What are the branches of the splenic artery?

A
  • short gastric
  • left gastroepiploic
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35
Q

What is the branch off the gastroduodenal artery?

A

right gastroepiploic

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36
Q

What are the two veins in which all veins off the stomach drain to?

A
  • splenic vein
  • superior mesenteric vein
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37
Q

What is the primary site of absorption and digestion?

A

The small intestine

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38
Q

What is the function of villi?

A

Increase surface area for absorption

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39
Q

Where are burners glands located and what is there function?

A

Duodenum
- secrete alkaline mucous to protect

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40
Q

Where is bile produced?

A

The liver

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41
Q

Where is bile stored and concentrated?

A

The gallbladder

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42
Q

What is the sphincter of oddi?

A

Muscular valve controlling pancreatic/bile secretions surrounding the major duodenal papilla

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43
Q

What is CCK?

A

Cholecystokinin

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44
Q

What are brush border enzymes and their function?

A

Found in the jejunum
- aid digestion

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45
Q

What are peters patches and their function?

A

Found in the ileum
- keep intestinal flora levels correct

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46
Q

What are the three parts of the small intestine?

A
  • duodenum
  • jejunum
  • ileum
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47
Q

What is meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Clinical diagnosis surrounding the small intestine
- 2 years old
- 2 inches long
- 2 types of mucosa
- 2% of the population

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48
Q

What are the two turns in the large intestine called?

A
  • hepatic flexure
  • splenic flexure
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49
Q

What are taeniae coli?

A

3 longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the large intestine which aid contraction

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50
Q

What are haustra?

A

Pouches of peritoneum filled with fat on the large intestine

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51
Q

What are cells which are found in abundance in the large intestine?

A

Goblet cells

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52
Q

What iso the function of intestinal flora?

A

Ferment fibre and lipids, producing gases and synthesise vit B and vit K

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53
Q

What is the function of vit K?

A

Blood clotting

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54
Q

What is the name for movement of food through the GI tract?

A

Peristalsis

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55
Q

Which enzymes are produced in the pancreas?

A

Amylase
Lipase
Trypsin
Nucleases

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56
Q

What is the other secretion of the pancreas which isn’t an enzyme?

A

Bicarbonate

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57
Q

What is the function of amylase?

A

Breaks down starch

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58
Q

What is the function of lipase?

A

Breaks down fat

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59
Q

What is the function of trypsin?

A

Breaks down proteins

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60
Q

What is the function of nucleases?

A

Breaks down nucleotides

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61
Q

What is the function of bicarbonate?

A

Neutralises gastric acid

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62
Q

What % of the pancreas is exocrine?

A

99%

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63
Q

What are the hormones produces by the endocrine pancreas?

A

Insulin (beta cells) increase glucose absorption
Glucagon (alpha cells) release of glucose
Somatostatin (delta cells) slows digestion

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64
Q

What is a symptom of obstructive jaundice?

A

Yellow skin from bilirubin- blocked bile duct

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65
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

Found in bile- made up of broken down RBSs

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66
Q

What is the largest gland in the body?

A

The liver

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67
Q

What is the function of the hepatic ducts?

A

Carry bile from the liver to the gallbladder

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68
Q

What is the function of the hepatic vein?

A

Carries blood to the liver from the GI tract

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69
Q

What happens to bilirubin?

A

Removed from the body by the liver

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70
Q

What is GIP?

A

Gastric inhibitory peptide from duodenum
- inhibits acid secretion
- increases insulin

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71
Q

What is secretin?

A
  • reduces gastric acid secretion
  • increases bicarbonate secretion from pancreas
  • produced in duodenum
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72
Q

What CN provides sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve IX

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73
Q

What CN provides sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Hypoglossal XII

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74
Q

What is the control of the internal anal sphincter?

A

Autonomic- Parasympathetic

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75
Q

What is the control of the external anal sphincter?

A

Somatic

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76
Q

What is VIP?

A

Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

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77
Q

What is an unfertilised egg called?

A

Ovum

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78
Q

What is a fertilised egg called?

A

Zygote

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79
Q

When is a human classed as an embryo?

A

0-9 weeks

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80
Q

What is a 16 cell embryology stage?

A

Morula- 4-6 days

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81
Q

What is a 32 cell embryology stage?

A

Blastocyst- 6-10 days

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82
Q

What is the outer cells in the blastocyst?

A

Trophoblast- will become the placenta

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83
Q

What does the epiblast layer of the bilaminar embryonic disc give rise to?

A
  • ectoderm
  • mesoderm
  • endoderm
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84
Q

What does the hypoblast layer of the bilaminar embryonic disk give rise to?

A
  • endoderm
  • extra embryonic mesoderm
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85
Q

What occurs in the gastrulation phase of embryology?

A
  • third layer of cells arises- mesoderm
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86
Q

What does the neural tube give rise to?

A

The CNS

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87
Q

What is a common embryological diagnosis during organogenesis?

A

Spina bifida- neural groove persists

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88
Q

What does ectoderm give rise to?

A
  • skin
  • CNS
  • enamel
  • mucous membranes
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89
Q

What does mesoderm give rise to?

A
  • connective tissue
  • muscle
  • blood vessels
  • kidneys
  • reproductive system
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90
Q

What does the endoderm give rise to?

A
  • alimentary system
  • respiratory system
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91
Q

What does the neural crest/ectomesenchyme give rise to?

A
  • PNS
  • melanocytes
  • remaining dental tissues (not enamel)
  • adrenal medulla
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92
Q

Function of astrocytes?

A

Neuroglia, blood brain barrier CNS

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93
Q

Function of microglia?

A

Neuroglia, phagocytes CNS

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94
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes?

A

Neuroglia, myelin formation in CNS

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95
Q

Function of ependymal cells?

A

Neuroglia, cerebrospinal fluid PNS

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96
Q

Function of Schwann cells?

A

Neuroglia, myelin formation PNS

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97
Q

What’s a dermatome?

A

Area of sensory input

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98
Q

What is a myotome?

A

Area of motor output

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99
Q

Spinal nerves?

A
  • 8 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 1 coccygeal
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100
Q

Cranial nerves

A
  • olfactory
  • optic
  • oculomotor
  • trochlear
  • trigeminal
  • abducens
  • facial
  • vestibulochoclear
  • glossopharyngeal
  • vagus
  • accessory
  • hypoglossal
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101
Q

What are afferents?

A

Sensory nerves

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102
Q

What are efferents?

A

Motor nerves

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103
Q

What is the function of dendrites?

A

Receive inputs from other neurons

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104
Q

What maintains the resting membrane potential?

A

Outwards diffusion of potassium ions and sodium potassium pump

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105
Q

How does local anaesthetic work?

A

Blocks sodium channels and stops nerve conduction

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106
Q

Action potential

A
  • stimulus
  • small depolarisation of membrane
  • if reaches -55mV (threshold) sodium voltage gated channels open
  • large depolarisation due to influx of sodium
  • peak voltage reached- 35mV
  • sodium voltage gated channels close
  • voltage gated potassium channels open
  • potassium flows out the cell giving depolarisation
  • slight overshoot of resting potential
  • resting potential reestablished
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107
Q

What increases the speed of an action potential?

A
  • larger axon diameter
  • myelination
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108
Q

What are nodes of ranvier?

A

Breaks in myelin to allow ion flow

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109
Q

Events at a synapse- excitatory

A
  • AP in presynaptic cell opens voltage gated calcium ions- calcium influx
  • depolarisation of pre synaptic cell
  • triggers vesicles containing neurotransmitters to secrete into the synaptic cleft
  • neurotransmitter binds to receptors on post synaptic cell causing a graded potential
  • AP in post synaptic cell
  • repuptake and enzyme degradation of remaining neurotransmitter in synaptic cleft to inactivate
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110
Q

What is an inhibitory post synaptic response?

A

The neurotransmitter causes hyperpolarisation

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111
Q

What is the name of the neurotransmitter at a neuromuscular junction?

A

Acetylcholine

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112
Q

What is the name for the release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?

A

Exocytosis

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113
Q

What are the nerves involved in the PNS?

A

CN 3,7,9,10 S2,3,4

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114
Q

What nerves are involved with the SNS?

A

T1-L2

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115
Q

Which branch of the ANS controls constriction/dilation of blood vessels?

A

Sympathetic (alpha=constriction, beta=dilation)

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116
Q

What type of receptors do noradrenaline bind to?

A

Adrenergic receptors

117
Q

What types of receptors does acetylcholine bind to?

A
  • cholinergic
  • muscarinic
  • nicotinic
118
Q

What do beta blockers do?

A

Block beta-1 adrenoreceptors to lower heart rate and contraction

119
Q

What are the meninges which cover the brain and spinal cord?

A
  • dura matter
  • arachnoid membrane
  • pia matter
120
Q

What matters surrounds what in the spinal cord?

A

White surrounds grey

121
Q

What matter surrounds what in the brain?

A

Grey surrounds white

122
Q

Where is the dorsal horn?

A

Th back of the spinal cord

123
Q

Where is the ventral horn?

A

The front of the spinal cord

124
Q

What type of neurons does the dorsal horn contain?

A

Afferents (sensory)

125
Q

What type of neurons does the ventral horn contain?

A

Efferents (motor)

126
Q

Anatomy of the brain/brain stem

127
Q

What are the layers of the heart muscle?

A
  • endocardium
  • myocardium
  • fatty connective tissue
  • pericardium (serous/fibrous)
128
Q

Sequence of blood flow around the heart

A
  • deoxygenated blood flow into the right atrium via the vena cava
  • thought the tricuspid valve into right ventricle
  • through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery
  • to the lungs to collect oxygen
  • into the pulmonary vein
  • into the left atrium
  • through the mitral valve into the left ventricle
  • through the aortic valve into aorta
129
Q

What are papillary muscles?

A

Projections the heart wall attached to coordinate tendinae which attach to atrioventricular valves to prevent back flow of blood

130
Q

What are the semilunar valves?

A

The pulmonary and aortic valves- close via gravity so don’t require cohordinae tendinae

131
Q

What is a normal ejection fraction?

132
Q

What indicates an impaired ejection fraction?

A

Less than 35%

133
Q

What type of muscle is cardiac muscle?

134
Q

What is the stoke volume and how would you calculate it?

A

The volume of blood ejected per contraction
=end diastolic volume-end systolic volume

135
Q

What is the resting potential in most cells?

136
Q

What is the resting potential in cardiac cells?

137
Q

What maintains the resting potential in cardiac cells?

A

Sodium and calcium diffusion into the cell
Potassium diffusion out of the cell

138
Q

Describe the sequence of events which occur in a cardiac action potential

A
  • electric stimulus triggers sodium channels to open
  • influx of sodium leads to depolarisation
  • once peak is reached (15mV) sodium channels close
  • potassium channels open and K+ leaks out
  • potassium channels close
  • L-type calcium channels open which allow slow influx of Ca+
  • potassium channels open allowing K+ to flow out and resting potential is reastablished
139
Q

Phases of a cardiac action potential

A

Plateau is phase 2

140
Q

Contraction of the heart

A

SA node AP
- SA resting membrane potential is -60mV
- spontaneous depolarisation at SA node (pacemaker cells) due to slow influx of Na+ and Ca2+ through L and T type channels (4)
- influx of Ca2+ through L-type channels- depolarisation to 0mV (0)
- Ca2+ influx stops and K+ exits the cell- depolarisation (3)
AV node AP
- AV resting potential is -80mV
- depolarisation due to influx of Na+ (0)
- peak reached, Na+ influx stops and K+ exit (1)
- K+ exit whilst Ca2+ influx- plateau (2)
- Ca2+ influx stops, K+ exit- repolarisation (3)
- rest- pacemaker depolarisation (Na/K ATPase, Ca2+ pump, Na+/Ca2+) (4)
- AP travels down bundle of his to purkinje fibres for simultaneous contraction
Contraction
- AP depolarisation travels through T tubules
- calcium influx from plateau phase and from sarcoplasmic reticulum
- calcium binds to troponin C
- troponin C binds to tropomyosin
- conformational change
- myosin can now bind to actin
- adp+ pi causes a power stroke
- sliding filament mechanism
- atp binding causes myosin to release actin
- relaxation

141
Q

How would you calculate mean arterial pressure?

A
  • diastolic blood pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
    OR
  • cardiac output x total peripheral resistance
142
Q

What is the structure and layers in an artery?

A
  • basement membrane
  • tunica intima
  • tunica media
  • tunica adventitia
143
Q

What is the function of the tunica media in arteries?

A
  • expansion/relaxation
  • contraction/dilation
144
Q

How would you calculate vascular compliance?

A

Change in volume/change in pressure

145
Q

What is vascular compliance?

A

Ability for vessel wall to expand and recoil

146
Q

What layers in the vessel wall do capillaries lack?

A
  • tunica media
  • tunica adventitia
147
Q

What does adrenaline bind to to cause vasodilation?

A

beta-1 adrenoreceptors

148
Q

What does adrenaline bind to to cause vasoconstriction?

A

Alpha-1 adrenoreceptors

149
Q

What is ANP and its function?

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide
- vasodilation

150
Q

What is the function of angiotensin II?

A

Part of RAAS
- vasoconstriction

151
Q

What is the RAAS?

A

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system
- blood pressure regulator

152
Q

What inhibits the RAAS?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • angiotensin II receptor blockers
153
Q

What are examples of vasodilators?

A
  • nitric oxide
  • prostaglandin 12
154
Q

Describe the action of nitric oxide

A
  • induces relaxation of smooth muscle via cGMP
  • in response to acetylcholine, shear stress etc
155
Q

Describe the action of prostaglandin 12

A

Causes vasodilation via protein kinase

156
Q

What are examples of vasoconstrictors?

A
  • endothelin 1
  • thromboxane A2
  • angiotensin II
  • adrenaline binding to a-1 adrenoreceptors
157
Q

What activates thromboxane A2?

A

Tissue injury and inflammation

158
Q

Hydrostatic pressure vs osmotic pressure

159
Q

What % of blood is made up of plasma?

160
Q

What is plasma made up of?

A
  • extracellular fluid
  • water
  • electrolytes
  • organic molecules
  • plasma proteins
161
Q

What is the most abundant plasma protein?

A

Albumins (60%)

162
Q

What are thrombocytes?

163
Q

What is the function of albumins?

A

Lipid transport

164
Q

What is the function of globulins?

A

Transport/immune function

165
Q

What is the function of fibrinogens?

A

Co agulation

166
Q

What does oncotic pressure do to fluid?

A

Pulls it into the capillaries

167
Q

Where are red blood cells formed?

A

Red bone marrow

168
Q

What is erythropoesis?

A

Red blood cell (erythrocyte) formation

169
Q

What enzyme regulates red blood cell formation?

A

Erythropoietin

170
Q

How many haeme groups does haemoglobin have?

A

4 - 2 alpha, 2 beta

171
Q

What is the most abundant leukocyte?

A

Neutrophil

172
Q

What are examples of granulocytes?

A
  • neutrophil
  • basophil
  • eosinophil
173
Q

What is the haemocrit?

A

Proportion of red blood cells to total blood volume

174
Q

What are the variables within poiseulle’s equation?

A

Blood flow in relation to vessel radium, pressure change, viscosity of blood and length of vessel

175
Q

How is blood flow controlled locally?

A
  • auto regulation
  • active hyperaemia
  • reactive hyperaemia
176
Q

What does an increase in vessel length do to resistance?

A

Increases resistance

177
Q

What is resting heart rate in a healthy individual?

A

60-100 bpm

178
Q

What system controls heart rate?

A

Autonomic nervous system

179
Q

Describe sympathetic control of heart rate

A
  • noradrenaline binds to beta-1 adrenoreceptors on the SA node
  • G proteins
  • Adenyl cyclise
  • increases cAMP
  • protein kinase A
  • acts on receptors and ca channels in cardiomyocytes
180
Q

What are the effects of the sympathetic nervous system on heart rate?

A

increase in:
- chronotropy
- inotropy
- lucitropy
- dromotropy

181
Q

What is chronotropy?

A

Heart rate

182
Q

What is inotropy?

A

Contraction strength

183
Q

What is lusitropy?

A

Relaxation strength

184
Q

What is dromotropy?

A

Conduction speed

185
Q

Describe parasympathetic effect on heart rate?

A
  • cholinergic nerves of the vagus nerve release acetylcholine
  • acetylcholine bind to m-2 muscarinic receptors at nodes
  • G proteins
  • cAMP
  • K+ influx
186
Q

What is the parasympathetic effect on heart rate?

A

decrease in:
- chronotropy
- inotropy
- lusitropy
- dromotropy

187
Q

What does the P wave in an ECG represent?

A

Atrial depolarisation

188
Q

What does the QRS region of an ECG represent?

A

Ventricular depolarisation (phase 0)

189
Q

What does the T region of an ECG represent?

A

Ventricular repolarisation (phase 3)

190
Q

What does the P-R interval of an ECG represent?

A

Delay through the AV node

191
Q

What does the S-T interval of an ECG represent?

A

The plateau phase (phase 2)

192
Q

What arteries supply the heart?

A

Coronary arteries

193
Q

What is haemolysis?

A

Red blood cell destruction

194
Q

What happens to heart rate during the tilt table experiment?

A

Increases then decreases again

195
Q

What happens to blood pressure during the tilt table experiment?

A

Increases then decreases

196
Q

Describe the sequence of events when the tilt table is tilted upright

A
  • decrease in blood pressure
  • decrease in baroreceptor firing
  • decrease in PSNS control
  • increase in SNS control
  • increase in heart rate
  • increase in blood pressure
197
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide

198
Q

What are baroreceptors?

A

A type of mechanoreceptors
- detect stretch in blood vessel walls

199
Q

Describe the sequence of events in baroreceptors following an increase in arterial blood pressure

A
  • baroreceptors detect a increase in blood pressure
  • increase baroreceptor firing AP
  • decrease in SNS
  • increase in PSNS
200
Q

What does the valsava manoeuvre investigate?

A

The attempt to expire against a closed glottis
- increases pressures

201
Q

What are the components of the urinary system?

A
  • kidneys
  • ureters
  • bladder
  • urethra
202
Q

What are the parts of the kidney?

A
  • cortex
  • medulla
  • pelvis
203
Q

Where are most kidney nephrons found?

204
Q

Where is the site of urine concentration in the kidney?

205
Q

What is the function of the pelvis in the kidney?

A

Collection area for urine

206
Q

How much of the total cardiac output does the kidneys receive?

207
Q

How much of the filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT?

208
Q

What are the parts of the loop of Henle?

A
  • PCT
  • descending limb
  • ascending limb (thin and thick)
  • distal convoluted tubule
209
Q

What parts of the kidney make up the renal corpuscle?

A
  • glomerulus
  • bowman’s capsule
210
Q

How much of the filtrate is reabsorbed in the renal corpuscle?

211
Q

Where is the site of filtration in the kidney?

A

Renal corpuscle

212
Q

What makes the epithelium of bowman’s capsule specialised?

A

Podocytes with projections called pedicels to increase surface area for improved filtration efficiency

213
Q

What makes up the filtration barrier of the kidney?

A
  • glomerular endothelium
  • basement membrane
  • pedicels
214
Q

What can pass through the filtration barrier?

A
  • small molecules
  • positive molecules
215
Q

What is a healthy GFR value?

A

180litres per day

216
Q

What drives GFR?

A

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

217
Q

What counteracts GFR?

A

Hydrostatic pressure in bowmans capsule
Glomerular oncotic pressure

218
Q

What parts of the kidney make up the renal tubule?

A
  • PCT
  • loop of henle
  • DCT
  • collecting ducts
219
Q

What is the function of the renal tubule?

A

Re absorption and secretion

220
Q

How much sodium is reabsorbed overall by the renal tubule?

221
Q

Where is most sodium re absorption carried out and why?

A

PCT, presence of sodium potassium pump

222
Q

Describe the properties of the PCT

A
  • sodium potassium pumps
  • sodium reabsorbed
  • water, glucose and negative ions follow
223
Q

What is the main function of the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Fine tuning- homeostasis

224
Q

What are properties of the ascending limb?

A

IMPERMEABLE to water

225
Q

What is the function of ADH?

A

Antidiuretic hormone
- aquaporin insertion for water re absorption
- increases blood pressure

226
Q

Where is ADH produced?

A

Hypothalamus

227
Q

What is the function of aldosterone?

A

Increases sodium potassium pumps to increase sodium re absorption

228
Q

Where is aldosterone produced?

A

The cortex of adrenal medulla

229
Q

Describe the RAAS

A
  • juxtaglomerular apparatus detects a decrease in blood pressure
  • kidneys release enzyme renin
  • renin converts angiotensinogen (from liver) to angiotensin I
  • angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by ACE
  • angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction to increase BP
  • angiotensin II also triggers release of aldosterone (adrenal glands) and ADH (pituitary gland)
  • aldosterone and ADH retain sodium in blood which increases blood flow and pressure
230
Q

What is the function of the RAAS?

A

Blood pressure and blood flow regulation

231
Q

ANH function in kidneys?

A

Atrial naturetic hormone
- released form increase in BP
- inhibits sodium retention decreasing BP

232
Q

Adenosine function in kidneys?

A
  • constriction of afferents arterioles
  • lower GFR, increasing re absorption
233
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Maxillary

234
Q

What are the boundaries of the larynx?

235
Q

What is the larynx?

236
Q

What are the 9 cartilages of the larynx?

A

Thyroid
Epiglottic
Circoid
Arytenoid 2
Corniculate 2
Cuneiform 2

237
Q

What is the smooth muscle which completes the ring of the trachea?

A

Trachealis

238
Q

Which bronchi is more vertical?

239
Q

What is a type I pneumocyte?

A

Simple squamous epithelial cell at blood-air barrier

240
Q

What is a type II pneumocyte?

A

Surfactant cell which reduces friction at the blood-air barrier

241
Q

What nerves innervate the diaphragm?

242
Q

What is the V/Q ratio?

A

Ventilation/perfusion ratio

243
Q

What is the average V/Q ratio?

244
Q

What contributes to anatomical dead space?

A

Air conductors
- pharynx
- respiratory tree

245
Q

What is physiological dead space?

A

Total volume of gas which doesn’t contribute to gas exchange

246
Q

What is the partial pressure of O2 in the alveoli?

247
Q

What is the partial pressure of O2 in the deoxygenated blood?

248
Q

What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the alveoli?

249
Q

What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the deoygenated blood?

250
Q

How is oxygen transported around the blood?

A
  • mostly bound to haemoglobin
  • some dissolved
251
Q

How is carbon dioxide transported around the body?

A
  • mostly converted to bicarbonate
  • some bound to haemoglobin
  • some dissolved
252
Q

What is normal ventilation at rest?

A

6-7 litres/minute (12-15 breaths)

253
Q

How is air filtered?

A

Cilia on epithelium attach to mucous particles

254
Q

What is the dorsal column mediated pathway responsible for?

A
  • proprioception
  • fine touch
255
Q

What is the spinothalamic pathway responsible for?

A
  • pain
  • crude touch
256
Q

Where does the dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway cross the midline?

A

Brain stem nucleus

257
Q

Where does the spinothalamic pathway cross the midline?

A

In the spinal cord

258
Q

where does the dorsal trigeminothalamic pathway cross the midline?

A

Brain stem nucleus

259
Q

Where does the ventral trigeminothalamic pathway cross the mid line?

A

The spinal nucleus

260
Q

What is the triple response?

A

Red line
Flare
Wheal

261
Q

What are the methods of pain modulation?

A

Gate control theory
- beta- nerve fibres activated
- this activates inhibitory neurons
- these inhibit the 2nd order afferents neurons

262
Q

What type of joint is the TMJ?

263
Q

What are the functions of calcium?

A
  • remineralisation
  • 2nd messenger
  • co agulation
  • action potentials
264
Q

What cells release calcitonin?

A

C cells in the thyroid

265
Q

What hormones regulate calcium levels?

A
  • parathyroid hormone
  • calcitonin
  • vit D
266
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Increase in cell numbers

267
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Increase in cell size

268
Q

Where is cortisol released?

A

Adrenal glands

269
Q

Where is growth hormone produced?

A

Pituitary gland

270
Q

What hormone can impede growth at high levels?

271
Q

What is haemorrhage?

A

Excessive blood loss

272
Q

What are the physiological responses to haemorrhage?

A
  • immediate
    Vascular
    Platelet
    Plasma
  • short term
    BP
  • medium term
    FV
  • long term
273
Q

Describe the process of coagulation?

A

Fibrinogen converted to fibrin via thrombin

274
Q

What vitamin is required for the synthesis of clotting factors?

275
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

Dissolves blood clot

276
Q

What is required for erythropoesis?

A
  • folic acid
  • vit B12
  • iron
277
Q

What are the stages in stress?

A
  • alarm
  • resistance
  • exhaustion
278
Q

Where are corticosteroids produced?

A

Adrenal cortex

279
Q

Where is adrenaline produced?

A

Adrenal medulla

280
Q

What is the main stress hormone?

281
Q

What are the consequences of the exhaustion stage?

A
  • adrenal failure
  • immunosuppression
  • cardiovascular system disease
282
Q

What is another name for ADH?

A

Vasopressin

283
Q

Where is angiotensinogen produced?

284
Q

Where is ADH released from?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

285
Q

What are the fibres involved in nociception?

286
Q

What are the fibres involved in the dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway?

A

A beta fibres

287
Q

What fibres are involved in reflexes?

A

A alpha
Muscle loading reflex is A beta

288
Q

What is prescribed to patients with kidney disease?

A

Furosemide- acts on the thick ascending limb to prevent sodium and water re absorption to reduce blood pressure, side effect is xerostomia

289
Q

Is there any glucose in urine?

BDS1 BAMS human systems (47 decks)

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