GU Anatomy TA Questions Flashcards
which kidney is lower, left or right?
right, the liver is superior
what are the 3 layers of supportive tissue of the kidney
renal fascia (false capsule), perirenal fat capsule, fibrous capsule (true capsule)
the tip of the pyramid, release urine into minor calyx
track blood flow from the aorta to the glomerulus
track blood flow from the glomerulus to the IVC
brodel’s line
what is the structural and functional unit of the kidney that forms urine
nephron
what is the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?
what is the predominant function of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)?
where are the three constrictions of the ureters?
infections tend to persist in which region of the bladder
what are the 3 regions of the male urethra
prostatic, membranous, spongy
what is angiotensin II’s effect on sodium
what are the 2 functions of the countercurrent mechanism
which limb of the loop of henle, descending or ascending, is freely permeable to water
does the absence of ADH produce dilute or concentrated urine
dilute
ultra filtrate from the glomerulus
where does most of the day-to-day regulation of potassium excretion occur
what is one of the primary controllers of renal tubular calcium reabsorption
PTH
by eliminating H+ from the body, the kidneys generate what?
HCO3
where is virtually all filtered bicarb reabsorbed
proximal tubule
decreased arterial pressure detected by the kidneys results in the secretion of what?
renin
renin
when the body is in a hypovolemic state, what is released to help prevent renal ischemia?
bradykinin - serves as a vasodilator & produced in distal nephron
what hormone made by the kidneys acts on bone marrow to increase RBC production
erythropoietin
what is the normal pH of urine
about 6, range of 4.5 to 8.0
what is the normal specific gravity of urine
1.001-1.035
which muscle of the scrotum is skeletal muscle responsible for elevating the testes
cremaster muscle
the cremaster muscle is derived from what abdominal muscle
internal oblique
what is the course of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epidydymis?
What is varicocele
abnormal enlargement of the pampiniform venous plexus
what is cut during a vasectomy
Vas/Ductus Deferens
which zone of the prostate is affected by BPH
transitional
what gland is responsible for neutralizing traces of acidic urine in the urethra
bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s glands)
what are the three masses of erectile tissue present in the shaft of the penis
corpus spongiosum and paired corpora cavernosa
what two sets of unpaired veins drain the penis
superficial dorsal vein and deep dorsal vein
what is the most common cause of acute epididymitis <35 yrs old
what is a vaccine-preventable cause of orchitis
mumps
relief of pain with elevation of the scrotum is known as what and is positive in what disease?
what is seen on ultrasound in a patient with epididymitis
increased testicular blood flow
Dx: testicular torsion
US: avascular testicle with decreased bloodflow
what is the most common surgically correctable cause of male infertility
varicocele (bag of worms on PE)
the spermatic vein enters the renal vein at a right angle on which side of the body
left - this leads to the left being more susceptible to varicocele
what is a major risk factor for testicular cancer
cryptorchidism
in paraphimosis, what happens to the foreskin?
this class of meds improves the clinical course of pts with BPH
what is the most common cause of priapism
idiopathic
what is peyronie’s disease
fibrotic band on lateral portion of the penis with history of penile curvature during erections
which ligament of the ovary suspends the ovary?
mesovarium
the ovarian artery is a branch of what artery?
uterine
what is the usual site of fertilization
ampulla of the fallopian tube
what is the function of the broad ligament
support uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina
also contains suspensory ligament and mesovarium
what is the term for an immature egg
oocyte
what develops from the ruptured follicle after ovulation
corpus luteum
what are the four parts of the uterus
fundus, body, isthmus, cervix
what are the four parts of the fallopian tubes
infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, interstitium
what is the name of the epithelial mucosa of the uterine wall
endometrium
what layer of the uterine wall is shed during menstruation
endometrium
the angle of anteversion, measured at 90 degrees, is the forward angle between what two structures?
cervix and vagina
where is the urethra embedded within the vagina
anterior wall
which neurotransmitter is responsible for expelling urine
where in the kidneys do loop diuretics work
where in the kidneys do thiazide diuretics work
why is hyperaldosteronism associated with hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis
where in the kidneys do potassium sparing diuretics work
what three lab findings characterize nephrotic syndrome
acute glomerulonephritis is an immunologic inflammation of glomeruli causing leakage of what two substances into the urine
what is the most common cause of acute glomerulonephritis worldwide?
in goodpasture’s syndrome, a form of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, antibodies are formed against what?
what is the gold standard for diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis
what are the RIFLE criteria used to describe acute kidney injury
what are the three causes of acute kidney injury
What is the hallmark of intrinsic acute tubular necrosis
cellular cast formation due to nephron damage
what is the most common type of acute intrinsic tibular necrosis
acute tubular necrosis
what class of abx can cause exogenous acute tubular necrosis
aminoglycosides
WBC cast on UA are pathognomonic for what two diseases
acute interstitial nephritis or pyelonephritis
while a high specific gravity reflects a concentrated urine, a low specific gravity reflects diluted urine due to what?
renal tubular damage
is polycystic kidney disease autosomal dominant, recessive, or not a genetically inherited disorder?
autosomal dominant
neurological - cerebral “berry” aneurysms
cardiovascular - mitral valve prolapse
primary hyperparathyroidism
renal failure decreases calcium levels while what increases it?
phosphate
stage 5 chronic kidney disease is defined as GFR less than what?
15 - end stage renal disease
normal GFR is 120-130
what is the most common cause of end stage renal disease
what is the single best predictor of disease progression in patients with ESRD
proteinuria - spot urine ablumin/urine creatinine ration (ACR)
what dietary restrictions are helpful in management of CKD
protein, water, sodium, potassium, and phosphate restriction
what is a common hematologic complication of CKD
ADH - Li is a potential cause of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Desmopressin/DDVAP
the kidney adjusts water balance via what hormone
ADH - primary regulator of water excretion
the kidney adjusts water balance via what hormone
Aldosterone
in a pt with hypernatremia, what type of fluid is used to manage their symptoms
hypotonic fluids (replaces water deficit)
what 2 electrolytes are commonly decreased in a patient with hypomagnesemia
potassium and calcium
hypomagnesemia can sometimes lead to what EKG finding which is treated with IV magnesium sulfate
torsades de pointes
what are the classic EKG findings in a patient with hyperkalemia
what is the most common pathogen that causes UTIs
E. coli
is the presence of nitrites in urine specific or sensitive for an infection
specific
Phenazopyridine (AZO, pyridium)
painless hematuria, gross or microscopic, is considered what until proven otherwise?
bladder cancer
what electrolyte abnormality may be seen in pts with renal cell carcinoma
hypercalcemia
what is the most common cause of secondary hypertension
renal artery stenosis
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pts with which disease of the kidneys
bilateral renal artery stenosis
what is the most common type of nephrolithiasis
calcium oxalate
urge incontinence is due to over-activity of what muscle
detrusor muscle
