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Immunology and Microbiology > Gram Positive Bacteria + > Flashcards

Gram Positive Bacteria + Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Staphylococcal characteristics

A

Aerobic cocci, catalase positive violent prolific toxins

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2
Q

What does it mean to be catalase positive? Catalase negative?

A

Catalase positive - bubbling with H2O2
Catalase negative - no bubbling with H2O2

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3
Q

What test determines Staph aureus? And how?

A

Coagulate test. Staph aureus is coagulate positive. This means there is clumping when mixed with plasma

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4
Q

Infections/Syndromes caused by Staph aureus (3)

A

Soft tissue infections
Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSST)
Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSST)

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5
Q

What type of toxin is SSSST and what does it cause?

A

Exfoliative toxin
Generalized peeling of the skin

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6
Q

What is the toxin of Staph aureus that is a super antigen? And what does it cause?

A

Enterotoxin
Causes quick onset food poisoning

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7
Q

What is MRSA and why is it bad?

A

Methicillin Resistant Staph aureus
It is penicillin resistant - produces beta lactamase which breaks up penicillin

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8
Q

Resist phagocytes, hard

A

Capsules

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9
Q

Attaches to fibrinogen, plastic devices, fibrin; can choke a pathway

A

Clumping factor

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10
Q

Coagulase

A

Produces clots in capillaries; clots fibrinogen

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11
Q

Enterotoxin

A

Superantigens causing food poisoning if ingested

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12
Q

exfoliatoxin

A

Separates layer of epidermis

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13
Q

Fibronectin binding protein

A

Attached to acceptors tissue substances

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14
Q

Breaks down hyaluronic acid component of tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

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15
Q

Kills neutrophils or causes them to release their enzymes

A

P-V Leucoidin

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16
Q

Breaks down fats; can break down the whole body if overreacted

A

Lipase

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17
Q

Degrade collagen and other tissue proteins

A

Proteases and nucleases

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18
Q

Makes holes in host cell membranes; unnecessary substances in, necessary out (messes up homeostasis)

A

Alpha toxin, beta toxin and delta toxin

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19
Q

Immunoglobulin binding protein

A

Protein A

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20
Q

Causes rash, diarrhea and shock

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

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21
Q

Converts plasminogen to fibriolytic plasma

A

Staphylokinase

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22
Q

Streptococci characteristics

A

Gram positive, catalase negative, aerobic, M proteins and thick cell wall

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23
Q

What does being catalase negative mean?

A

Forms in chains

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24
Q

What are the most common and most devastating groups of strep? (2)

A

Group A and Group B

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25
Q

C5a peptidase

A

Inhibits attraction of phagocytes by destroying C5a
strep virulence factor

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26
Q

Inhibits phagocytosis; aids in penetration of epithelium

A

Hyaluronic acid capsule

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27
Q

M protein

A

Interferes with phagocytosis by breakdown of C3b opsonin
strep virulence factor

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28
Q

Protein F

A

Helps with attachment to host cells

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29
Q

Interferes with phagocytosis by binding Fc segment of Ig

A

Protein G

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30
Q

Superantigen responsible for scarlet fever and flesh eating fasciitis

A

Strep pyrogenic exotoxins

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31
Q

Streptolysin O and S

A

Lyse leukocytes and erythrocytes -> cause infection

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32
Q

Enhance spread of bacteria by breaking down DNA, proteins, blood clots, tissue, hyaluronic acid

A

Tissue degrading enzymes

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33
Q

What is alpha hemolysis?

A

Partial RBC hemolysis by alpha hemolysin

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34
Q

What are the 2 bacteria that are alpha hemolytic? How do you tell them apart?

A

S. pneumoniae and S. Viridans
Optochin test

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35
Q

What are the results of the optichin test?

A

S. Pneumoniae - sensitive
S. Viridans - resistant

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36
Q

Two bacteria under S. Viridans

A

S. mutans
S. sanguis

37
Q

What is beta hemolytic mean?

A

Complete RBC hemolysis

38
Q

Which bacteria are Beta hemolytic? How do you tell them apart?

A

S. pyogenes (Group A) and S. agalactiae (Group B)
Bacitracin test

39
Q

What are the results of the bacitracin test?

A

S. pyogenes (Group A) - sensitive
S. agalactiae (Group B) - resistant

40
Q

What does Gamma hemolytic mean?

A

No hemolysis of RBC

41
Q

What two bacteria are gamma hemolytic?

A

Enterococcus fecalis and Enterococcus faecium

42
Q

What is present when S. pneumoniae is put through an optichin test? How big should it be?

A

A zone of inhibition
14 mm or greater from the disk

43
Q

What type of plates are used for an optochin test

A

Blood agar plates

44
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae characteristics

A

Gram positive, encapsulated cocci, nonmotile, alpha hemolytic, catalase negative

45
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Strep. pneumoniae

46
Q

Pneumococcal pneumonia is a

A

Facultative anaerobe

47
Q

4 diseases/conditions that S. pneumoniae causes

A

Adult bacterial meningitis
Otitis media
sinusitis
Mastoiditis

48
Q

What is most common S. Pneumoniae condition in children when they are growing?

A

Otitis media (middle ear)

49
Q

Strep. pyogenes A characteristics

A

Beta hemolytic, cocci, catalase negative, gram positive, bacitracin sensitive

50
Q

What does Strep. pyogenes A cause? (5)

A

Strep throat
Necrotizing fasciitis (flesh eating disease)
Scarlet fever (strawberry tongue)
Strep. Toxic Shock Syndrome
Glomerulonephritis

51
Q

Why is flesh eating disease dangerous?

A

You can get infections in the open air due to exposure of skin IF it is very severe

52
Q

Strep. agalactiae B characteristics

A

Beta hemolytic, gram positive, bacitracin resistant, catalase negative

53
Q

The leading cause of meningitis and septicemia in neonates

A

Strep. agalactiae B

54
Q

What can cause skin infections in people with compromised immune systems?

A

Micrococcus

55
Q

Micrococcus characteristics

A

Gram positive cocci
M. Lutes oxidizes carbohydrates to CO2 and water

56
Q

C. tetani characteristics

A

Gram positive bacilli, spore forming, anaerobic, do not grow in aerobic, transported by retrograde neuronal flow or blood

57
Q

C. tetani toxin and what type of toxin

A

Tetanospasmin (exotoxin)

58
Q

What does C. tetani cause?

A

Tetanus (muscle tone loss) and Lockjaw

59
Q

C. botulinum toxin and what type

A

botulinum toxin
Exotoxin

60
Q

What does C. botulinum cause?

A

Botulism (muscular paralysis and blurred vision)
Botulism food poisoning

61
Q

C. botulinum characteristics

A

Gram positive Bacilli, spore forming (spores can be airborne), found in soil, fish, meat)

62
Q

What is added to can foods to prevent situation of botulism?

A

Nitrates/nitrites

63
Q

What does C. perfringens cause?

A

Gas gangrene/myonecrosis

64
Q

What happens if intestinal tissues necrotize due to C. perfringens?

A

Enterotoxin is released -> severe diarrhea

65
Q

How does C. perfringens spread?

A

Food borne

66
Q

Gas production from C. perfringens leads to

A

Bubbly deformation of infected tissue

67
Q

C. difficile characteristics

A

GI microflora, in GI tract of children, can cause watery diarrhea

68
Q

Clostridium characteristics

A

Motile, strictly anaerobic, prolific producers of exotoxins and enterotoxins

69
Q

What is a good stain for Clostridium and why?

A

Gram stain
Spore does not stain, good to identify

70
Q

Actinomycetes characteristics

A

Fungus like filamentous bacteria, forms branches, pleomorphic, high G and C content, anaerobe

71
Q

Who has mycolic acid in their cell walls?

A

Actinomycetes

72
Q

Infections/diseases caused by Actinomycetes

A

Pulmonary infections (nocarditis), actinomycosis, forms abscesses and swelling at the site of infection

73
Q

Propionibacterium characteristics

A

Gram positive, anaerobes (can grow in aerobic), propanoic acid

74
Q

Cutaneous group and dairy group used in cheese

A

Propinoic acid

75
Q

What is Propionibacterium linked to? (3)

A

Certain cases of endocarditis, wound infections, and abscesses

76
Q

What does P. granulosium and S. epidermidis cause?

A

Acne vulgaris (pimples)

77
Q

Bacillus anthracis characteristics

A

Gram positive, endospore forming, rod with unique capsule, two plasmid coded exotoxins, strict aerobes

78
Q

Other than humans, Anthrax can be in

A

Cows, sheep, goats and horses

79
Q

Humans contract anthrax via animal products/contaminated dusts and get (most common to very rare, 3)

A

Cutaneous infection, inhalation pulmonary anthrax or GI anthrax

80
Q

What does Bacillus cereus cause?

A

Rice eating related food poisoning

81
Q

What is used for polymyxin production?

A

Bacillus polymyxa

82
Q

What does Corynebacterium diptheriae cause?

A

life threatening diseases diptheriae- URI

83
Q

Corynebacterium characteristics

A

Anaerobic, nonmotile, rod shaped, normally saprophytic (expect for C. diptheriae)

84
Q

Listeria monocytogenes characteristics

A

Motile, no spores, facultative anaerobe, normal inhabitant of GI tract

85
Q

What does L. monocytogenes cause?

A

Listeriosis (inflammation of the brain) and severe food poisoning

86
Q

Who is most vulnerable to L. monocytogenes? (4)

A

Pregnant woman (1/3 cases), newborns, elderly, and immunocompromised patients

87
Q

Lactobacillus characteristics

A

gram pos, Aerotolerant anaerobes, common in the dairy industry, normal in GI and vagina, derives lactic acid from glucose

88
Q

How does lactobacillus lead to infection?

A

It creates an acidic environment, inhibits growth of other bacteria, and then causes urogenital infections

Immunology and Microbiology (18 decks)

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