Female Reproductive System Flashcards
What gene determines testis development in males?
SRY gene
What gene is important in ovarian development in females? What gene does this gene upregulate that is specific to female development?What male gene does it inhibit?
WNT4; NROB1 (DAX1); SOX9
What hormone drives development of male structures to develop in the embryo?
anti-mullerian hormone
The uterus, vagina, and cervix are formed from what paired ducts?
paramesonephric ducts (aka Mullerian ducts)
What does the SRY gene do?
It is responsible for making the protein that encodes for male sexual development; stands for “sex-determining region Y” as it is found only on the Y chromosome.
Examples of aneuploidy include all of the following except: A. Kleinfelter-like syndrome B. Freemartinism C. Turner-like syndroms D. XXX genotype
B. Freemartinism is chimerism, where XX/XY expression occurs in the female who is twin to a male. Kleinfelter’s syndrome is XXY, and Turner’s syndrome is X_.
A key diagnostic feature of freemartinism is:
presence of poorly developed vesicular glands attached to the lower fused segment of the paramesonephric ducts.
In freemartinism, this cell type is exchanged between the fetuses and allows tolerance for the other’s cells.
hematopoietic cells
The development of sterility in freemartin females is due to the transfer of _______ factors carried in the bloodstream via the placental anastomoses to the female gonad where it inhibits development.
testis-determining factors
What key diagnostic feature is indicative of freemartinism in this tissue?
paired vesicular glands are the key diagnostic feature of freemartinism
All of the following are found in freemartinism except:
A. Non-patent vagina
B. Paired vesicular glands
C. Enlarged clitoris
D. Normal estrogen production by the freemartin ovary
D. The freemartin ovary has a greatly reduced estrogen secretion due to inhibition by testis-determining factors entering the bloodstream from the male twin.
Cattle are the only species in which freemartinism occurs. True/False.
False. Other species have freemartins, but it is not as common.
The most common disorder of XY sexual development with female phenotype is:
A. XY, SRY+, ovarian DSD with female phenotype
B. XY, SRY+, testicular DSD with female phenotype
C.XY, SRY-, ovarian DSD with female phenotype
D. XY, SRY -, testicular DSD with female phenotype
B. XY, SRY +, testicular DSD with female phenotype. This is an XY genotype in which the SRY gene is present, abnormal development of the testes resulting in sterility or ovaries or ovotestes, and external female genitalia or hypoplastic male genitalia.
The XY SRY+, testicular DSD, female phenotype has a controlling mutation in what gene? What does this gene mutation cause? Why do these animals have no internal female genitalia?
TFM; produces androgen insensitivity where the normal production of testosterone by the testes is not recognized due to inadequate androgen receptors. Anti-mullerian hormone is still produced which suppresses the formation of internal uterine, vaginal and ovarian structures, though external genitalia is still female.
What is the diagnostic test for XY, SRY+, testicular DSD, female phenotype?
androgen receptor assay on labial skin
Cystic remnants of paramesonephric ducts are classified as what type of DSD?
A. XX, SRY+, ovarian DSD, female phenotype
B. XX, SRY-, ovarian DSD, female phenotype
C. XX, SRY -, testicular DSD, male phenotype
D. XX, SRY +, testicular DSD, male phenotype
B. These are ovarian DSD’s since the disorder results in ovarian tissue still as the paramesonephric ducts lead to female structure production. There are no XX, SRY+ in vet med (remember the SRY+ gene is found on the Y chromosome).
Polled intersex syndrome is found in what species? Are PIS homozygous, heterozygous or both affected by XX testicular/ovotesticular DSD?
goat; only the PIS homozygous have the DSD disorder which can result in either testicles or ovotesticles in an XX female. The heterozygous is what produces only the polled phenotype with no change in sexual development.
Causes of ovarian remnant syndrome are most likely:
A. surgical remnants
B. congenital remnants
A. surgical remnants. No evidence of congenital remnant ovarian tissue.
Where is ectopic adrenal tissue normally found?
A. broad ligament
B. suspensory ligament
C. serosal surface of the urinary bladder
D. ovarian fimbriae
B. suspensory ligament is the where ectopic adrenal tissue is normally found, also the ovarian capsule in horses and ovarian tunic
Cystic mesonephric tubule remnants are common in this species ________ and are composed of this cell type in the wall ________.
horse; smooth muscle
Cystic rete are common in the ______ and __________, arise from the _______ __________, and are most common in the ______ region of the ovary. The do not have ______ ________ in their walls, and tend to compress ovarian tissues and compromise ovarian function as opposed to the cystic remnants of mesonephric tubules.
dog and cat; rete ovarii; hilar; smooth muscle
Fimbrial cysts derive from the paramesonephric duct and are most common in what species?
horse
Where are mesonephric duct remnants found compared to mesonephric tubule remnants? What about paramesonephric duct remnants?
Mesonephric duct remnants are found along the lateral side of the uterine tubes, uterine horns, uterine body, cervix and cranial vagina; they are remnants of Wolffian ducts and should regress in females. Mesonephric tube remnants are found near the cranial or caudal poles of the ovary. Paramesonephric ducts give rise to the uterine horns, uterine body and cervix when they fuse together, so remnants are located in these organs, i.e fimbrial cysts and segmental aplasia of the uterine horns as well as double uterine bodies (haven’t fused together).
All of the following apply to an imperforate hymen except:
A. They are most common in cows and dogs
B. They are the result of failure of fusion of the paramesonephric ducts
C. They form a longitudinal band cranial to the urethral orifice
D. They lead to severe uterine atony or pyometra if they are complete
E. They are found in animals with genital tract abnormalities that make them unfit for breeding
E. these animals frequently have a normal genital tract except for this defect and if the imperforate hymen is relieved it can usually function normally
Complete division of the uterine body and cervix is called:
uterine didelphys
Ovarian tags are:
A. regions of serositis that develop on a pre-ovulatory follicle
B. regions of serositis that can prevent interfere with ovulation
C. regions of serositis that develop adjacent to corpora lutea
D. the result of manual enucleation of corpora lutea in cattle
C. these are normal regions of serositis that develop adjacent to the corpora lutea (so post-ovulatory) that are composed of fibrin, neutrophils and proliferating capillaries. They do not interfere with ovulation or the passage of ova into the uterine tube. Manual enucleation of corpora lutea is a cause of severe, potentially fatal hemorrhage in cattle and practice is no longer performed.
Ovarian varicosities with thrombi and infarction of the ovary are common in which species?
mare
Three types of cysts that develop from mesonephric ducts are:
cystic epoophoron, cystic paroophoron and cystic rete
Parovarian cysts are either:
A. cystic epoophoron or cystic paroophoron
B. cystic rete or cystic epoophoron
C. cystic rete or cystic paroophoron
A. parovarian cysts are found near the ovary and are either cystic epoophoron or paroophoron. Cystic rete develop from mesonephric tubules like the former but were destined to form the rete ovarii in the ovary. They do not have smooth muscle in their walls, which differentiates them from cystic remnants of the mesonephric duct.
Paramesonephric duct cysts are also known as:
A. fimbrial cysts
B. hydatids of Morgagni
C. accessory oviducts
D. all of the above
D. all of the above are synonyms. They are more common in the mare.
Subsurface epithelial structures of the ovary in the dog are lined by:
A. cytokeratin-postiive, cuboidal epithelium derived from modified peritoneal cells and are prone to neoplastic transformation
B. modified smooth muscle cells of no clinical importance
C. terminally differentiated fibroblasts
D. cytokeratin negative, cuboidal epithelium derived from modified peritoneal cells than are prone to hyperplasia without neoplastic transformation
A. cuboidal epithelium derived from modified peritoneal cells which are prone to neoplastic transformation. They extend from the ovarian serosal surface and undergo papillary hyperplasia then neoplastic transformation. They are hormonally sensitive and are cytokeratin positive, which differentiates them from atretic follcular cysts.
All of the following applies to ovarian inclusion cysts except:
A. they are more common in the mare
B. they are more common at the ovulation fossa
C. They are derived from entrapment of small segments of peritoneum
D. they are lined by granulosa cells
E. they can be associated with compression and atrophy of adjacent ovarian tissue
D. they are lined by epithelium. Follicles are lined by granulosa cells.
Cystic follicular disease is accompanied by all of the following except:
A. follicles larger than they should be at ovulation
B. persistence of the follicle
C. signs of hyperestrogenism
D. its over-representation in the mare
D. Cystic follicular disease associated with anovulation is a problem in cows and sows!!!
Most ovarian cysts are associated with signs of persistent estrus. True/False.
False. most are not associated with persistent estrus (nymphomania)
Cystic ovarian disease associated with anovulation may be the result of all of the following except:
A. the absence or mistiming of the pre-ovulatory LH surge due to high basal LH levels
B. intrauterine infections
C. concomittant genital tract malformations
D. genetic predispositions
C. anovulatory cystic ovarian follicles are not associated with malformations in the rest of the tract.
??
Luteinized cysts occur when what happens?
ovulation fails to occur and the theca undergoes luteinization (so no ovulation papilla).
How are luteinized cysts and cystic corpora lutea differentiated?
the cystic corpora lutea will have an ovulation papilla because it is a post-ovulation structure. Luteinized cysts are pre-ovulation so they lack the ovulation papilla and are therefore uniformly smooth-walled.
Consequences of cystic follicular ovarian disease (AKA cystic ovarian degeneration) include all of the following except:
A. formation of Gartner’s duct cysts in the vaginal wall and Bartholin’s duct cysts in the vulva
B. cystic endometrial hyperplasia in the uterus
C. endometriosis
D. mucometra
E. cervical enlargement and patency
C. endometriosis is a disease of old world (i.e. menstruating) primates. The other options are all potential sequelae of cystic ovarian disease as it progresses.
A common cause of infertility in sows is cystic ovaries and are normally composed of (single/multiple) (follicular/luteinized) cysts.
multiple; luteinized
A serious sequela of polycystic ovarian syndrome in the dog is
A. infertity
B. mucometra
C. pyometra
D. pancytopenia
D. bone marrow suppression leading to pancytopenia is the result of the dog’s sensitivity to endogenous or exogenous estrogen secretion from the multiple follicular cysts in the ovary that are in various stages of atresia
The most common cause of cysts in the dog is:
A. inclusion cysts and hemorrhagic anovulatory follicles
B. follicular and luteinized cysts
C. cystic rete and subepithelial structure cysts
D. polycystic ovarian disease
C. cystic rete and SES are the most common cause of ovarian cysts in the dog. Inclusion cysts and HAF are found in the mare. Follicular and luteinized cysts are commonly found in cows and sows, and while polycystic ovarian disease is a canine cause of cysts, it is very rare.
In mares, granulosa-theca cell tumors can cause all of the following syndromes except:
A. anestrous
B. intermittent estrus
C. continuous estrus
D. male behavior with normal testosterone production
E. male behavior with elevated testosterone production
Male behavior is only found when testosterone levels reach > 100 pg/ml in the peripheral plasma. (normal non-pregnant mare is 20-45 pg/ml)
Tissue from a mare. All of the following would be expected findings associated with this lesion except?
A. production of inhibin
B. atrophy of the contralateral ovary
C. Call-Exner bodies on histopathology
D. uniform population of large round cells with frequent mitoses
E. embedded Leydig cells
D. this would be a finding in a dysgerminoma. The rest are features of a granulosa-theca cell tumor in mares. Atrophy of the contralateral ovary is thought to be due to the production of inhibin, not testosterone, though the tumor produces both. Tumors producing a large amount of testosterone would be expected to have more Leydig cells in them (large eosinophilic polyhedral cells).
What is a distinguishing factor in the histologic identification of neoplastic thecal or luteal cells?
intracytoplasmic lipid
All of the following apply to ovarian papillary cystadenomas and adenocarcinomas except:
A. They occur most commonly in the dog
B. They are not hormonally responsive
C. They are frequently bilateral
D. They cause ascites from lymphatic obstruction
E. They are distinguised from sex cord stromal tumors by Cytokeratin 7 immunopositivity
B. These tumors have been induced by diethylstilbesterol in dogs and are responsive to estrogenic stimulation. They occur most commonly in the dog, and can be present along with a sex-cord stromal tumor making identification with CK7 by IHC an important diagnostic feature. These are frequently bilateral and cause ascites through lymphatic obstruction by permeating tumor fragments.
The dysgerminoma is the female homolog to what tumor in the male? What inflammatory cell frequently infiltrates these tumors?
the seminoma in male dogs; lymphocytes
Teratomas should have a minimum of how many germ layers?
2
Teratomas are the result of
A. mitosis
B. meiosis
B. meiosis. Tumors result from XX diploid cells that are homozygous at chromosal loci for which the host is heterozygous
Ovarian hemangiomas occur in what species?
pigs
Hydrosalpinx in cows is most commonly caused by what?
A. inflammation
B. congenital malformations
C. ovarian trauma
C. manual manipulation of the ovary is the most common cause of hydrosalpinx in the cow. Inflammation is more likely to lead to pyosalpinx unless it is chronic and may cause secondary hydrosalpinx from stenosis of the lumen
Uterine prolapse is secondary to all of the following except what process in cattle:
A. prolonged dystocia followed by manual traction
B. retained placenta
C. postparturient hypocalcemia
D. ketosis
D. ketosis does not cause uterine prolapse.
All of the following apply to cystic endometrial hyperplasia except:
A. can be the result of a subclinical infection
B. can result from sex cord stromal tumors
C. can involve only a few glands
D. can involve the entire endometrium
E. rarely lead to true pyometra
E. Cystic endometrial hyperplasia-pyometra syndrome is a common phenomenon because of their linkage, with one leading to the other and vice versa.
What hormone is responsible for cystic endometrial hyperplasia in dogs and cats? What hormone primes the endometrial cells for sensitivity to the hormone that drives CEH?
progesterone; estrogen primes the endometrial cells by upregulating receptors for progesterone
Segmental endometrial hyperplasia is a component of what disease in dogs and is the result of what? What is the former term for this type of reaction?
pseudoplacentational endometrial hyperplasia; sterile substances within the uterus during the luteal phase of the estrus cycle; deciduoma
What are features of pseudoplacentational endometrial hyperplasia on histology?
polypoid mass attached to the endometrium; superficial endometrium is necrotic; endometrium organized into three distinct layers; no fetal tissues identified
What active metabolite of phytoestrogens is the cause of infertility in sheep consuming legumes? What plants are most known for causing sheep infertility due to estrogenic compounds converted in the rumen?
equol; Trifolium (clover) and Medicago (alfalfa) spp. The phytoestrogen in clover is isoflavone and the phytoestrogen in alfalfa is coumestan. Formononetin is an isoflavone which is converted to equol in the rumen.
A common sequela of phytoestrogens in ewes is all of the following except:
A. uterine prolapse
B. dystocia
C. infertility (“Clover diseaswe”)
D. pseudopregnancy
E. esterogen-induced transdifferentiation
D. pseudopregnancy does not occur with phytoestrogens. The compounds decrease fertility (“Clover disease”) by slowing the rate of sperm by affecting cervical mucus, causing dystocia through reduced myometrial tone at parturition, and causing uterine prolapse in both pregnant and nonpregnant ewes. Estrogen-induced transdifferentiation is a permanent cervical change brought on by chronic ingestion of low levels of phytoestrogens that leads to cervical fold blunting, an increase in the lamina propria and an increase in the glands.
Adenomyosis is defined by this histologic feature? In what condition is it most common?
endometrial glands and stroma between the muscle bundles of the myometrium; CEH in dogs
The uterus is most susceptible to infection during what stage of the estrus cycle?
A. estrus
B. diestrus
C. anestrus
D. proestrus
B. diestrus is when the luteal phase (most progesterone) occurs and when the uterus is most susceptible to infection. (Based on canine cycle)
Taylorella equigenitalis, the causative organism of contagious equine metritis, has all of the following features except:
A. gram negative coccobacillus
B. temporary infertility of the mare
C. endometritis progressing to a reservoir status
D. permanent infertility of the mare
D. the infertility is a temporary infertility, and the mare can be an important reservoir for bacterial infection for several months after the initial 2-3 week period of inflammation resolves.
Viral endometritis in cattle is caused by which organism?
A. Bovine herpesvirus 1
B. Bovine herpesvirus 2
C. Bovine herpesvirus 3
D. Bovine herpesvirus 4
D. Bovine herpesvirus 4 has been reported to cause endometritis in cattle. BoHV1 is IBR, BoHV2 is pseudolumpy skin disease. BoHV3 does not cause disease.
Chronic endometritis is a feature of what reportable disease?
A. BSE
B. TB
C. Screwworm
D. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
B. both miliary (i.e. hematogenous origin) and caseous (i.e. through peritoneal infiltrates into the uterine tubes) tuberculosis may cause chronic endometritis in TB cows
Endometrial pathogens in dogs usually have all of the following uropathogenic virulence factors that allow colonization of the progesterone-primed endometrium except:
A. P fimbriae
B. alpha-hemolysin
C. cytotoxic necrotizing factor 1
D. lipomannan
D. lipomannan is a virulence factor of TB that causes epithelioid macrophages to form into multinucleated giant cells
Pyometra in the mare usually doesn’t result in clinical disease because:
the cervix is normally dilated in the mare in cases of pyometra allowing expulsion of the material from the uterus
What hormone causes lysis of the corpora lutea?
PGF2 alpha released from the endometrium
Equine pregnancy is maintained early by this structure _______ which secretes this hormone ________ and is formed from (maternal/fetal) tissue that burrows into the endometrium and supports the developing fetus hormonally until day ________ when maternal ________ infiltrate and cause coagulative necrosis of the structures. Hormone release causes these structures _________to form that maintain the pregnancy.
endometrial cups; equine chorionic gonadotropin; fetal tissue; day 100; lymphocytes; corpora lutea
A cystic placental mole occurs when?
When the membranes persist and continue to grow but the embro dies and is resorbed.
Adventitial placentation in cattle is the result of what? What is a complication?
inadequate development of placentomes; hydroallantois
Hydramnios is associated with malformation of the _____ while hydroallantois is associated with ____________.
fetus; inadequate #’s of caruncles and development of adventitial placentation
Metaplastic ossification of the placenta is common in what two species?
goats and pigs
Necrotic tips of chorioallantois near the apical tips of the uterine horns are indicative of:
A. excessive amniotic fluid exerting pressure
B. placentitis
C. mummification of the fetus
D. a normal finding in ruminants and pigs
D. these necrotic tips are normal in the ruminant and pigs
All of the following placental changes are common, nonpathologic findings in ruminants except?
A. adventitial placentation
B. necrotic chorioallantoic tips
C. amniotic plaques
D. placental mineral deposits
A. adventitial placentation is a sign of inadequate caruncle formation leading to inadeuate placentome formation
The most common cause of prolonged gestation in cattle is:
fetal anomaly resulting in an abnormal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis
Brucellosis in cattle is most commonly transmitted via:
A. Semen
B. Mucous membrane contact
C. Aerosolization
D. Aborted fetus and placenta contact
D. contact with aborted fetal and placental products as well as contaminated uterine discharge is the most common route of infection. Semen does contain the organism, but chronically infected bulls don’t usually have a large bacterial concentration in the semen. Mucous membrane contact can occur, but is not as common as contaminated fetal products. Infection is alimentary in nature, not via the respiratory tract.
All of the following are features of infection with Brucella abortus except:
A. bacteremia
B. suppurative lymphadenitis
C. concentration in colostrum
D. multiplication in the fetal erythrophagocytic chorionic trophoblast
E. persistent infection in the non-pregnant uterus
E. the organism is cleared from the non-pregnant uterus within a few weeks of parturition. Bacteremia is an important part of B. abortus infection and causes hematogenous spread and localization to target organs. It can occur intermittently throughout the course of disease. Suppurative lymphadenitis occurs early in the disease but is not followed by fibrosis or necrosis. B. abortus is concentrated in colostrum but wanes throughout lactation - milk is an important sourve of infection for calves (who clear it easily) and children. Initial invasion of the fetus is through the erythrophagocytic chorionic trophoblast and then the chorionic villi.
The most important fetal lesion in B. abortus cases is:
A. nephritis
B. pneumonia
C. necrotizing hepatitis
D. suppurative encephalitis
B. pneumonia (bronchitis and bronchopneumonia)
What is an important differential diagnosis for B. abortus based on histologic lesions of suppurative placentitis and pneumonia?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Coxiella
D. T. pyogenes
D. T. pyogenes and B. abortus both produce suppurative placentitis and a mononuclear bronchopneumonia
What is the gross placental lesion of B. abortus?
Moroccan leather appearance of intercotyledonary regions, severe edema, nonuniform necrosis of cotyledons
Which organism tends to remain persistent in the non-pregnant uterus?
A. B. abortus
B. B. suis
C. B. melitensis
B. Brucella suis causes granulomatous endometritis in the nonpregnant uterus of swine
What is the mechanism for transmission of B. suis?
A. Aerosol
B. Semen
C. Infected fetal and placental products
D. Mucous membrane exposure and breaks in the skin
B. Semen is the primary cause of B. suis transmission
Which organism causes articular lesions?
A. B. abortus
B. B. suis
C. B. melitensis
B. B suis causes fibrinopurulen articular lesions mostly in the large joints of the limbs; it has an affinity for the skeleton and also infects the vertebral column where it causes osteomyelitis especially of the epiphyses of the lumbar column
Miliary uterine brucellosis is a term that refers to uterine changes in what species?
pigs; leads to stricture of the uterine tubes
What route of transmission is important in B. ovis?
A. Aerosol
B. Contaminated fetal and placental products
C. Mucous membranes and broken skin
D. Semen
D. Semen is the primary route of transmission as B. ovis causes epididymitis in rams and infected rams excrete large numbers of the organism in the semen.
Spermiostasis as a result of epididymal infection in rams with B. ovis leads to what characteristic finding?
sperm granulomas
Why does the antigen test for B. abortus or B. melitensis not work for B. canis testing?
B. canis is a mucoid variant; it lacks the smooth O antigens found on B. abortus and B. melitensis
B. canis causes what lesions in male dogs?
testicular degeneration and epididymitis
Brucella abortus and B. suis are implicated in what diseases of the equine musculoskeletal bursa?
poll evil and fistulous withers
Why does advancing age of the bull contribute to persistent infection with Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis?
epithelial crypts in the penile mucosa are deeper with advancing age and the organism harbors here as a skin contaminant
What is a clinical feature of infection in cows with C. fetus subsp. venerealis?
temporary sterility; repeat breeding with prolongation of the interestral periods (delayed return to estrus)
What is the main manifestation of infection in sheep and cattle with C. fetus subsp. fetus or C. jejuni?
A. temporary sterility from early embryonic death
B. early term abortion
C. late abortion or premature birth
C. late term abortion and the birth of premature and/or weak lambs is a common feature of infection with these types of Campylobacter. Temporary sterility is found in venereal Campylobacter
What virulence factor is essential for colonization and translocation of C. fetus subsp. fetus to the placenta?
S layer proteins (surface layer proteins)
What histologic feature, when found, is indicative of Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus or C. jejuni infection in an aborted lamb?
multifocal necrotizing hepatitis; grossly looks like a target lesion with a depressed inner area
What organism is a differential diagnosis for Campylobacter in ewes given its similar late term abortion and histologic findings in the placenta and liver?
Flexispira rappini
Listeria causes abortion in what stage of pregnancy?
late term abortion
Severe necrotizing colitis and multifocal necrotizing hepatitis in the fetus are features of abortion from what organism?
Listeria
Which serovar of Leptospirosis cause abortion in cattle most commonly?
serovar hardjo; two species though. L. interrogans serovar hardjo type hardjoprajitno and L. borgpetersenii serovar hardjo type hardjobovis. The latter is the one in North America.
What histologic features are associated with Leptospirosis-induced abortion in fetal tissues?
trophoblast organisms, nonsuppurative meningitis and nephritis
What two Leptospira interrogans serovars are host adapted to swine and are most likely to cause abortion and fetal disease?
pomona and tarassovi; bratislava is associated with infertility without abortions but can also cause them as well as stillbirths and weak piglets
What is the maintenance host of L. interrogans serovar bratislava?
horses
What three serovars are responsible for Leptospira induced abortion in horses?
bratislava, kennewicki and pomona
What lesions are associated with Ureaplasma diversum abortion in cattle?
A. meconium staining of the amnion and allantois
B. nonsuppurative alveolitis in the fetus
C. icterus and patchy hepatic necrosis
D. fibrosis and necrosis of the amnion
B. Amnion changes and nonsuppurative alveolitis are the major findings with Ureaplasma.Icterus and patchy hepatic necrosis are characteristic of Leptospira-induced abortion.
Necrotizing amnionitis is a histologic feature of abortion from what organsim?
A. Salmonella
B. Trueperella
C. Leptospirosis
D. Ureaplasma
D. Ureaplasma
This commensal of the vaginal tract in cattle causes necrotizing placentitis restricted to the cotyledons and rapid autolysis of the fetus:
A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
B. Salmonella enterica ssp. enteric serotype Typhimurium
C. Histophilus somni
C. Histophilus is both a commensal of the vaginal (and preputial) region in cattle, causes a cotyledonary necrotizing placentitis and rapid autolysis of the fetus. Yersinia and Salmonella are both intestinal inhabitants but Yersinia is a cotyledonary type of placentitis.
Chlamydia reticulate bodies are (non-infectious/infectious) while elementary bodies are (non-infectious/infectious).
reticulate bodies are noninfectious and elementary bodies are infectious. (Elementary school children are highly infectious!!!)
Which Chlamydia species are responsible for abortion?
A. C. psittaci, C. abortus and C. trachomatis
B. C. suis, C. pecorum and C. abortus
C. C. abortus, C. pneumoniae and C. pecorum
D. C. abortus, C. psittaci and C. pneumoniae
B. Chlamydia suis, C. pecorum and C. abortus are the chlamydias of abortion. The human pathogens are C. psittaci, C. penumoniae and C. trachomatis.
If a ewe is infected with C. abortus in early gestation, what will happen? What is she is infected in the last part of gestation?
Abortion in late gestions if infected early. Abortion NEXT PREGNANCY if infected in late gestation .
A differential diagnosis for Brucella abortus based on the gross appearance of the placenta with cotyledonary and intercotyledonary edema, thickening and exudate is?
Chlamydia
Which causes of abortion lead to a marked placental vasculitis in sheep?
Chlamydia
Which two organisms are differentials for that found in the image?
A. Chlamydia abortus
B. Trueperella pyogenes
C. Histophilus somni
D. Coxiella burnetii
A and D. This is an image of C. burnettii which are acid-fast and produce microcolonies that distend the trophoblasts. The other differential diagnosis is C. abortus (picture shown here) which are also acid-fast on a modified Ziehl-Neelsen. They tend to have smaller colonies but differentiation requires PCR. Smears of Coxiella placentas should have abundant numbers of organisms.
Mare reproductive loss syndrome is the result of:
A. Pajaroellobacter abortibovis
B. Leptospirosis pomona
C. Migrating caterpillar septae
D. Nocardioform bacteria
E. Actinobacillus equiuli
C. Migrating caterpillar septae migrating from the intestine into the uterus and introducing bacteria is the cause of mare reproductive loss syndrome. The caterpillar is the eastern tent caterpiller. A. is the cause of foothills abortion. B is one of the serotypes responsible for abortion in horses. Nocardioform bacteria such as Crossiella equi, Streptomyces and Amycolatopsis are three gram positive, filamentous bacteria that sporadically cause abortion in horses. A. equuli is a common cause of periparturient infection and neonatal death in foals.
Where do most equine placental lesions start from?
A. chorionic villi
B. cervical star
C. endometrium
B. cervical star
Mycotic placentitis in mares occurs from what source? In cattle what is the source?
Ascending infection; hematogenous
Foothills abortion, otherwise known as Epizootic bovine abortion, is caused by what? What is the route of transmission?
A. Flexispira rappini; hematogenous
B. Nocardia spp.; ascending
C. Pajaroellobacter abortibovis; tick-borne
D. Chlamydia pecorum; oral ingestion
C. Pajaroellobacter abortibovis; tick-borne. Caused by the pajaroello tick (Ornithodoros coriaceus), a soft-bodied tick that lives in California, Mexico, Nevada and Oregon. The bacteria was previously classified as just a “novel deltaproteobacterium” but has since been named. Abortion is dependent on infection prior to immune competence by the fetus, about 7-8 months of age.
What is a characteristic feature of abortion from P. abortibovis?
A. ascites, histiocytic thymic inflammation and multifocal lymphoid hyperplasia
B. hepatic and splenic necrosis
C. no fetal lesions with marked cotyledonary placentitis
A. ascites, histiocytic thymic inflammation and multifocal lymphoid hyperplasia. These are inconstant but when present are very characteristic for P. abortibovis. Placentitis is usually mild if present at all, and is a distinguishing feature of this disease.
Cotyledonary hemorrhage, necrosis and mineral are common with what abortifacient organism?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Pajaroellobacter abortibovis
C. Chlamydia abortus
A. mineral is a common feature of T. gondii. Hemorrhage and necrosis think toxoplasmosis.
Balanoposthitis, cervicitis, endometritis and repeat breeding are all common in infection with what organism?
A. Leptospira interrogans serovar hardjo
B. Brucella abortus
C. Tritrichomonas foetus
D. Campylobacter venerealis
C. Tritrichomonas foetus causes balanoposthitis, cervicitis, endometritis and repeat breeding. C. venerealis also causes repeat breeding, but cervicitis is not common. Although the organism lives in the preputial crypts like T. foetus there are no pathologic effects for the bull in C. venerealis cases.
Abortion and neonatal death in PRRSV-infected pigs is dependent on:
a. secondary bacterial infection
b. the strain of PRRSV
c. stage of gestation when infected
d. all of the above
d. all of the above are factors in when, how and whether a pig aborts or piglets die
Persistently infected calves of BVDV occur as a result of:
A. infection with noncytopathic BVDV
B. infections with cytopathic BVDV
C. infection with either noncytopathic or cytopathic BVDV
D. antibody response to the strain they are exposed to
A. only the noncytopathic form of BVDV causes PI calves. The cytopathic form can co-exist but requires the presence of the noncytopathic form within the fetus first.
Infection with BVDV of either biotype during the period of 80-150 days of gestation causes:
A. PI calves
B. fetal death
C. fetal malformations
C. fetal malformation, which may lead to fetal death depending on the malformation, occur between 80-150 days of gestation and occur from either biotype. Only the noncytopathic biotype will cause PI calves.
Thymic cortical atrophy is a feature of infection from what virus?
BVDV
Hypomyelination associated with Border Disease Virus in congenitally infected sheep most likely occurs from:
a. cytopathic effects of the virus for oligodendrocytes
b. inflammatory infilrates
c. hormonal deficiencies in thyroid hormone
c. hormonal deficiencies in thyroid hormone. Oligodendrocytes are not targets for BDV and inflammation is not a feature of BDV. Hormonal control of myelination is via thyroid hormone.
Infection with Wesselsbron virus leads to:
a. copper toxicosis
b. Councilman bodies in the liver
c. intranuclear inclusion bodies of varying morphology
d. all of the above
d. all of the above are consequences of infection with WESSV. The virus is found in Africa, infects cattle and sheep and has a low mortality. Copper toxicosis can occur secondary to hepatocyte necrosis in lambs and calves which is either mild or severe. Councilman bodies are necrotic, shrunken hepatocytes with eosinophilic cytoplasm and pynotic nuclei usually surrounded by unaffected or less affected hepatocytes. Inclusions can vary.
Bovine bocavirus is a:
A. enterovirus
B. flavivirus
C. arterivirus
D. parvovirus
D. parvovirus
Match the organism to its transmitting factor:
A. Pajaroellobacter abortibovis 1. Culex
B. Wesselsbron virus 2. Culicoides
C. Bluetongue virus 3. Ornithodoros coriaceus
D. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
A-3. B-1. C-2. D-2.
Petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhages in the kidneys of a newborn puppy less than 2 weeks of age is most indicative of what etiology? What histologic feature would you find in multiple organs?
Canid herpes virus 1; necrosis and intranuclear inclusion bodies.
Inclusion body rhinitis in pigs refers to infection with what organism? What is the clinical picture in neonates caused by this disease? What is the clinical picture in pregnant sows caused by this disease?
Suid herpesvirus 2 or swine cytomegalovirus; neonatal nonsuppurative rhinitis; abortion, stillbirth, mummies, delayed gestation, weak piglets. Reduced fertility with subsequent litters.
A differential for abortion caused by suid herpes virus 2 would be?
porcine parvovirus, both cause piglets to decompose in utero, mummies, etc in various stages.
Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis virus is a:
A. variant of Bovine Herpesvirus 2
B. varian of Bovine Herpesvirus 1
C. variant of Bovine Herpesvirus 4
B. IPVV is a variant of BoHV-1 and is closely related to IBR and the neuropathogenic strain of BoHV-1. BoHV-2 causes pseudolumpy skin disease and bovine mammillitis. BoHV-4 is a bovine cytomegalovirus that also causes abortion in cattle.
The disease “epivag” is associated with infection by which organism?
A. Suidherpes 1
B. Bovine herpes 4
C. Equine herpes 5
D. Bovine herpes 1
B. Bovine herpesvirus 4, or bovine cytomegalovirus AKA Movar virus, causes the disease “epivag” which refers to vaginitis, salpingitis with hydrosalpinx, oophoritis with bursal adhesions, and epididymitis. It also causes abortion, but is frequently isolated with other organisms that also cause abortion. It is only transmitted by coitus.
A common gross necropsy lesion in the foal aborted due to Equine herpes virus 1 infection is?
severe pulmonary edema
Name 3 Bunyaviruses that yield similar lesions in fetuses. Which ones are in the U.S.?
Cache valley fever, Schmallenberg virus, Akabane virus, Rift valley fever, Aino virus. Cache valley fever is in the U.S..
Subinvolution of placental sites in dogs is characterized clinically by bleeding for longer than:
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days.
C. 10 days is when most dogs should have finished with post-whelping bleeding, and anything longer than this should be a clue for SIPS. Dogs can bleed for weeks or months and become anemic.
Tissue from a dog. What is the gross lesion and name the disease.
ellipsoidal enlargements (hemorrhagic, thickened regions) of the uterine horn located in areas of prevous placental attachment found in subinvolution of placental sites.
Gartner’s ducts are remnants of what? Where are they commonly found?
mesonephric ducts (Wolffian ducts). On either side of the floor of the vaginal wall beneath the epithelium.
Most likely cause?
This is vulvar swelling from the estrogenic effects of myocotoxin, specifically zearalenone or F-2, which is produced by Fusarium spp. The most common Fusarium to cause this is F. graminearum. Sows and dogs are the most common species to have estrogen-related vulvar swelling.
Tissue from a cow. What of the below are not assocated with this lesion?
A. Ureaplasma diversum infection
B. Hyperplastic lymphoid follicles
C. Chronic nonspecific inflammation
D. Mycotoxin exposure
D. Mycotoxin exposure does not cause granular vulvitis in cattle, which this is. Granular vulvitis is a nonspecific finding that occurs from chronic inflammation of multiple causes. Ureaplasma has been experimentally shown to induce the papules, howevere. The papules are composed of hyperplastic lymphoid follicles but can coalesce rupture and bleed with secondary infections. The papules are restricted to the vulva, not the vagina or the cervix which distinguishes it from other infectious causes such as IPPV or Epivag from BoHV-4.
Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis and equine coital exanthema are similar diseases in that they:
are both caused by herpes viruses. BoHV-1 (IPVV) and EHV-3 (ECE).
Which of the following are features of infectious pustular vulvovaginitis:
A. vesicles
B. spread only through coitus
C. balloon degeneration of epithelium with intranuclear inclusions
D. lifelong immunity once infected
C. balloon degeneration of vulvar and vaginal epithelium with intranuclear inclusions are a common diagnostic feature. The disease does not have true vesicle or true pustules despite the name. It is spread through coitus, mechanical means and close contact among cows (HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS), and results in only limited, transient immunity.
Contageious equine metritis is caused by:
A. Streptococcus equi var. zooepidemicus
B. Trypanosoma equiperdum
C. Equine herpesvirus 3
D. Taylorella equigenitalis
D. Taylorella equigenitalis causes contagious equine metritis which results in a mucopurulent discharge from the vulva for several weeks. The organism lives in the CLITORAL FOSSA and causes NO GROSS LESIONS IN THE VULVA. The mare becomes infertile. The disease is an equine STD, transmitted only by stallions and mares.
Trypanosoma equiperdum causes dourine in horses, another equine STD. EHV-3 causes equine coital exanthema which is similar to infectious pustular vulvovaginitis in cattle. S. equi zooepidemicus is a cause of endometritis in horses.
How does the cause of dourine differ from other trypanosomiases?
Trypanosoma equiperdum is transmitted by contact with infected mucous membranes between stallions and breeding mares. It is not transmitted by biting insects, there is not the presence of the organisms in high numbers in the bloodstream but it is found in high numbers in vaginal discharge after infection.
The four manifestations of clinical dourine are:
cutaneous, genital, nervous and generalized
The genital form of dourine that is characteristic for the disease frequently involves:
A. ulceration leading to depigmented scars of the genital mucosa
B. vesicles on the vulva and glans penis
C. neoplastic transformation of infected tissue
A. ulcers that form on the male and female genitalia are frequently depigmented and undergo scar atrophy which is characteristic of the disease. The stallion also has penile prolapse.
