exam practice mistakes(first semester )

Question 1

Which antiplatelet medication is commonly used in ACS to prevent further thrombus formation?
a) Warfarin
b) Aspirin
c) Clopidogrel
d) Heparin

Answer 1

B

Question 2

What is the initial pharmacological treatment strategy for a patient with ACS upon presentation to the emergency department?
a) Beta-blockers
b) Thrombolytics
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Nitroglycerin and antiplatelet therapy

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which cardiac biomarker is considered a sensitive indicator for myocardial injury in the early stages of ACS?
a) Troponin
b) Myoglobin
c) Creatine kinase (CK)
d) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which hormone is produced by the pineal gland and regulates sleep-wake cycles?
a) Melatonin
b) Serotonin
c) Dopamine
d) Endorphin

Answer 4

A

Question 5

What is the primary function of the adrenal cortex?
a) Producing adrenaline
b) Regulating metabolism
c) Maintaining electrolyte balance
d) Controlling growth hormone

Answer 5

C

Question 6

Calcitonin is produced by which gland?
a) Thyroid
b) Parathyroid
c) Adrenal cortex
d) Pancreas

Answer 6

A

Question 7

The adrenal medulla primarily produces:
a) Cortisol
b) Aldosterone
c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
d) Insulin

Answer 7

C

Question 8

Which hormone plays a key role in the body’s response to inflammation and stress?
a) Cortisol
b) Insulin
c) Adrenaline
d) Thyroxine

Answer 8

A

Question 9

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the release of milk from the mammary glands during breastfeeding?
a) Oxytocin
b) Prolactin
c) Estrogen
d) Progesterone

Answer 9

A

Question 10

which hormone stimulates milk production, and which stimulates milk secretion/ release during breastfeeding

Answer 10

prolactin
oxytocin

Question 11

The condition characterized by excess production of cortisol, often due to a tumor in the adrenal glands, is known as:
a) Cushing’s syndrome
b) Addison’s disease
c) Graves’ disease
d) Hypothyroidism

Answer 11

A

Question 12

During which phase of the cell cycle do Cyclin E-CDK2 complexes become active?
a) G1 phase
b) S phase
c) G2 phase
d) M phase

Answer 12

A

Question 13

Which CDK is associated with the regulation of both the G1/S and G2/M transitions?
a) CDK1
b) CDK2
c) CDK4
d) CDK6

Answer 13

A

Question 14

Which CDK inhibitor is known to inhibit Cyclin A-CDK2 complexes?
a) p16
b) p21
c) p27
d) p53

Answer 14

a

Question 15

During the M phase, which cyclin-CDK complex is crucial for entry into mitosis?
a) Cyclin A-CDK2
b) Cyclin B-CDK1
c) Cyclin D-CDK4/6
d) Cyclin E-CDK2

Answer 15

B

Question 16

What is the role of the Anaphase-Promoting Complex (APC) during the cell cycle?
a) Initiating DNA synthesis
b) Regulating G1 to S phase transition
c) Inducing mitosis
d) Controlling protein degradation

Answer 16

D

Question 17

Which CKI is known to inhibit multiple Cyclin-CDK complexes and is often associated with tumor suppression?
a) p16
b) p21
c) p27
d) p53

Answer 17

C

Question 18

Which of the following events is controlled by Cyclin B-CDK1 complexes during mitosis?
a) DNA replication
b) Chromosome condensation
c) G1 to S phase transition
d) G2 to M phase transition

Answer 18

B

Question 19

In response to DNA damage, which protein activates p53, leading to cell cycle arrest?
a) ATM kinase
b) Cyclin D
c) CDK2
d) APC complex

Answer 19

A

Question 20

Which pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are found on the surface of macrophages and recognize bacterial components?
a) Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
b) NOD-like receptors (NLRs)
c) RIG-I-like receptors (RLRs)
d) Scavenger receptors

Answer 20

A

Question 21

Which class of antibodies is the first to be produced during an initial immune response and isotype switching?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgM
d) IgG

Answer 21

c

Question 22

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE antibodies and mast cells?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV

Answer 22

A

Question 23

Which complement pathway is activated by antibody-antigen complexes?
a) Classical pathway
b) Alternative pathway
c) Lectin pathway
d) Opsonization pathway

Answer 23

A

Question 24

Which cells play a crucial role in presenting antigens to CD8+ T cells during viral infections?
a) Macrophages
b) B cells
c) Dendritic cells
d) Natural killer cells

Answer 24

c

Question 25

What is the main function of eosinophils in the immune system?
a) Phagocytosis of pathogens
b) Killing infected cells
c) Defense against parasites
d) Antibody production

Answer 25

c

Question 26

Which type of phagocytic cell is specialized in the clearance of cellular debris and apoptotic cells?
a) Neutrophils
b) Macrophages
c) Dendritic cells
d) Natural killer cells

Answer 26

b

Question 27

During T cell development, positive selection ensures that T cells recognize:
a) Self-antigens
b) Foreign antigens
c) MHC molecules
d) Complement protein

Answer 27

C

Question 28

Which complement pathway is activated by microbial surfaces lacking complement inhibitors?
a) Classical pathway
b) Alternative pathway
c) Lectin pathway
d) Opsonization pathwa

Answer 28

B

Question 29

Which hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by delayed onset and involves T cell-mediated responses?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV

Answer 29

D

Question 30

In which immunodeficiency disorder is there a deficiency of immunoglobulins, particularly IgG?
a) X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)
b) DiGeorge syndrome
c) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
d) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

Answer 30

D

Question 31

Which type of antigen-presenting cell is specialized in presenting antigens to helper T cells in lymph nodes?
a) Macrophages
b) B cells
c) Dendritic cells
d) Eosinophils

Answer 31

c

Question 32

Which viral infection is known for its ability to suppress the immune response by infecting helper T cells?
a) Hepatitis C
b) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
c) Influenza
d) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Answer 32

c

Question 33

Which autoimmune disorder is characterized by the destruction of the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
d) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Answer 33

b