Exam One - Spinal Cord Flashcards

1
Q

What can damage to the spinal cord lead to?

A

altered sensation and loss of motor function

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2
Q

What are the 3 layers of the developing spinal cord?

A

Ependymal
Mantle
Marginal

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3
Q

What is the significance of the ependymal layer?

A

lines the central canal

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4
Q

What is the significance of the mantle layer?

A

In the grey matter
Alar plate: sensory
Basal plate: motor

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5
Q

Why is the sulcus limitans important?

A

separates the alar and basal plate in the mantle layer

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6
Q

What is the significance of the marginal layer?

A

white matter of the developing spinal cord

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7
Q

At what point in development does the sulcus limitans form?

A

4th week

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8
Q

Is alar plate sensory or motor? anterior or posterior horn?

A

sensory, posterior horn

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9
Q

Is basal plate sensory or motor? anterior or posterior horn?

A

motor, anterior horn

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10
Q

The SC develops from the _______ portion of the neural tube

A

caudal

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11
Q

Rachischisis

A
  • the posterior neuropore fails to close by embryonic day 27
  • undifferentiated neuroectoderm remains exposed
  • accompanies cranial neural tube defects such as anencephaly, acrania, and myleomeningocele
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12
Q

Rachischisis is the more severe subtype of ______________

A

spina bifida cycstica

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13
Q

Where is the origin of the spinal cord?

A

foramen magnum

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14
Q

What level is considered the end of the spinal cord?

A

L1-L2

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15
Q

True or False? The spinal cord has no clear anatomical segmentation but a strong functional segmentation

A

True

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16
Q

Where do spinal nerves exit the vertebral column?

A

Through the intervertebral foramina

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17
Q

What is the last section of the sacral spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

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18
Q

What is the area beneath the conus medullaris called?

A

cauda equina

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19
Q

How many spinal cord segments are there?

A

31 total

8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal

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20
Q

True or False? Each pain of nerves exits the vertebral column at the level with which it lined up at birth

A

True

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21
Q

At what point in utero does the spinal cord and vertebral column have roughly the same length and the lower spinal nerves are directly opposite their respective intervertebral foramina?

A

12 weeks

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22
Q

C4 dermatome

A

shoulders

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23
Q

C5 derm

A

lateral upper arm

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24
Q

C6 derm

A

radial forearm, thumb

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25
Q

C7 derm

A

Middle finger

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26
Q

C8

A

ulnar, hand, little finger

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27
Q

T4

A

nipple

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28
Q

T10

A

umbilicus

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29
Q

L1

A

groin

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30
Q

L3

A

knee

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31
Q

L5

A

dorsal foot, big toe

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32
Q

S1

A

lateral foot, heel

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33
Q

S3-5

A

Genito-anal region

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34
Q

What level of the spinal cord has the thickest white matter? Grey matter?

A

White - cervical
Grey - sacral

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35
Q

Why does the cervical level have the most white matter?

A

most ascending fibers have already entered SC but most descending fibers have not yet exited the cord

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36
Q

Which level of SC has the least amount of grey matter?

A

thoracic

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37
Q

What is special about the thoracic level of SC?

A

has a lateral horn that contained intermediolateral cell columns at T1-2, mediates the entire sympathetic innervation to the body

38
Q

Where are the two spinal cord enlargements?

A

cervical C4-T1 for arms
lumbar L1-3 for legs

39
Q

grey matter: axons or soma?

A

soma

40
Q

white matter: axon or soma?

A

axon

41
Q

SC white matter 3 main divisions

A

posterior funiculus
lateral funiculus
anterior funiculus

42
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the posterior funiculus in the cervical portion of the SC

A

gracile fasciculus (more medial)
cuneate fasciculus (more lateral)

43
Q

gracile fasciculus

A

transmits information from the lower part of the body

44
Q

cuneate fasciculus

A

transmits information from the upper part of the body

45
Q

Lateral funiculus contains:

A

1 - lateral corticospinal tract (m)
2 - anterolateral system (s) (important for pain)

46
Q

Anterior funiculus contains

A

reticulospinal, vestibulospinal, anterior corticospinal (m( and medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)

47
Q

Anterior white commissure

A

fibers that cross the midline of the SC and transmit information from or to the contralateral side of the brain

48
Q

What are the 3 zones of the SC grey matter

A

posterior zone
anterior zone
intermediate (lateral) zone

49
Q

purpose of the posterior grey zone in SC

A

involved in sensory processing

50
Q

purposes of the anterior grey zone in SC

A

contains the soma of lower motor neurons
(alpha-motor multipolar neurons)

51
Q

purpose of the intermediate (lateral) grey zone in SC

A

contains the preganglionic sympathetic (thoracolumbar) and parasympathetic (sacral) neurons

52
Q

nuclei of the dorsal zone grey matter

A
  • nucleus posterior marginalis
  • substantia gelatinosa
  • nucleus proprius of post horn
53
Q

nuclei of the intermediate zone of grey matter

A
  • clarke’s nucelus (C8-L3 most prominent in low thoracic/lumbar segments. projects fibers into cerebellum)
  • intermediolateral cell column (lateral horn, T2-L2, preganglionic sympathetic neurons)
  • interomediomedial cell column (sacral levels S2-4, preganglionic parasympathetic neurons)
54
Q

Lamina 1 associated with

A

nucleus posteromarginalis

55
Q

lamina 2 associated with

A

substantia gelatinosa

56
Q

lamina 3-6 associated with

A

nucleus proprius

57
Q

lamina 7 associated with

A

nucleus proprius and clarke’s nucelus

58
Q

lamina 8 associated with

A

intermediolateral and small interneurons of the ventral horn

59
Q

lamina 9 associated with

A
60
Q

lamina 10 associated with

A
61
Q

Which laminae respond to pain?

A

laminae 1-5

62
Q

what kind of pain information does laminae 1-2 receive?

A

receive information from alpha delta and C fibers
pain, thermal, and visceral stimuli

63
Q

What kind of pain information does laminae 3-4 receive?

A

main targets of the large myelinated sensory alpha beta fibers from mechanoreceptors

64
Q

What kind of pain information does laminae 5 receive?

A

respond to alpha beta and alpha delta (both painful and non-painful stimuli)

65
Q

list nerve fiber types from most to least myelinated

A

alpha alpha
alpha beta
alpha delta (thin myelin)
c (unmyelinated/slowest conduction rate)

66
Q

ventral horn is home to…

A

alpha motor neurons!

67
Q

ventral horn contains

A

soma of motor neurons that send their axons out of SC via the ventral roots to innervate and control striated muscles

68
Q

explain organization of ventral horn in regards to flexors, extensors, proximal, and distal

A

most anterior - extensors
most posterior - flexors
most medial - proximal/axial muscles
most lateral - distal muscles

all have some overlap in ventral horn except the flexors and extensors

69
Q

ascending fiber tracts of the SC

A

dorsal: gracile and cuneate fasciculus
spinocerebellar tracts: ant/post
anterolateral system (ALS)

70
Q

descending fiber tracts of the SC

A

lateral funiculus: lateral corticospinal, rubrospinal
anterior funiculus: medial reticulospinal, lateral vestibulospinal, anterior corticospinal, medial longitudinal fasciclus (MLF)

71
Q

other fiber tracts…

A

ventral white commissure - connects left and right
posterolateral tract - small strand of fibers carrying pain and temp information. fibers ascend/descend 1-2 segments before entering gray matter

72
Q

intrinsic tracts

A

fasciculus proprius (propriospinal)
- projects from one spinal level to another
- distributed in all 3 funiculi
role:
- integration of activity b/t R/L SC
- spinal cord functions as an integrated unit

73
Q

hallmark signs of PN disorders:

A
  • sensory impairment
  • hyporeflexia
  • weakness or flaccid paralysis
  • hypotonus
  • loss of autonomic functions (sweating, vasoconstriction/dilation, pilo-erection)
74
Q

dermatome vs cutaneous fields

A

dermatome - an area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve
cutaneous fields - an area of skin supplied by a specific peripheral sensory nerve

75
Q

radiculopathy

A
  • damage to nerve root
  • DDD most common cause
  • compression of single root may not cause significant sensory loss b/c overlap
  • main symptoms: sharp, burning pain in dermatomal distribution of the spinal nerve
76
Q

mononeuropathy

A
  • deficits relect the distribution of a single anatomically defined peripheral nerve
  • trauma is most common cause
77
Q

What are the two major sources of blood supply to the spinal cord?

A
  • branches of vertebral arteries: post/ant spinal arteries (& PICA)
  • branches of segmental arteries: radicular arteries
78
Q

What segmental branches supply the spinal cord?

A
  • intercostal arteries in thorax
  • lumbar arteries abdomen
  • iliolumbar/lateral sacral in the pelvis
79
Q

What branch supplies the ventral 2/3rd of the spinal cord?

A

ASA

80
Q

ASA damage would be associated with _______ damage

A

motor

81
Q

PSA damage would be associated with __________ deficits

A

sensory

82
Q

What can damage the ASA?

A

Hyperextension

83
Q

What symptoms are present if the ASA is occluded due to hyperextension?

A
  • bilateral weakness arms, forearms, and hands
  • patchy loss of sensation below the level of lesion
84
Q

Syringomyelia

A
  • cavitation that develops in central regions of SC and frequently affects anterior white commissure
  • results in loss of pain and thermal sensation and muscle weakness that correlates with the damage level of SC
85
Q

What is cauda equina?

A

nerve root involvement due to trauma, compression due to disc herniation or spinal stenosis, inflammation

86
Q

What are symptoms of cauda equina?

A
  • single or multi root involvement
  • bilateral or unilateral
  • low back pain, sciatica, loss/decrease in sensation, decreased muscle reflexes, bladder and bowel impairment, numbness in groin/perineum
87
Q

cervical spondylosis

A

chronic compression of the SC and its associated spinal nerve roots

88
Q

what is cervical spondylosis caused by

A

-intervertebral disc extrusion
- osteophytic outgrowth

89
Q

what does cervical spondylosis result in?

A
  • encroachment on the spinal cord
    -ischemia
  • symptoms with neck movement
90
Q

What are symptoms of cervical spondylosis

A
  • painful/stiff neck
  • arm pain and numb hands
  • spastic lower extremities with unsteady gait
  • paresthaesias (burning/prickling sensation) of distal limbs and trunk