EXAM 4 Sexually Transmitted Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

what are the common bacterial STDs?

A

gonorrhea, syphillis, chlamydia

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2
Q

what is the common protozoan STD microbe?

A

trichomonas vaginalis

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3
Q

what are the common arthropod microbes responsible for STDs?

A

lice and scabies

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4
Q

what are the common viral causes of STDs?

A

HIV, HPV, and HSV

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5
Q

what are some common syndromes of STDs?

A

urethritis, cervicitis, genital ulcer, epididymitis, proctitis, vaginitis, pelvic inflammatory disease

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6
Q

which STDs are transmitted sexually?

A

gonorrhea, chlamydia, and symphilis

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7
Q

people with which symptoms should be screened/tested for STDs?

A

urethritis/cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, genital ulcers, warts

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8
Q

T or F:

annual testing and licensing is mandatory for persons employed in a sexually oriented business (escorts, dancers, etc)

A

true

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9
Q

people who are concerned about ___ or ___ should be screened/tested for STDs

A

exposure to STDs and/or their sexual partner(s)

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10
Q

describe history in the evaluation of patients for STDs

A
  • contact to another person with proven STD
  • STD related symptoms
  • sex practices
    • number of partners, sexual orientation (MSM, male heterosexuals, female heterosexuals, WSW)
  • condom use
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11
Q

treatment of STDs is often ___

A

empiric

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12
Q

describe the examination in the evaluation of patients for STDs

A
  • penis, groin, testicles, perianal area in males
  • pelvic exam in women
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13
Q

how is urethritis in men defined?

A
  • visible drip from the penis or
  • WBCs seen on a urethral gram stain
    • usually accompanied by dysuria
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14
Q

how is cervicitis in women defined?

A
  • vaginal discharge or
  • friable cervix on exam
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15
Q

T or F:

asymptomatic infections are uncommon in both sexes

A

false

they are common

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16
Q

what are the two most common symptoms of STDs?

A

urethritis (males) and cervicitis (females)

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17
Q

what are the causes of urethritis and cervicitis?

A
  • nongonococcal or nonspecific urethritis
    • chlamydia -50%
    • mycoplasma genitalium -10-20%
    • ureaplasma urealyticum
    • herpes simplex viruses
    • unknown agents
  • gonococcal (neisseria gonorrhea)
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18
Q

in utah, chlamydia cases are found in what major population?

A

women who are young and live in more urban areas

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19
Q

what is the most common reportable STD in utah?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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20
Q

what are the 4 most reportable STDs in utah?

A

chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, HIV

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21
Q

what is the empiric treatment of nongonococcal urethritis?

A
  • CDC recommended
    • azithromycin 1000mg po x1 day
      • preferred regimen due to compliance issues
    • doxycycline 100mg BID x7 days
      • watch for photosensitivity
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22
Q

the following is the epidemiology of which bacteria?

association with disease: urethritis, cervicitis, endometritis, and pelvic inflammatory disease

association with adverse reproductive health outcomes unclear

A

mycoplasma genitalium

23
Q

what is the treatment for infections caused by mycoplasma genitalium?

A
  • azithromycin 1g is often effective (failure rate 40%)
  • doxycycline ineffective, <40%
  • moxifloxacin 400mg daily x7 days is an expensive alternative that works
24
Q

how is gonorrhea diagnosed in males?

A
  • urethral gram stain
  • nucleic acid amplification testing of
    • urine, urethral swab or discharge, oral swab, rectal swab
25
Q

how is gonorrhea diagnosed in females?

A
  • nucleic acid amplification testing of
    • urine, cervical swab, vaginal swab (including self tests), oral swab, rectal swab
26
Q

how is gonorrhea treated?

A
  • ceftriaxone 250mg IM
    • genital GC, pharyngeal GC
  • alternatives
    • azithromycin 2000mg po single dose for severe beta lactam allergy
27
Q

describe the population mostly affected by gonorrhea in utah

A

men of all sexual orientations who are young and live in more urban counties

28
Q

what are some issues with the treatment of gonorrhea?

A
  • quinolones are not recommended due to bacterial resistance
  • treat all GC-positive patients for nongonococcal urethritis, regardless of nucleic acid amplification testing results
    • current NAAT tests do not include mycoplasma or ureaplasma spp.
29
Q

describe pelvic inflammatory disease

A
  • vaginal discharge +
  • clinical criteria (any of 3)
    • cervical motion tenderness
    • uterine tenderness
    • adnexal tenderness
30
Q

is pelvic inflammatory disease commonly undiagnosed?

A
  • yes
  • many cases are missed and go untreated often with serious consequences
  • missed cases are often because the physician either doesn’t do a pelvic exam or doesn’t know the criteria for diagnosing PID
31
Q

how is bacterial vaginosis diagnosed?

A
  • white vaginal discharge
  • presence of clue cells
  • pH > 4.5
  • fishy odor with KOH
32
Q

what is the treatment of bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • metronidazole po 500mg BID x7 days
  • metronidazole gel
  • clindamycin cream
33
Q

the prevalence of trichomonas vaginalis is associated with ___ transmission

A

HIV

34
Q

which population should be screened for trichomonas vaginalis?

A

women in STD clinics and other settings by risk

35
Q

what is the trichomonas vaginalis screening rationale based on? what are some concerns about screening?

A
  • based on high prevalence, availability of NAAT
  • concerns: no evidence that screening and treatment improve health outcomes, and expense
36
Q

what are the symptoms of genital herpes

A
  • bumps or blisters
  • dysuria
  • vaginitis
37
Q

how is genital herpes diagnosed?

A
  • PCR with isotyping as HSV1 or HSV2
  • serology - type-specific for HSV1 and HSV2
38
Q

can you get HSV1 (oral herpes) genital disease?

A

yes

39
Q

can you get HSV2 (genital herpes) cold sores?

A

yes

40
Q

describe the episodic treatment of genital herpes recurrences

A
  • episodic treatment (treat outbreaks)
    • acyclovir 400mg TID x5 days
    • acyclovir 800mg BID x5 days
    • acyclovir 800mg TID x2 days
    • valacyclovir 500mg BID x3 days
    • valacyclovir 1000mg daily x5 days
41
Q

describe the prophylactic treatment of genital herpes recurrences

A
  • prophylactic treatment (prevent recurrences)
    • acyclovir 400mg BID works well
    • valacyclovir 500-1000mg daily
42
Q

describe how antivirals reduce transmission of genital herpes

A
  • 1500 heterosexuals monogamous discordant couples
  • the infected partner received daily valacyclovir or placebo suppression
  • 8 months follow-up
43
Q

which bacteria causes syphilis?

A

treponema pallidum

44
Q

what is the epidemiology of syphilis?

A

most recent cases are in MSM patients, many of whom are HIV+

45
Q

describe the diagnosis of syphilis

A
  • unculturable agent
  • screening - syphilis IgG ELISA, RPR for staging
46
Q

in suspected primary syphilis, why is empiric treatment indicated?

A

serology is positive only in about 50% of cases

47
Q

what should a physician do if secondary syphilis is suspected?

A
  • confirm with syphilis IgG
  • staging with RPR
  • *secondary syphilis will have rashes on the palms of the hands and other areas of the skin
48
Q

are primary and secondary syphilis contagious?

A

yes

49
Q

describe the treatment of early syphilis

A
  • primary and secondary disease
  • benzathine PCN 2.4M units IM x1
50
Q

describe the treatment of latent syphlis

A
  • early <1yr - benzathine PCN 2.4M units IM x1
  • late or unknown duration - benzathine PCN 2.4M units IM q week x3
  • follow up RPR at 6, 12, 24 months
51
Q

what are genital warts caused by?

A

human papilloma virus

52
Q

what are the treatments for genital warts?

A
  • liquid nitrogen
  • trichloracetic acid
  • podofilox topical
  • surgery, cautery
53
Q

who should be vaccinated against HPV?

A

girls and boys

quadrivalent vaccine