EXAM 3 Pediatric Infections Flashcards

1
Q

describe sepsis

A
  • severe infection
  • systemic inflammatory response
  • multiple organ dysfunction
  • vasodilation
  • leukocyte accumulation
  • increased microvascular permeability
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2
Q

what is the relationship between infection, SIRS, sepsis, severe sepsis, and septic shock?

A
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3
Q

what is the definition of SIRS in kids?

A
  • core temp >38.5 or <36*C
  • tachycardia (>2 SD above normal for age) or bradycardia (<10th percentile for age)
  • mean respiratory rate >2 SD above normal for age
  • high or low WBC, or >10% immature neutrophils
  • *you do not measure BP in children to diagnose SIRS*
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4
Q

which f the following makes neonates more susceptible to infections?

A) less IgG production

B) declining maternal IgG

C) less cytokine production

D) decreased function of neutrophils

A

all of these

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5
Q

in infants, there is a lot of change in their immune system during the first ___ months of life

A

3

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6
Q

T and B cells are present in utero, but they have to co-exist with ___

A

manternal immune system

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7
Q

the number of T lymphocytes are similar/increased in infants, but the ___ is different

A

function

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8
Q

describe how the function of lymphocytes in infants is different than in adults

A
  • anti-inflammatory cytokine production (T cells) diminished
  • immunoglobulin synthesis (B cells) is less
  • neutrophils differ from adult functional capacity
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9
Q

what is an important consideration regarding pediatric HIV infection in infants?

A

CD4 T cell counts will have different meanings in children than in adults, so they will actually use percentages instead of numbers

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10
Q

during the first ___ months of life, there is an increased risk of serious ___ infection

A
  • 0-3
  • bacterial
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11
Q

what is considered a neonatal fever?

A
  • rectal temp >/= 38
  • may be only sign of infection
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12
Q

what is an SBI?

A
  • serious bacterial infection
  • meningitis, bacteremia, UTI
  • pneumonia, osteomyelitis/septic arthritis, SSTI, bacterial gastroenteritis
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13
Q

globally, neonatal SBIs are responsible for what fraction of neonatal deaths?

A

1/3-1/4

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14
Q

___% of infants (<90 days old) with fever have an SBI

A

8.5%

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15
Q

what accounts for most of the SBIs in infants <90 days old? what percent of infants are affected?

A
  • UTIs
  • 73% of infants with SBI
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16
Q

describe the incidence of bacteremia and meningitis in infants

A

decreases with age

  • 0-30 days = 3% with bacteremia, 1.1% with meningitis
  • 1-2 months = 1.4% with bacteremia, 0.4% with meningitis
  • 2-3 months = 0.7% with bacteremia, 0% with meningitis
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17
Q

what are the most common causes of neonatal SBI?

A) GBS, salmonella sp., e. coli

B) GBS, staph aureus, e.coli

C) GBS, listeria, e. coli

D) staph aureus, e. coli, listeria

E) GBS, listeria, strep pneumoniae

A

C) GBS, listeria, e. coli

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18
Q

what are the most common bacterial pathogens of neonatal SBI?

A
  • group B strep (s. agalactiae)
  • e. coli (and other gram neg enteric bugs)
  • listeria monocytogenes
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19
Q

what are the major viral causes of neonatal sepsis?

A
  • HSV 1 and 2
  • VZN
  • enteroviruses
  • influenza
  • adenoviruses
  • RSV
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20
Q

describe group B strep

A
  • gram positive cocci
  • beta-hemolytic
  • lancefield group B
  • important virulence factor
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21
Q

what is the GBS colonization rate of pregnant women?

A
  • 15-40%
  • constant and/or intermittent
  • with improved cx techniques → 30-50% colonization
  • test pregnant women at >/= 35 weeks gestation
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22
Q

describe neonatal acquisition of GBS

A
  • in utero by ascending route or at time of delivery
  • 50% transmission rate prior to prophylaxis
  • after birth: mucous membranes
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23
Q

___ are common colonizers of GI and GU tracts; less commonly the pharynx

A

GBS

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24
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of GBS infection?

A
  • early-onset (<7 days; median age at onset 1 hour)
  • late-onset (7-89 days)
  • late, late-onset (90+ days)
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25
Q

early onset GBS infection is commonly associated with ___

A

maternal OB complications

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26
Q

___ onset GBS disease has the highest mortality rate at ___%

A
  • early
  • 5-10%
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27
Q

what are the symptoms of early onset GBS disease

A
  • respiratory distress, poor feeding, lethargy, apnes/bradycardia
  • septicemia (35-50%)
  • meningitis (5-10%)
  • respiratory distress (35-40%)
28
Q

what are the factors that predict early onset GBS disease mortality?

A
  • birthweight <2500g
  • ANC <1500 cells/mm3
  • hypotension
  • apnea
  • initial pH <7.25
  • pleural effusion on initial chest Xray
29
Q

___ is the #1 cause of early neonatal morbidity and mortality in the US

A

GBS

30
Q

describe IAP

A
  • intrapartum antimicrobial prophylaxis
  • initiated in 1996
  • decreased early onset GBS disease by 70%
31
Q

IAP only reduces ___ onset GBS disease

A

early

32
Q

what is the drug of choice for GBS?

A

penicillin or ampicillin

only use clindamycin if you know the isolate is susceptible

33
Q

describe listeria monocytogenes

A
  • gram pos rod
  • facultatively anaerobic, nonsporulating
  • incomplete beta-hemolysis
  • polar flagellae - tumbling motility at 25*C
  • grows well at refrigerator temps (4-10*C)
34
Q

what bacteria can be tricky to identify clinically, and can appear like diphtheroids, cocci, diplococci?

A

listeria monocytogenes

35
Q

T or F

you should never narrow your antibiotics based on a gram stain

A

true

36
Q

what bacteria is described by the following:

imporant zoonoses (especially in herd animals)

widespread in nature - soil, decaying vegetation, fecal flora of mammals

isolated from stool of healthy adults (5%)

lots of foods are contaminated

food-related outbreaks - milk, soft cheeses, ready to eat pork, deli meat, hot dogs, cantelopes

A

listeria monocytogenes

37
Q

describe the pathogenesis of listeria monocytogenes in neonates

A
  1. in utero infection - stillbirth/abortion
    1. granulomatosis infantiseptica
  2. early onset sepsis
    1. acquired in utero
    2. associated with prematurity
  3. late onset meningitis
    1. onset 2 weeks of age
    2. acquired vis birth canal
38
Q

what is the drug of choice for treating infections caused by listeria monocytogenes?

A
  • ampicillin, plus gentamicin for synergy in certain cases
  • *cephalosporins don’t have activity
39
Q

describe e. coli

A
  • gram neg, motile red
  • facultatively anaerobic
  • lactose-fermenting (most)
  • very versatile, many niches
  • 171 somatic (O) antigens and 56 flagellar (H) antigens
40
Q

describe the epidemiology of e. coli

A
  • predominant facultative anaerobic flora of the human GI tract
  • key for intestinal homeostasis
  • also found in maternal genital tract
41
Q

what are the 3 types of e. coli?

A
  • uropathogenic e. coli
  • diarrheagenic e. coli
  • e. coli causing disseminated infection
42
Q

what is the treatment for infection from e. coli?

A
  • textbooks say ampicillin, but beware of resistance - extended spectrum cephalosporin, such as cefotaxime, better choice
  • at PCH, about 50% of our e. coli are ampicillin resistant
  • pearl:
    • think galactosemia with e. coli sepsis
43
Q

describe history when evaluating a febrile infant

A
  • fever and hypothermia
  • poor feeding
  • lethargic
  • inconsolable
  • grunting/respiratory distress
  • poor color
  • decreased urine output
  • apnea
  • jaundice
44
Q

describe physical exam when evaluating a febrile infant

A
  • temp (>38 or <36*C)
  • HR, RR, O2 saturation, BP
  • general: do they look sick?
  • HEENT: anterior fontanelle, sclera icteric?, mucous membranes for hydration
  • CV/resp: HR, work of breathing (retractions, nasal flaring)
  • abdomen: hepato/splenomegaly?, distended?, bowel loops?
  • skin: color, perfusion, petechiae, rashes
  • neuro: what reflexes are normal? tone?
45
Q

describe lab evaluation when evaluating a febrile infant

A
  • CBC with differential
  • blood gas
  • coagulation tests
  • comprehensive metabolic panel
  • CRP
  • urinalysis
  • blood and urine cultures
  • CSF for gram stain and culture, cell count, glucose, protein
46
Q

what types of imaging should be considered when evaluating a febrile infant?

A
  • CXR
  • KUB
  • brain imaging
  • others
47
Q

describe CBC in buildling a lab case for sepsis

A
  • low or high WBC, left shift of WBC (predominance of band forms, PMNs)
  • thrombocytopenia (sign of DIC)
    • prolonged PT/INR/PTT, low fibrinogen
48
Q

describe CMP in buildling a lab case for sepsis

A
  • hepatitis
  • acute renal insufficiency (elevated BUN, Cr)
  • low HCO3 (sign of acute acidosis)
49
Q

in addition to CBC and CMP, describe other components of buildling a lab case for sepsis

A
  • inflammatory markers elevated - CRP, ESR, procalcitonin
  • blood gas - acidosis (low pH), lower pCO2, base deficit, elevated lactate
  • urine - signs of infection (WBCs, nitrites, leukocyte esterase), signs of kidney injury (protein, casts, high specific gravity)
  • CSF - high WBC (with left shift), high protein, low glucose
50
Q

what is the best choice for empiric antimicrobial therapy for a febrile neonate?

A) ampicillin and gentamycin

B) ampicillin, cefotaxime, and gentamicin

C) vancomycin, cefotaxime, and gentamicin

D) ceftriaxone and gentamicin

E) vancomycin and ampicillin

A

B) ampicillin, cefotaxime, and gentamicin

51
Q

what are the empiric treatment options for febrile infants?

A
  • ampicillin, gentamicin, cefotaxime, acyclovir (HSV)
  • special circumstances - vancomycin, nafcillin
52
Q

what is the target of ampicillin?

A
  • gram positive infections (GBS and listeria)
  • only active agent for listeria; drug of choice for GBS
53
Q

what is the target for gentamicin?

A
  • synergy for listeria and GBS
  • additional gram neg coverage
54
Q

what is the target for cefotaxime?

A
  • ceftriaxone if >1 month old
  • gram neg coverage (e. coli, etc.)
  • especially important if suspecting meningitis (good CSF penetration)
55
Q

describe neonatal conjuctivitis

A
  • # 1 cause of neonatal conjuctivitis = chemical irritation from silver nitrate
  • ophthalmia neonatorum = conjuctivitis in 1st 4 weeks of life
    • chlamydia trachomatis (2-40%)
    • neisseria gonorrhoeae (<1%)
    • other bacteria (30-50%)
    • HSV (<1%)
56
Q

what is the possible prevention of neonatal conjuctivitis?

A

erythromycin

57
Q

describe chlamydia trachomatis

A
  • obligate intracellular bacterium
  • # 1 reportable STD in the US
    • test of cure imporant in pregnant women
  • 50% of infants born to infected mothers
    • conjuctavitis (25-50%), pneumonia (5-20%)
  • incubation period for neonates - 5-14 days
  • pneumonia - 3 weeks to 3 months
58
Q

describe the diagnosis for chlamydia trachomatis

A

eye swab for NAAT and culture; talk to lab

59
Q

describe treatment for chlamydia trachomatis

A

erythromycin PO for 14 days or azithromycin PO for 5 days

also treat the mother

60
Q

chlamydia trachomatis is not prevented by ___ erythromycin

A

ocular

61
Q

describe the prevention of perinatal/neonatal infections

A
  • group B strep
  • ophthalmia neonatorum (gonorrhea)
  • hepatitis B
  • HIV
  • HSV
  • vaccinations of mother
    • influenza
    • rubella
    • pertussis
    • VZV
62
Q

what are important group B strep virulence factors?

A
  • pilus-like structures
  • alpha C surface protein
  • beta-hemolysis/cytolysin
  • capsular polysaccharides
63
Q

describe universal screening for GBS disease

A
  • all pregnant women
  • 35-37 weeks gestation
  • vaginal-rectal specimen
  • inform lab when submitting a urine sample from a pregnant woman
  • antimicrobial susceptibility (if using an antibiotic other than PCN or AMP)
64
Q

describe treatment for GBS disease

A
  • drug of choice = penicillin G 5 million U IV, then 2.5-3 millions U IV q4 hours before birth
  • acceptable alternative = ampicillin
  • PCN-allergic (not anaphylaxis or hives) = cefazolin
  • clindamycin (must have susc. testing) or vancomycin
65
Q

why are bacterial infections in babies in the first 3 months of life taken so seriously?

A

because of the nature of babies’ immune systems, they cannot localize and take care of bacterial infections the same way that adults can