Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid Sections > Endo (Path/Ques/First Aid) > Flashcards

Endo (Path/Ques/First Aid) Flashcards

1
Q

death in acromegaly

A

cardiac failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

treatment of prolactinoma

A

dopamine agonists: bromocriptine, cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

drugs that cause DI

A

lithium

demeclocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SIADH treatment

A

free water restriction or demeclocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DI treatment

A

desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

drugs that cause SIADH

A

cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

thyroglossal duct cyst

A

anterior neck mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lingual thyroid

A

base of tongue mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hyperthyroid increased BMR

A

increased synthesis of NaK ATPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hyperthyroid increased SNS activity

A

increased expression of B1 adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cause of exophthalmos

A

fibroblasts behind orbit express the TSH receptor

results in glycosaminoglycan buildup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

scalloped colloid

A

Graves Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Graves Disease Treatment

A

B blockers
thioamide
radioiodine ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

thyroid storm

A

due to elevated catecholamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

thyroid storm treatment

A

PTU, B blockers, Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PTU mofa

A

inhibits peroxidase-mediated oxidation, organification and coupling
peripheral conversion of t4 to t3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

multinodular goiter

A

due to relative iodine def

usually nontoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hashimoto path findings

A

chronic inflamm with germinal centers, Hurthle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hashimoto complications

A

increased risk for B cell marginal zone lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

subacute granulomatous/de quervain thyroiditis

A

after viral infection
tender thyroid
transient hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

reidel fibrosing thyroiditis

A

hard non tender thyroid

fibrosis can involve local structures (airway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

increased uptake of I

A

graves dz

nodular goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

decreased uptake of I

A

adenoma, carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

follicular adenoma of thyroid

A

surrounded by fibrous capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

anaplastic carcinoma

A

undifferentiated, elderly

invades local structures – dysphagia/resp compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PTH functions

A

increase bone osteoclasts (release Ca and Phos)
increase small bowel absorption of C and P by Activating Vitamin D
increases renal calcium reabsorption (DT)
decreased phosphate reabsorption (PT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Paratyhroid cells

A

chief cells - PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

primary hyperparathyroidism causes

A

adenoma > hyperplasia > carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

osteitis fibrosa cystica

A

reabsorption of bone leading to fibrosis and cystic spaces

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

weird hyperparathyroidism stuff

A

acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

hyperparathyroidism labs

A

increased PTH, ca
decreased phosphate
increased urinary cAMP
increased ALKPHOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PTH receptor

A

Gs (adenylate cyclase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

chronic renal failure (decreased phosphate excretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

secondary hyperparathyroidism labs

A

increased PTH
decreased ca, increased phosphate
increased alkphos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

AD, short stature

defective Gs protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DMT1 HLA

A

DR 3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

amyloid deposition in pancreas islets

A

T2DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T2DM nonenzymatic glycosylation of basement membranes: large and medium sized vessels

A

atherosclerosis:

  • cv disease
  • non traumatic amputations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

NEG of small vessels

A

hyaline arteriosclerosis

  • glumerulosclerosis
  • efferent arterioles (Kimmelsteil-Wilson nodules)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

NEG of hemoglobin

A

increase HbA1c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

aldose reductase

A

glucose to sorbitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

glucose freely enters

A

Schwann cells

pericytes of retinal BVs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

somatostatinomas

A

achlorhydria (inhib of gastrin)

choleithiasis with steatorrhea (inhibition of CCK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

VIPomas

A

watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

abdominal striae

A

impaired synthesis of collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

high dose dexamethasone

A

suppress ACTH production by pituitary adenoma (but not ectopic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hyperaldosteronism labs

A

hypernatremia
hypokalemia
metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism

A

adrenal adenoma
high aldosterone
low renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Seconary hyperaldosteronism

A

activate RAS
high aldosterone and renin
FMD, atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

salt wasting/loss of aldosterone

A

hyponatremia
hyperkalemia
hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

causes of adrenal insufficiency

A 
autoimmune
TB
metastatic carcinoma (lung cancer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

diagnosis of pheochromocytoma

A

increased serum metanephrine

inscreased urine metanephrines and vanillylmadelic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

heavily methylated DNA

A

low transcription activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

hCG stimulates

A

LH surger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

LH

A

testosterone from leydig sells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

FSH

A

release of inhibin from sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

inhibin suppresses

A

FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

testosterone inhibits

A

LH, GnRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

gestational DM treatment

A

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

increase neutrophils

decrease lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

treatment of severe hypoglycemia

A

IM glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

chromaffin cells activated by

A

Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

pretreatment for iodine ablation

A

perchlorate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

5’ deiodinase

A

t4 –> t3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

5 alpha reductase

A

testosterone –> DHT in peripheral tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

CVD risk factors

A

atherosclerotic dz, CKD, DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

TZD specific mechanism

A

bind to PPAR gamma

increase adiponectin to decrease insulin resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

proinsulin

A

C peptide and insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

med for radioactive material exposure

A

potassium iodide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

21 hydroxylase rxn

A

(prog) –> (11deoxy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

teratomas

A

increased HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

best test for hypothyroidism

A

TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

estrogen relationship to thyroid

A

increases T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

potassium shift in diabetic ketoacidosis

A

shift out

increase extracellular, decrease intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

GnRH treats

A

infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

necrolytic migratory erythema

A

glucagonoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

propanol mofa in hyperthyroidism

A

decreases t4-t3 conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

long acting insulin

A

NPH, glargine, determir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

postprandial short acting insulin

A

lispro, aspart, glisine, regular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

tamoxifen SE

A

endometrial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

risperidone SE

A

hyperprolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

subacute thyroiditis histo

A

mixed cellular infiltrate

multinuclear giant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

T1DM path

A

luekocyte infiltrate

84
Q

leuprolide for infertility

A

increases then decreases T and DHT

85
Q

Beta blockers for hypoglycemia

A

inhibit Epi and NE medidated rxns/symptoms

86
Q

neuroblastoma

A

adrenal medulla tumor in children

87
Q

adrenal drainage

A

left adrenal – left renal vein – IVC

right adrenal – IVC

88
Q

dopamine inhibits

89
Q

somatostatin inhibits

90
Q

prolactin inhibits

91
Q

dopamine antagonists

A

stimulate prolactin secretion

antipsychotics and OCPs

92
Q

21 hydroxylase dysfunction

A

decreased mc
decreased cortisol
increased sex steroids

93
Q

17 alpha hydroxylase dysfunction

A

increased mc
decreased cortisol
decreased sex steroids

94
Q

11B hydroxylase dysfunction

A

decreased aldosterone, increased 11 deoxy
decreased cortisol
increased sex steroids

95
Q

receptor associated tyrosine kinases

A

prolactin
immunomodulartors
GH

96
Q

elevated homovanillic acid (HVA)

A

neuroblastoma

97
Q

carcinoid

A

high 5-HT
5-HIAA in urine
niacin def

98
Q

carcinoid treatment

A

octreotide

99
Q

demeclocycline

A

ADH antagonist

100
Q

condyloma acuminatum

A

HPV 6 or 11

101
Q

lymphogranuloma venerum

A

chlamydia trachomatis

perianal involvement

102
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of penis risk factors

A

HPV

lack of circumsicion

103
Q

bowen disease

A

shaft, scrotum

leukoplakia

104
Q

erythroplasia of Queyrat

105
Q

Bowenoid papulosis

A

reddish papules

106
Q

cryptochordism complications

A

testicular atrophy with infertility

increased risk for seminoma

107
Q

Orchitis in young aduls

A

chlamydia
neisseria
mumps

108
Q

orchitis in older adults

A

e coli

pseudomonas

109
Q

testicular torsion

A

congenital failure of testes to attach to inner lining of scrotum via processus vaginalis

110
Q

Varicocele

A

dilation of spermatic cord
bag of worms
left sided
associated with left sided RCC

111
Q

hydrocele

A

fluid collection within tunica vaginalis
incomplete closure of processus vaginalis
transilluminates

112
Q

prostate adenocarcinoma risk factors

A

african americans

diets high in saturated fats

113
Q

location of prostate adenocarcinoma

A

posterior periphery

114
Q

prostate adenocarcinoma spreading to bone - labs

A

increased alk phosph

increased PAP

115
Q

treatment for prostate adenocarcinoma

A

prostatectomy
leuprolide (supress LH and FSH)
flutamide

116
Q

flutamide

A

competitive inhibitor of androgen receptor

117
Q

cause of BPH

A

DHT acts on androgen receptor –> hyperplastic nodules

118
Q

histo for prostate adenocarcinoma

A

prominent/dark nucleoli

119
Q

testicular germ cell tumor risk factors

A

15-40
cryptochordism
klinefelter syndrome

120
Q

seminoma

A

good prognosis
large cells with clear cytoplasm
homogenous
BHCg

121
Q

embryonal carcinoma

A

immature primitive cells
may produce glands
hemorragic mass with necrosis
AFP or BhCG

122
Q

yolk sac tumor

A

children
schiller duval bodies
AFP elevated

123
Q

choricarcinoma

A

tumor trophoblasts
B hcg
hyperthyroidism/gynecomastia

124
Q

terotoma

A

malignant in famles

AFP or Bhcg

125
Q

sertoli cell tumor

A

tubules

silent

126
Q

lymphoma of testicles

A

> 60

diffuse large B cell type

127
Q

vulva histo

A

sqaumous epithelium

128
Q

lichen sclerosis

A 
thining of epidermis, fibrosis of dermis
leukoplakia
paper-like
postmenopausal women
benign, slight risk of SCC
129
Q

lichen simplex chronicus

A

hyperplasia
luekoplakia, thick skin
chronic irritation
benign, no risk

130
Q

vulvar carcinoma

A

Squamous, leukoplakia

HPV or Non HPV

131
Q

non HPV vulvar carcinoma

A

from long standing lichen sclerosis

>70 years

132
Q

extramammary paget disease

A

malightant epithelial cells in epidermis of vulva

CIS

133
Q

paget cells

A

PAS+, Keratin +

S100-

134
Q

melanoma

A

PAS-, keratin -

S100+

135
Q

vagina histo

A

non-keratinizaing squamous epithelium

136
Q

adenosis

A

persistance of columar epitherlium in vagina

DES

137
Q

upper 2/3 of vagina

A 
mullerian ducts (originally columnar epithelium)
drains to regional iliac nodes
138
Q

lower 2/3 of vagina

A 
urogential sinus (squamous epithelium)
drains to inguinal nodes
139
Q

clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagaina

A

DES associated vaginal adenosis

140
Q

Emrbyonal Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

maligant immature skeletal muscle
bleeding, grape like mass
<5 yrs

141
Q

rhabdomyoblast stain

A

desmin and myogenin

142
Q

vaginal carcinoma

A

SCC, high risk HPV, VAIN

143
Q

exocervix

A

nonkeratinizing squamous

144
Q

endocervix

A

single layer of columnar cells

145
Q

HPV

146
Q

E7

A

knocks out Rb

147
Q

E6

A

knocks out p53

148
Q

CIN I

149
Q

CIN II

150
Q

CIN III

A

<thickness

151
Q

Cervical Carcinoma

A

middle aged women, 40-50

squamous > adenocarcinoma

152
Q

cervical carcinoma risk factors

A

HPV

smoking, immunodef

153
Q

invasive cervical carcinoma

A

hydronephrosis with postrenal failure

154
Q

proliferative phase of uterus

A

estrogen driven

growth of endometrium

155
Q

secretory phase of uterus

A

progesterone driven

preparation for implantation

156
Q

menstrual phase of uterus

A

loss of progesteron e–> shedding

157
Q

asherman syndrome

A

secondary amenorrhea from excess d and c

158
Q

anovulatory cycle

A

proliferative phase without secretory phase

159
Q

acute endometriosis

A

retained products of conception

160
Q

chronic endometriosis

A

lymphocytes and plasma cells

retained products of conception, PID, TB, IUD

161
Q

tamoxifen

A

anti-e on breast
weak pro-e on endometrium
polyps!

162
Q

endometriosis increases risk for

A

carcinoma at side

163
Q

endometrial hyperplasia

A

hyperplasia of glands
unopposed estrogen
cellular atypia increaes progression

164
Q

endometrial carcinoma

A

prolif of glands

hyperplasia vs sporadic pathway

165
Q

endometrial carcinoma - hyperplasia pathway

A

estrogen exposure
60 years
endometrioid histo

166
Q

endometrial carcinoma - sporadic pathway

A

70 years
serous papillary
psammoma bodies
p53

167
Q

leiomyoma

A

benign, multiple, e exposure,

well-defined white whorled masses

168
Q

leiomyosarcoma

A

postmenopausal women

single lesion - necrosis and hemorrhage

169
Q

follicleq

A

oocyte
granulosa
theca cells

170
Q

theca cells

A

LH, androgens

171
Q

granulosa cells

A

FSH

androgen to estradiol

172
Q

estradiol surger

A

LH surge –> ovulation

173
Q

corpus luteum

A

produces progesteron

174
Q

follicular cysts

A

no significance

175
Q

PCOD

A 
increased LH (lots of andorgens)
androgen --> estrone, inhibits FSH
increased risk for endometrial carcinoma
176
Q

BRCA1 mutation

A

increased risk for serous carcinoma of ovary and fallopian tube

177
Q

endometroid tumor

A

malignant

arise from endometriosis

178
Q

brenner tumors

A

bladder-like epithelium

usually benign

179
Q

CA-125

A

serum marker for treatment/recurrence of surface epithelial tumors

180
Q

cystic teratoma - female

A 
fetal tissue (skin, hair, bone etc)
benign (unless SCC or neural immature tissue)
181
Q

struma ovarii

A

teratoma composed of thyroid tissue

182
Q

dysgerminoma - female

A

large cells with clear cytoplasma
malignant
elevated LDH
responds to radiotherapy/good prognosis

183
Q

schiller duval bodies

A

gluomerous like structures

184
Q

Choriocarcinoma - female

A

hemorrhagic tumor
high beta-hcg
may lead to thecal cysts
poor response to chemo

185
Q

embryonal carcinoma - female

A

malignant
large primitive cells
early metastasis

186
Q

krukenberg tumor

A

metastatic mucinous tumor
both ovaries
due to metastatic gastric carcinoma

187
Q

pseudomyoxma peritonei

A

mucinous tumor of appendix

188
Q

ectopic pregnancy risk factors

189
Q

teratogens - first two weeks

A

sponatneous abortion

190
Q

teratogens weeks 3-8

A

risk of organ malformation

191
Q

teratogens months 3-9

A

organ hypoplasia

192
Q

SIDS risk factors

A

sleeping on stomach
exposure to cig smoke
prematurily

193
Q

phenytoin

A

digit hypoplasia and cleft palate

194
Q

thalidomide

A

limb defects

195
Q

partial mole

A

69 chromosomes

fetal tissue

196
Q

complete mole

A

46 chromosomes
no fetal tissue
hydropic villi
risk of choriocarcinoma

197
Q

sertoli cells - embryo

A

MIF – involute female stuff

198
Q

test in males and development

A

test - male intenal gen (wolf duct)

dht - male extern gen (UGS/GT)

199
Q

shortened vaginal canal

A

mullerian agenesis

200
Q

para-aortic nodes

201
Q

deep inguinal nodes

A

glans penis, superficial nodes

202
Q

superficial inguinal nodeds

203
Q

oocyte arrested at

A

prophase 1

metaphase ii

204
Q

ovary histo

A

simple cuboidal

205
Q

fallopian tube histo

A

simple columnar

206
Q

B-hcg detected

A

6-11 d after ovulation

207
Q

nondisjunction occurs during

First Aid Sections (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions