Blood Vessels Flashcards

1
Q

COX2

A

inducible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aspirin

A

irreversibly inhibits COX 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

derivates of common cardinal veins

A

SVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

derivative of truncus arterious

A

pulmonary trunk

ascending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

derivative of dorsal aorts

A

descending aortic a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Conn’s Syndrome

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when you correct DKA

A

decrease ketone bdies = increase bicarb

k intracellular shift = hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

plaque - proliferation

A

platelets

PDGF, TGF-beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

plaque -SMC

A

MIGRATE from media to intima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type 1 Dyslipidemias

A

no atherosclerosis
abd pain (pancreatitis)
maybe xanthomas
due to LPL def (chylomicrons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type 2 Dyslipidemias

A

no LDL receptors
atherosclerosis
tubulars xanthomas, corneal arcus, xanthelasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type 3 Dyslipidemias

A

VLDL overproduction

pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

transmural inflamm of arteries with fibrinoid necrosis

A

polyarteritis nodosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

varicose veins

A

increased lower extremity venous pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

manifestations of poor blood flow from varicose veins

A
superficial venous thrombosis
stasis dermatitis
skin ulcerations
superficial infections
poor wound healing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

positive FTA-Abs

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

amlodipine is a

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

strawberry hemangiomas

A

children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cherry hemangiomas

A

adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nitroprusside AE

A

cyanide toxicity

treat with sulfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

IVC formed by

A

union of common iliac veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

age related HTN due to

A

decrease compliance of aorta (aorta stiffening)

isolated systolic HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

bile acid binding resins AE

A

hypertriglyceridemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A

irreversible alpha 1 and 2 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cliostazol

A
phosphodiesterase inhibitor (inhibits platelet aggregation)
arterial vasodilator
for intermittent claudication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

dipyramidole

A
phosphodiesterase inhibitor (inhibits platelet aggregation)
arterial vasodilator
for intermittent claudication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

great saphenous vein graft

A

inferiorlateral to pubic tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

steady state concentration in first order kinetics

A

reach in 4-5 half lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

niacin mofa

A

inhibit hepatic VLDL production

inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

treatment for hypercholestermia

A

1) statin

2) ezetimbie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

treatment for hypertriglyceridemia

A

1) fibrate

2) niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

1st pharyngeal arch

A

maxillary artery

CN V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2nd pharyngeal arch

A

stapedial and hyoid aa

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3rd pharyngeal arch

A

Common Carotid a.
proximal portion of Internal carotid a.
CN IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

4th pharyngeal arch

A

left - aortic arch
right - proximal part of right subclavian a.
CN X - superior branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

6th pharyngeal arch

A

ductous arteriousus

CN X - recurrent laryngeal branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CYP450 inducers

A

BullShit CRAP GPS induces my rage

Barbituates, St john’s wort, carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol, phenytoin, griseofulvin, phenobarbital, sulfonylurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CYP450 inhibitors

A

VICKS FACE All Over GQ stops ladies in their tracks
Valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine, ketoconazole, sulfonamides, fluconazole, alcohol (acute), chloramphienicol, erythromycin, amiodarone, omperprazole, grapefruit juice, quinidiine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

orthostatic hypotension

A

understimulation of alpha one receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

2nd pharyngeal arch - muscles

A

facial expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3rd pharyngeal arch - muscles

A

stylopharyngius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

4th pharyngea arch - muscles

A

pharynx, soft palate

some laryngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

6th pharyngeal arch - muscles

A

larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

niacin induced skin flushing and warmth due to

A

prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

capsaician

A

reduces pain in PNS by decreasing substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

plaque rupture

A

MMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

increased CK means

A

cell membrane damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

IVC filter

A

prevents DVTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

losartan

A

angiotension receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

which arteries does polyarteritis nodosa tend to spare?

A

pulmonary aa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

glomangioma

A

under nail bed

modified smooth muscle cells, invovled in thermoregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

subungal melanoma

A

under nail bed

pigmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

myxomatous changes means

A

cystic medial degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

fenoldapam

A

selective D1 receptor agonist

causes arteriolar dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

streptokinase SE

A

hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Low Vd

A

large molecular wt, charged molecules (hydrophilic), bound to plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

high vd

A

small molecular wt

lipophilic/hydrophobic/uncharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

saddle nose

A

wegners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

weak UE pulses

A

takayasa arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

efficacy

A

effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

potency

A

dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

genomic imprinting mofa

A

methylation (add methyl groups to cytosine residues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ACEI induced renal failure due to

A

efferent arteriolar dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Ephinephrine effects on HR

A

dose dependnet, B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Epinephrine effects on SBP

A

increases

B1 and alpha1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Epinephrine effects on DBP

A

decrease with low dose: B2>alpha1

increase with high dose: alpha1>B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

onion like concentri thickening of arteriolar walls

A

malignant htn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

NE extravasation

A

increase alpha1
vasoconstriction
necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

oseltamivir

A

neuroaminidase inhibitor

inhibits virion particle RELEASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Trisomy 18

A

rocker bottom feet, clenched hands

polyhydraminos

71
Q

acyclovir

A

guanosine analog

activated by thymidine kinase

72
Q

cystic hygroma

A

neck mass in turners syndrome

73
Q

Foscarnet mofa for different viruses

A

bind DNA polymerase in HSV

binds RT in HIV

74
Q

inferior thyroid a close to what nerve?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

75
Q

recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates

A

everything except crycothyroid

76
Q

superior thyroid a close to what nerve?

A

superior laryngeal nerve

77
Q

superior laryngeal nerve innervates

A

cricothyroid

78
Q

mono also associated with

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

79
Q

cricothyotomy

A

go thru cricothyroid membrane

80
Q

congenital torticollis due to

A

intrauterine malposition

81
Q

high frequency sounds heard

A

base of cochlea (near oval and sound windows)

thin, rigid basilar membrane

82
Q

low frequency sounds hear

A

apex of cochlea (near helicotrema)

83
Q

Weber Test

A

foreheard
louder sound on one side is abnormal
localize with conductive, opposite with sensineural

84
Q

Rhine Test

A

normal – hear better at external auditory meatus
abnormal - hear better at mastoid process
abnormal in affected ear with conductive hearing loss

85
Q

Conductive Hearing Loss

A

Rine test would be abnormal in affect ear

Weber would localize

86
Q

Sensineural Hearing Loss

A

Rhine test would be normal in both

Weber would localized to unaffected ear

87
Q

loud noise damages

A

organ of corti

88
Q

pterion

A

near middle menigeal a which is branch of maxillary

89
Q

bruises

A

petechiae < purpura < ecchymoses

90
Q

acantholysis

A

pemphigus vulgaris

91
Q

melanocytic nevus

A

mole

92
Q

ephelis

A

freckle

93
Q

psoriasis

A

decrease granulosum

increased spinosum

94
Q

seborrheic keratosis

A

stuck on/brown

95
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris

A

IgG against desmosomes
acantholysis
often begins in mouth

96
Q

urticara

A

dermal edema

97
Q

Bullous Pemphigoid

A

IgG against hemidesmosomes (not in mouth)

98
Q

IgA at tips of dermal papillae

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

99
Q

erythema multiforme

A

associated with infections (HSV, mycoplasma)

100
Q

melanocytes

A

neural crest origin

101
Q

apocrine glands

A

malodorous

102
Q

actinic keratosis

A

basal cell atypia, hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis

103
Q

Lichen Planus associations

A

Hep C

lymphocytes at dermal-epidermal junction

104
Q

sunburn due to

A

UVB

105
Q

UVA

A

tanning, photoaging

106
Q

PABA esters

A

only effective against UVB

107
Q

basal cell carcinoma

A

sun exposed areas
palisading nuclei
doesn’t metastasize

108
Q

squamous cell carcinoma

A

keratin pearls

can spread to lymph nodes

109
Q

melanoma

A

BRAF kinase mutations

S-100 marker

110
Q

melanoma - risk of malignancy

A

vertical growth/depth

111
Q

vemurafenib

A

BRAF kinase inhibitor

112
Q

breast retraction

A

coopers ligament infiltration

113
Q

naficillin use

A

skin and soft tissue infections

no MRSA

114
Q

Isotretinon

A

synethic isomer of ATRA

avoid pregnancy

115
Q

Calcipotriene

A

vit D analog (VIT d is nuclear transcription factor)

116
Q

topical corticosteroid use causes

A

atrophy of dermis

117
Q

keloids

A

excessive collagen formation

118
Q

contact dermatitis

A

spongiosis

119
Q

terbafine

A

inhibition of sqalene epoxidase

120
Q

foreign body causes

A

granulomatous inflamm

121
Q

VZV histo

A

multinucleated inclusion bearing giant cells

122
Q

lepromin skin test

A

CD4 Th1 response

+ tuberculoid leprosy

123
Q

xanthelosma

A

also in PBC due to increased cholesterol

124
Q

Tumor Suppressor Genes

A

P53, Rb, BRCA1, APC

125
Q

Oncogenes

A

Abl, C-myc, L-myc, N-myc, RET, HER2/neu, bcl2

126
Q

Glioblastoma multiforme

A

pseudopalisading necrosis - necrosis

127
Q

Anaplastic

A

complete lack of differentiation
no resemblence to original tissue
giant cells

128
Q

Peau d’ orange

A

lymphatic obstruction

129
Q

follicular lymphoma - symptoms

A

indolent

remissions and recurrences

130
Q

dysplasia

A

reversible

131
Q

Rb

A

regulates G1–>S

hyperphosphorylation inactivates

132
Q

bromodeoxyuridine

A

high grade/poor prognosis in brain cancer

133
Q

MRD1

A

Pglycoprotein
ATP dependent efflux pump
likes hydrophobic compounds

134
Q

Angiogenesis

A

VEGF

FGF

135
Q

Invasion

A

decrease E cadherines

increase MMPs

136
Q

Cachexia

A

TNF alpha

137
Q

Oral Contraceptives

A

decrease risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers

138
Q

Ovarian cancer risk decreased by

A

oral contraceptives
multiparity
breast feeding

139
Q

Adhesion

A

integrins bind to fibronectin, collagen, laminin

140
Q

Her2Neu

A

intracellular tyrosine kinase activity

EGFR (increased cellular proliferation)

141
Q

CD8 toxicity

A

apoptosis

142
Q

apoptosis

A

capases = cysteine-aspartic acid proteases

143
Q

MTX

A

folic acid analog
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
myelosuppresion rescue with folinic acid

144
Q

leucovorin

A

folinic acid

145
Q

5-FU

A

pyrimidine canlog

rescue with thymidine

146
Q

Cytarabine

A

pyrimidine analog

147
Q

6MP

A

purine analog
activated by HGPRT
metabolized by xanthine oxidase

148
Q

Dactinomycin

A

intercalates in DNA

Wilms tumor, Ewings sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma

149
Q

Doxorubicin

A

intercalates DNA

cardiotoxicity

150
Q

Dexrazoxane

A

prevent doxorubicin toxicity

151
Q

Bleomycin

A

DNA breaks
testicular cancer, Hodgkins
pulmonary fibrosis

152
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

alkylating agens

mesna to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis

153
Q

Nitrosoueas

A

CNS tumors

alkylating agents

154
Q

Busulfan

A

alkylating agent

pulmonary fibrosis toxicity

155
Q

Alkylating agents

A

cyclophosphamides, nitrousoureas, busulfan

156
Q

Purine Analogs

A

6MP, fludarabine, cladribine

157
Q

Pyrmidine analogs

A

5FU, capecitabine, cytabine, gemcitabine

158
Q

Vincristine/Vinblastine

A

alkloids, M phase, inhibits MT polymeraziation

neutrotoxicity

159
Q

Paciltaxel

A

hyperstabilize microtubules
ovary, breast carcinomas
M phase

160
Q

Cisplatin/carboplatin

A

cross link DNA
nephrotoxicity
acoustic nerve damage

161
Q

Cisplantin - prevent toxicity with

A

amifostine and aggressive hydration

162
Q

Etoposide

A

inhibits top II

163
Q

Tamoxifen

A

SERM

164
Q

Trastuzumab

A

her-2

165
Q

rituximab

A

CD20

166
Q

bevacizumab

A

VEGF

167
Q

cladribine

A

purine/adenosine analog

hair cell leukemia

168
Q

Rabies Vaccine

A

killed vaccine

169
Q

anorectal carcinoma

A

HPV

170
Q

CD 14

A

monocyte/macrophage lineage

171
Q

sarcoidosis response

A

TH1

172
Q

FAD needed for

A

succinate DH

173
Q

MG - type of hypersensitivity

A

type II