2024

Question 1

What 2 intra-oral radiographs would you want to take for a patient who is in pain in teeth 45 and 46?

Answer 1

Right bite wings
Lower right periapicals

Question 2

What are you looking to assess from the radiograph of a patient presenting with pain on tooth 46 and 45?

Answer 2

• periapical pathology
• Caries
• Fractures in teeth
• overhanging or defective restoration margins

Question 3

What other tests to do?

Answer 3

• sensibility testing
• percussion (TTP)
• tooth slooth test

Question 4

What are the radiographic signs of cracked tooth syndrome?

Answer 4

• periapical pathology secondary to crack
• PDL widening
• radiolucencies within the tooth suggesting a crack

Question 5

What are the treatment options for cracked tooth syndrome?

Answer 5

• do nothing
• Extract (if the crack is subgingival and tooth not restorable)
• If restorable and extends to pulp = RCT + crown
• If does not extend to pulp = restore and review

Question 6

What to consider for the long term prognosis of the tooth?

Answer 6

• Site of fracture and extent
• Remaining tooth structure
• tooth vitality (pulpal involvement)

Question 7

3 things about acrylic that makes it good for a denture?

Answer 7

• easy to repair
• high hardness and high fatigue strength
• cost effective

Question 8

What property of acrylic makes it more prone to fracture on impact?

Answer 8

Brittleness as it has low impact resistance

Question 9

What are 3 common fracture features if an acrylic denture dropped?

Answer 9

• midline fracture
• tooth detaches from denture base
• loss of flange

Question 10

features of CoCr denture fracture?

Answer 10

Acrylic detaches from CoCr plate
Clasp fractures or bends

Question 11

Other than impact or acrylic properties why would it break?

Answer 11

Parafunctional habits
Occlusion such as deep overbite
Problems with bonding between tooth and acrylic base
Denture processing problems

Question 12

Woud you need to take an impression of the current denture?

Answer 12

no

Question 13

denture breakes from midline twice again what else would you do to enhance the palate?

Answer 13

• Enhance to palate with metal mesh or fibre

Question 14

If the denture breaks again after rebasing or religning what would you include in the new design?

Answer 14

• Cocr Palatal coverage with acrylic post dam
• Acrylic crosslinking of denture teeth
• Cocr Backing of teeth

Question 15

Other than erosion, abrasion and attrition, give 4 other intra-oral signs of wear?

Answer 15

• polished restorations
• sensitivity
• Cracks or fractures in enamel
• abfraction
• Flattened occlusal surfaces

Question 16

If 21 is discoloured and non vital, what is the best treatment option?

Answer 16

Internal bleaching using the walking bleach technique

Question 17

What is the least invasive rehabilitation technique for localised anterior wear?

Answer 17

DAHL technique

Question 18

Why does the DAHL technique makes posterior support better?

Answer 18

• gain space for anterior build ups
• no need for occlusal reduction
• posteriors erupt into place and gain support leading to more balanced distribution of occlusal forces

Question 19

What 6 clinical records would you need for tooth-wear rehabilitation?

Answer 19

• Sensibility testing
• Radiographs
• Articulated study models
• Diagnostic wax ups
• Occlusion - RVD, OVD, freeway space
• Facebow registration
• Clinical photos

Question 20

What things about non-y2 amalgam that makes it better than normal amalgam?

Answer 20

• high corrosion resistance
• higher compressive strength
• less creep
• higher early strength

Question 21

How is non-y2 amalgam made?

Answer 21

by mixing silver copper particles with silver tin lathe cut particles to produce high copper y-2 free amalgam

Question 22

What are the aims of the minimata convention?

Answer 22

• Promote mercury free alternatives
• Phase down dental amalgam use
• Raise awareness about the risks of mercury
• Monitor mercury exposure and provide health advice

Question 23

What are the decisions made by the minimata convention?

Answer 23

• designate a special waste stream for mercury
• phase down the use of dental amalgam
• control measures on mercury emissions to air water and land
• restrict amalgam use to its encapsulated form
• educate dental professionals and dental student on using other amalgam free alternatives

Question 24

What other investigations would you need for a vertical bone loss on 46 ( PA , MPBS and BPE is given)

Answer 24

6PPC
OPT

Question 25

How does vertical bone loss occur?

Answer 25

• Plaque accumulation on one side of the tooth in deep areas (scalloping) , this makes it hard for access for cleaning

Question 27

What is the initial treatment for a patient presenting with a vertical bony defect?

Answer 27

step 1 according to S3 guidelines (BSP)
- OHI advice
- Supra and sub gingival PMPR
- Education about periodontal disease and risk factors
- Risk factor control and behavioural management

Question 28

What are the treatment options after Step 1 and Step 2 if symptoms of vertical bony defect persists?

Answer 28

step 3
- Targeted subgingival PMPR
- Open flap surgical instrumentation
- pocket elimination with osseos resection where the flap is repositioned apically
- regenerative surgery such as bone, PDL and cementum grafting

Question 29

Comment on the appropriateness of a splint for a subluxation trauma on tooth 21 and 22 ( photographs show big composite and splint only includes 21 and 22 )

Answer 29

• Not appropriate
• Splint is not extending to adjacent teeth
• Composite restorations are very big
• Composite restorations are not placed in the middle of the teeth

Question 30

When would you review a subluxation trauma after providing a splint?

Answer 30

• After 2 weeks , remove splint and do a trauma stamp to monitor progress and ask about any symptoms

Question 31

Give 3 cellular pulpal changes that may cause sensitivity in MIH?

Answer 31

• increase in neural density in the pulp horn and subodontoplastic region - more sensitive to stimuli due to high neural density
• Significant increase in immune cells accumulation - more inflammatory response
• high vascularity - higher blood flow therefore higher pain and sensitivity

Question 32

Give three dental theories for pain by MIH?

Answer 32

• Dentine hypersensitivity - porous enamel or exposed dentine facilitates fluid flow within dentine tubules to activate A- alpha nerve fibres (hydrodynamic theory)
• Peripheral sensitisation - underlying pulpal inflammation lead to sensitisation of C fibres
• Central sensitisation - from continued nociceptive input

Question 33

Apart from temporary dressing what other treatment options are available for MIH?

Answer 33

• Extraction
• Stainless steel crowns
• composite restorations

Question 34

What drug is taken one week and the patient is standing up while taking it?

Answer 34

Alendronic acid

Question 35

What do you want to know about the drug and MH for a patient taking alendronic acid?

Answer 35

• If they take this drug for a bone condition
• when have they started taking the drug and what dose?
• have they ever been given a drug through blood infusion?
• why are they prescribed this drug?
• if they have or had cancer before?

Question 36

What to tell patient if ask that they should stop taking their their bisphosphonates drug

Answer 36

• it is not advisable to stop the drug as it is important for the treatment
• risks of stopping the drug and it may worsen their condition
• The risks and dental treatment is low and may not require stopping treatment
• It is best to discuss this decision with the prescribing clinician
• keeping good oral hygiene and stopping smoking after the procedure can reduce the risk of developing MRONJ

Question 37

Give 8 post op extraction complications?

Answer 37

• bleeding
• bruising
• pain
• infection
• nerve damage
• swelling
• sequestrum
• trismus
• infection
• dry socket

Question 38

If pt comes back bleeding the next day after extraction what would you do to the patient?

Answer 38

• Apply pressure with cotton wool
• Reassure patient
• take a history (ask if they are on blood thinners)
• sutures
• use floseal
• use haemocollagen sponge

Question 39

If patient comes back bleeding for the second time and you manage to stop it what would you do?

Answer 39

• refer to specialist and consult general practitioner for any underlying condition , transexamic acid can be prescribed if suspected bleeding disorder

Question 40

What are 5 ways to know that you are treating the correct tooth?

Answer 40

• mark the tooth with a pen
• check patient notes and charting
• compare with radiographs
• ask patient about their complaint and symptoms
• Count the teeth

Question 41

give three predictable factors of malignancy in oral leukoplakia?

Answer 41

• location of the lesion in the oral cavity (floor of the mouth and lateral border of the tongue higher rate )
• if the patient is a smoker it is a higher risk
• the appearance of the lesion (non-homogenous)
• duration of the lesion

Question 42

What are 4 types of oral lichenoid reactions according to van der waal 2009?

Answer 42

• Amalgam restoration OLL
• Drug related OLL
• Chronic graft verses host disease
• lichen planus-like lesions that lack one or more clinical characteristics of LP

Question 43

Give 3 histopathological signs of lichen planus?

Answer 43

• band of lymphocytic infiltrate
• Civatte bodies
• elongated rete pegs
• orthokeratosis

Question 44

What are the short term effects radiation therapy?

Answer 44

Xerostomia
Mucositis
Increased caries risk
difficulty swallowing
infection
erosion

Question 45

What 2 strains of HPV are associated with oropharyngeal tumerigenosis

Answer 45

16 and 18

Question 46

Give 3 diagnostic factors of autoimmune membrane blistering diseases?

Answer 46

• nikolsky’s sign
• direct immunoflusence
• histopathological analysis

Question 47

Describe the histology and direct immunofluresence of pemphigus vulgaris?

Answer 47

-Histological it can present with acantholysis, supra-basal split and tzank cells are present
- Direct immunofluorescence shows basket weave pattern with IgG and C3 deposits

Question 48

What antibodies are involved in pemphigus vulgaris?

Answer 48

• Desmoglein 1 and 3

Question 49

Immunosuppressants that can be used for pemphigus?

Answer 49

Azathioprine and mycophenolate

Question 50

What is the lahsal classification for unilateral upper cleft lip and palate?

Answer 50

LAHS

Question 51

Give the careway pathway with dates and stages of cleft lip and palate children

Answer 51

3 months - lip closure
6-12 months - palate closure
8-10 years - alveolar bone graft
12-15 years - definitive orthodontics
18-20 years - surgery

Question 52

What dental anomalies that can be associated with cleft lip and palate?

Answer 52

hypodontia
impacted teeth
malocclusion
supernumerary teeth
microdontia

Question 53

Good thing about single flowline in LDU?

Answer 53

helps to show how to manage the path of instrumentation through the LDU

Question 54

Give a primary way to stop infection spread?

Answer 54

Hand hygiene

Question 55

3PPE in LDU

Answer 55

Rubber gloves
Visor
Apron

Question 56

Who is the person who ensures that the equipments are working in the decontamination unit?

Answer 56

Decontamination user

Question 57

who caries out quarterly and annual testing?

Answer 57

Competent Person (D)

Question 58

Explain each stage of the decontamination cycle

Answer 58

1. Acquisition - purchasing or loaning the device
2. Cleaning - manual cleaning of instruments or using the ultrasonic bath
3. Disinfection - disinfect instruments using washer disinfector
4. inspection - inspect instruments using magnification and light
5. packaging - if instrument is damaged it is packed and disposed or sent for repair
6. Sterilisation - sterilize instruments using type B and N sterilizer
7. Transport - transport instruments to designated area using transport box
8. Storage - label and store
9. Use - use instrument by dentist or dental nurse
10. transport using transport box (red lid box) back to decontamination unit

Question 59

Tooth 11 root canal treated and affected by trauma and has been extracted due to pain , give Kennedy classification of the arch?

Answer 59

Kennedy class 3

Question 60

What other options are available apart from a bridge for extracted 11?

Answer 60

• implant

Question 61

What would be the best bridge design for an extracted central incisor? and why?

Answer 61

adhesive cantilever design
* there are divergent guidance paths on the anterior teeth and a fixed fixed design is not suitable
* It is the least destructive option and if it debonds it is less likely to act as a plaque trap

Question 62

What is the bond between acid etched enamel and the wing of a bridge?

Answer 62

micro-mechanical bond - using panavia cement

Question 63

Give 4 reasons why an adhesive bridge might fail?

Answer 63

• poor oral hygiene
• poor moisture control while cementation
• high occlusal load due to parafunctional habits
• poor bridge design such as inadequate wing dimensions and poor Pontic shape

Question 64

Give three reasons why might a root treated central incisor may be extracted that presents with pain and has been traumatised?

Answer 64

• loss of periodontal attachment due to trauma
• Unrestorable tooth as there is insufficient tooth structure
• Caries
• Periapical pathology

Question 65

What material is used to take an impression for a bridge?

Answer 65

• polyvinyl siloxane
• polyether

Question 66

What metals can be used for the wing retainer of a bridge?

Answer 66

• CoCr
• NiCr

Question 67

Why do we add green stick to the palatine rugae?

Answer 67

• provides relief at the denture bearing area to the patient by adding the green stick to the rugae area

Question 68

Why do we add green stick to the post dam area?

Answer 68

• to enhance the posterior seal of the denture

Question 69

What os the depth that should be left between the special tray and the sulcus?

Answer 69

2mm

Question 70

What should a maxillary master impression include?

Answer 70

• Arch form and size - capture the entire maxillary arch extending from the distal of one tuberosity to the distal of the other tuberosity
• Denture bearing areas - including residual ridge, maxillary tuberosity and palatal tissues
• Peripheral borders - including buccal, labial and palatal vestibules
• Anatomical landmarks - frenulum, incisive papilla and tuberosities

Question 71

What device during jaw registration is used is used for posterior occlusion analysis and what plane does it lie on?

Answer 71

• Fox’s occlusal plane guide and lies on ala-tragus line plane

Question 72

Record block is given with 3 marked lines , what are they?

Answer 72

• centre line
• canine line
• smile line

Question 73

What would you want the dental technician to do before adding teeth on for try in based on your prescription?

Answer 73

Put the registered blocks in holding casts and mount on articulator (semi-adjustable)

Question 74

Wha are 4 differential diagnosis from a tooth with 10mm pocket and pus + failed RCT in an upper anterior tooth?

Answer 74

• periapical periodontitis
• Apical periodontitis
• Periapical abscess
• perio-endo lesion

Question 75

What special tests would you take for tooth presenting with 10mm pocket with pus discharge and a failed RCT?

Answer 75

6PPC
TTP (percussion )
PA radiograph

Question 76

What 5 things to tell a patient about re-rct to gain consent ?

Answer 76

• explain the procedure -> explain why retreatment is necessary such as persistent infection or inadequate previous treatment ( removal of current root filling and replacing it with a new one)
• Discuss potential benefits - such as resolution of symptoms and preservation of tooth
• Discuss risks and complications such as instrument fracture , perforation , failure to resolve infection and post treatment discomfort
• Discuss success rate and prognosis - 75% approximately
• Provide post operative care - such as oral hygiene and pain management using analgesics

Question 77

How much GP would you remove for post placement ?

Answer 77

4-5mm GP

Question 78

What is the function of a core?

Answer 78

• provides structural support to the tooth
  -provides retention for indirect restorations

Question 79

What are the ideal dimensions of a core?

Answer 79

• 5.5 mm height
• 6 degree taper
• 2mm clearance for MCC crown

Question 80

List 3 issues that can rise from iso files and explain how?

Answer 80

• File fracture: excessive torisional stress and inadequate lubrication of the canal
• Ledge formation: curved canals and excessive force applied
• Canal blockage - dentine debris getting packed into the canal

Question 81

Describe the endodontic process of shaping and filing the root canal system using reciproc files R25 ?

Answer 81

• Choose correct instrument
• Prepare 2/3 of the working length with R25 using pecking movements and ensure to clean the instrument and irrigate the canal between every 3 pecks
• Use iso size 10 to determine corrected working length through diagnostic radiograph
• If size iso 10 goes to working length without being precurved, finish apical preparation using R25
• If it needs to be pre-curved, create glide path with iso 15 and if it goes to working length without being precurved, finish apical preparation using R25
• If it needs to be precurved then finish preparation using hand instruments

Question 82

Types of file movements in endodontics

Answer 82

• Filing
• Reaming
• watch winding
• balanced force

Question 83

How many units are there in 2 occluding pre-molar and one molar?

Answer 83

4 units

Question 84

Give 3 advantages of SDA in older patients?

Answer 84

• patient does not need to go through complex treatment
• Patient does not need to spend money on RPD
• Good oral function is maintained
• Easier to perform oral hygiene as RPD require more comprehensive approach to oral hygiene

Question 85

What is the implant success rate past 10 years?

Answer 85

95%

Question 86

5 material risks of the implant you would tell the patient?

Answer 86

• The implant material may corrode
• May cause allergy or sensitivity so ensure to take good history
• May fracture
• infection
• may cause peri-implantitis if no adequate oral hygiene

Question 87

Give 4 signs clinically and radiographically of peri-implantitis?

Answer 87

• inflammation and infection
• Poor oral hygiene
• resorbed alveolar bone around the implant
• increased probing depth around the implant
• Bleeding around the implant

Question 88

What is the difference between peri-implantitis and peri-mucositis?

Answer 88

Peri-implant mucositis is an inflammation that affect the soft tissues around the implant only while peri-implantitis affect the soft tissue and bone surrounding the implant leading to bone loss

Question 89

What 8 things to ask a patient from history who is presenting with TMD?

Answer 89

1. occupation
2. if they are stressed
3. home circumstances
4. sleeping pattern
5. recent bereavement
6. relationships
   7.If they take any medications such as SSRI
7. Any parafunctional habits
8. Any degenerative disease

Question 90

What are 5 reversible treatment advice for patients presenting with TMD?

Answer 90

• Patient education about TMD disease and counseling
• Splints such as bite raising appliance and anterior repositioning splint
• Physical therapy: relaxation and acupuncture
• Medications for pain control: NSAIDS , triccyclic antidepressants and botox
• Jaw exercises such as physiotherapy

Question 91

Give 6 differential diagnosis of TMD?

Answer 91

• Dental pain
• Sinusitis
• ear pathology
• salivary gland pathology
• neoplasm
• infection
• trigeminal neuralgia
• Angina
• condylar fracture

Question 92

Give 4 clinical features of TMD?

Answer 92

• muscle, joint and ear pain particularly on waking up
• headaches
• clicking and popping of joints (TMJ)
• limited mouth opening
• crepitus (can indicate late regenerative disease)
• Intermittent pain in the area of TMJ of several months or years duration
  EXTRA : most common between the ages of 18-30

Question 93

Apart from pain and swelling give 6 other signs of mandibular fracture?

Answer 93

• pain, swelling and limitation of function
• occlusal derangement
• numbness of the lower lip
• loose or mobile teeth
• bleeding
• Anterior open bite
• Facial asymmetry
• Deviation of the mandible to the opposite side

Question 94

What imaging are helpful in the diagnosis of mandibular fracture?

Answer 94

• 2 radiographs at right angle to each other - (OPT and PA mandible)
• Occlusal
• lateral oblique
• CT scans
• town’s view

Question 95

What is the aim when diagnosing a mandibular fracture?

Answer 95

• to assess the extent of the fracture and check displacement and therefore choose the best treatment option

Question 96

What is a compound fracture and how does that affect the treatment of it?

Answer 96

It is a mandibular fracture that communicates with the external environment through a laceration in the skin or mucous membranes it can cause bone exposure leading to increased risk of infection and a more complex treatment

Question 97

Describe resin infiltration?

Answer 97

It is when low viscosity resin is infiltrated into enamel by capillary forces after the enamel is eroded and desiccated, this leads to an appearance that is close to enamel as the resin has a similar infraction index as enamel.

Question 98

Give two other treatment options for tooth discolourations other than resin infiltration

Answer 98

• enamel micro-abrasion
• bleaching (internal or external depending on vitality)

Question 99

What is the advantage of resin infiltration compared to other treatment options?

Answer 99

• no tooth tissue removal
• simple to perform
• does not cause sensitivity as other options

Question 100

What are 4 things a patient with primary herpatic gingivostomatitis might be feeling?

Answer 100

• pain
• fatigue
• irritable
• headaches
• dysphagia

Question 101

other than ulceration and thick gingival give 4 other clinical signs of herpetic gingivostomatitis?

Answer 101

• swollen lymph nodes
• bad breath
• xerostomia
• fever (pyrexia)

Question 102

How does primary herpetic gingivostomatitis occur?

Answer 102

by transmission of herpes simplex virus type 1 through droplets to the child causing the rise of signs and symptoms

Question 103

Mum asks how long will it take for primary gingivostomatitis to get better and if it can happen again, what would you say?

Answer 103

• It can take two weeks to go away on its own with conservative measures
• It can happen again but with a different presentation if the virus is activated in the future as the current presentation is the primary infection and the secondary infection of this virus presents as what is called ‘cold sores’

NOTE : almost 100% of the populations are carriers of herpes simplex virus

Question 104

What are the advantages of metal plate and surgical exposure?

Answer 104

• leads to accurate reduction and stabilisation of fracture
• faster recovery and maintains occlusion
• better aesthetics and reduced scarring and restored facial contours

Question 105

What are the treatment options for primary herpetic gingivostomatisis?

Answer 105

• Hydration
• Bed rest
• Pain management such as paracetamol
• antimicrobial gel or mouthwash

Question 106

What is the difference between recurrent aphthous ulcers and oral ulceration?and recurrent apthous ulcers?

Answer 106

• Recurrent apthous stomatitis only affect non keratinised mucosa while oral ulceration can affect keratinised and non keratinised
• RAS us a condition that occur with no specific aetiology while recurrent oral ulceration is a reaction to a known cause such as trauma or infections

if asked about comparison with recurrent apthous ulcers : RAS is a broad name of recurrent apthous ulcers describing a condition where multiple recurrent ulcers appear in the non keratinised mucosa while RAU refers to isolated recurrent ulcers

Question 107

What are the 3 clinical signs of minor apthous ulcers?

Answer 107

• less than 1cm in diameter
• last up to two weeks
• only affect non keratinised mucosa
• heals without scarring

Question 108

Apart from haematology’s, give 3 other triggers of aphthous ulcers?

Answer 108

• food additives
• coeliac disease
• autoimmune disease
• medications such as NSAIDS

Question 109

Apart from oral ulceration, give 2 other signs of behcet’s disease?

Answer 109

• eye inflammation
• genital sores
• skin ulcers

Question 110

Give 2 non steroid medications for moderate RAU

Answer 110

tetracycline mouthwash
hydrogen peroxide mouthwashes
chlorhexidine mouthwash

Steroid treatment: beclometasone , betamethasone , hydrocortisone

Question 111

Give 4 signs of orofacial granulomatosis?

Answer 111

• oedema in the oral and facial soft tissues that is persistent
• angular cheilitis
• facial erythema
• mucosal tags and oral ulcers

Angioedema is not a sign as it appears quickly and goes away quickly (24

Question 112

Why does OFG cause internal swelling?

Answer 112

Due to an immune reaction causing blockage of lymphatic drainage in the tissues affected

Question 113

Give other granulomatosis disease than can be found in the head and neck other than OFG?

Answer 113

• sarcoidosis
• tuberculosis
• crohn’s disease
• Granulomatosis with poly angitis

Question 114

What is the function of calprotectin in testing children with OFG?

Answer 114

• it can detect if OFG is related to a Crohn’s disease
• It detects Crohn’s disease activity and monitors it

Question 115

Why is it important to monitor a growing young child with OFG?

Answer 115

• to gain accurate diagnosis
• to address any psychological impacts such as depression and issues related to self esteem
• to assess the effectiveness of treatment and manage symptoms as soon as possible to improve the child life quality

Question 116

What is bodily movement and what are the advantages compared to removable appliances?

Answer 116

• movement of whole tooth including root
• removable appliances does not offer precise movements and complex corrections as it only causes the tipping of teeth

Question 117

What three things should you include in orthodontics bracket prescription?

Answer 117

Tip
Torque
in and out control

Question 118

What is your duty as a GDP with a patient whi have fixed appliances?

Answer 118

• ensure adequate oral hygiene and give instructions
• educate patient about the risks and benefits of fixed appliance
• monitor the development of caries and treat it
• monitor the appliance and detect any complications and faults in the appliance such as debonded brackets, root resorption , trauma and other possible complications
• Give patient diet advice such as to avoid sticky, sugary and hard food
• Answer any question a patient may have about their appliance
• Refer to orthodontic department in case of emergency

Question 119

What is the archwire material in the fixed appliance showed in the photo? (a wire that is attached to an ectopic canine for traction)

Answer 119

• Ni-Ti (nickel titnanium)

Question 120

What is good about it and what is its properties?

Answer 120

• Flexible and have good shape memory
• cannot be bent
• exerts light continuous force

Question 121

What are elastic bands used for in orthodontics?

Answer 121

• these are force generating components and are intra-oral elastics, teeth move by utilising the energy stored in the elastics
• they aid in intermaxillary anchorage
• they get damaged by time

Question 122

What 3 sociodemographic groups who are at more risk of oral cancer and which group within them is highest?

Answer 122

• Age - older population
• Sex - more in males
• socioeconomic status - more in poor socioeconomic status

Question 123

What 4 factors contribute to oral cancer?

Answer 123

• smoking
• drinking
• socioeconomic status
• oral health
• sexual activity (especially HPV related cancers)
• paan usage

Question 124

Give down, mid and upstream interventions for oral cancer (2 examples of each)

Answer 124

Upstream
* HPV vaccination for young population
* public health campaigns about oral cancer awareness
Midstream
* education about risks of oral cancer in schools, work places and community centres
* improve access to regular dental check-ups and oral health screening in community health centres
Upstream
* patient education and follow up
* regularly screen high risk people for early signs of cancer (smokers, heavy drinkers)

Question 125

How does the inverse care law affect planning for oral health prevention?

Answer 125

By making access to health care easier for those who need it and making preventive services free or affordable for low income population (maximising access to health care services for people with low income and people with disabilities )