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DEN 7108 Micro and Immuno Concepts Part II > 1/9 Kingsley Caries Microbiology and Immunology > Flashcards

1/9 Kingsley Caries Microbiology and Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Points of intervention for caries development

A
  • fermentable carbohydrates
  • biofilm formation
  • acid formation
  • demineralization (white spot lesions leading to caries)
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2
Q

Common sweeteners and preservatives

A
  • sucrose
  • fructose
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3
Q

Order of most cariogenic sweeteners to least

A

sucrose > fructose > other sweeteners

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4
Q

Bacterial enzymes convert carbohydrates using what enzymes?

A
  • glucosyltransferase (GTF)
  • fructosyltransferase (FTF)
  • virulence factors
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5
Q

Initial colonizers mediate:

A

adhesion to tooth

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6
Q

Initial colonizers of tooth include:

A

S. sanguis, S. mitis

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7
Q

Initial colonizers alter the salivary pellicle to allow ____ to attach

A

S. mutans

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8
Q

Production of glucans and fructans produces ____ which allows for ____ adhesion, through ____ and ____

A

biofilm; sucrose-dependent; glucans binding protein (GBP) and virulence factors

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9
Q

In the production of biofilm, there is a change in _____ which traps ____

A

Diffusion properties; lactic acid

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10
Q

Sucrose-dependent adhesion can modify the:

A

Salivary pellicle

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11
Q

Acid formation occurs through ____ reactions via _____

A

Anaerobic; fermentation pathways

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12
Q

Example of acid formation through anaerobic reaction

A

S. mutans creates glucans and lactic acid

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13
Q

3 components of caries model

A
  • diet (carbohydrates)
  • microbiology (bacteria)
  • biofilm (glucans, fermentation)
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14
Q

True or false: sugar substitutes have lower calories and cannot be fermented or metabolized

A

True

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15
Q

True or false: sugar substitutes do not affect cariogenic process

A

False: reduce it

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16
Q

Example of sugar substitute

A

Sugar alcohol - xylitol, sorbitol, mannitol

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17
Q

Sugar substitutes are considered ____

A

Anti-cariogenic

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18
Q

Sugars are modified via the addition of _____ to be converted into a sugar alcohol

A

OH group

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19
Q

Initial salivary pellicle binding includes ____ organisms such as:

A

gram positive (cocci, bacillus); S. sanguis, S. mitis, Actinomyces naelundii (viscosus)

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20
Q

Modified salivary proteins improve ____ for other microbes such as:

A

Adhesion; S. mutans, Lactobacillus

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21
Q

GBP binds:

A

glucans and fructans

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22
Q

Which bacteria use sucrose-dependent adhesion to adhere to biofilm?

A
  • S. mutans
  • Lactobacillus sp.
  • S. sobrinus
  • S. wiggsiae

All use GBP to bind

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23
Q

S. mutans classification (2)

A
  • Gram positive cocci
  • viridans strep group (alpha hemolytic)
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24
Q

S. mutans serotypes - Human pathogens

A

C, E, F

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25
Q

Percentage of S. mutans correlates with:

A

Sucrose intake

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26
Q

S. mutans virulence factors

A
  • GTF enzyme
  • GBP (adhesion)
  • homolactic fermentation (acidogenic)
  • acid tolerance (aciduric)
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27
Q

Examples of Lactobacillus sp.

A
  • Lactobacillus fermentum
  • Lactobacillus rhamnosus
  • Lactobacillus gasseri
  • Lactobacillus casei/paracasei
  • Lactobacillus salivarius
  • Lactobacillus plantarum
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28
Q

Streptococcus sobrinus is found in:

A

Severe, advanced caries lesions

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29
Q

Early caries is associated with what bacteria?

A
  • S. mutans
  • Lactobacillus
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30
Q

Advanced caries associated with what bacteria?

A
  • S. mutans
  • S. sobrinus
  • S. wiggsiae
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31
Q

Scardovia wiggsiae has higher ____ and lower ____

A

Fluoride tolerance; enolase sensitivity

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32
Q

Fluoride inhibits _____ which prevents entry into ____

A

Enolase; glycolytic pathway

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33
Q

Fluoride forms ____ which makes enamel more resistant to acid

A

Fluorapatite

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34
Q

Fluorosis

A

Discoloration in surface pits and irregularities

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35
Q

Fluoride over exposure during tooth development can lead to:

36
Q

Topical medication used to treat and prevent dental caries

A

Silver diamine fluoride

37
Q

Silver diammine fluoride is used for children with ____ and only on _____

A

SECC (severe early childhood caries); deciduous teeth

38
Q

Silver diamine fluoride may not work on:

A

Scardovia wiggsiae

39
Q

Lysozyme is produced by:

A

Both major and minor salivary glands

40
Q

Lysozyme is known to function as:

A

Potent anti-bacterial agent in most mucus secretions

41
Q

Lysozyme hydrolyzes:

A

beta 1,4 bond between NAG and NAM (peptidoglycan)

42
Q

Hereditary disorder associated with gene for lysozyme

A

Hereditary non-neuropathic systemic amyloidosis

43
Q

True or false: disorders associated with a lack of lysozyme are common

A

False - very rare
Lysozyme is so basic and fundamental to innate immunity

44
Q

True or false: no relationship to oral health risk with hereditary non-neuropathic systemic amyloidosis

A

True - only two known familial cases in recorded medical history

45
Q

Lactoferrin is produced and secreted in:

A
  • saliva
  • tears
  • nasal secretions
  • breast milk
46
Q

Lactoferrin is known to function as a ____ in most mucus secretions that restricts the availability of _____ which are needed for bacterial growth

A

potent antibacterial agent; iron ions

47
Q

Lactoferrin gene polymorphisms (SNPs) confers:

A

protective advantage against caries (against S. mitis, S. mutans)

confers differential oral risk

48
Q

Proline-rich proteins are produced and secreted in _____ and comprise a significant portion of the _____

A

Saliva; salivary pellicle

49
Q

Statherins help to maintain ____ and comprise a significant portion of the _____

A

enamel integrity; salivary pellicle

50
Q

Statherin gene polymorphisms (SNPs) or variants may modulate:

A

Caries risk

51
Q

Statherin SNP example

A

truncated statherin from a 24 bp deletion, missing first 8 N-terminal amino acids

52
Q

Innate immunity and dental caries risk is associated with what proteins/components?

A
  • lysozyme
  • lactoferrin
  • Proline-rich proteins
  • statherins
  • defensins
  • mucins
53
Q

_____ form pores in microbial membranes and are part of the fluid phase of saliva

54
Q

Defensins SNPs: ______ associated with high DMFT scores

A

HBD1 or DEFB1 rs11362

55
Q

_____ are the major class of non-immunoglobin agglutinins

56
Q

Function of non-immunogobin agglutinins

A

Agglutinate or aggregate oral bacteria and inhibit adhesion or colonization on mucosal or tooth surfaces

57
Q

MG2 gene polymorphism (SNP) examples

A
  • MUC7 gene 6/6 had increased caries risk
  • MUC7 gene 5/6 did not exhibit any increase in caries risk
58
Q

Specific immunity and dental caries risk involves:

A
  • IgA and IgM and blood groups
  • primary immunodeficiency
  • autoimmunity and hypersensitivity
59
Q

B and T cells following activation become:

A

Memory cells

60
Q

Immunologic memory allows for _____ immune response

A

More rapid and more robust

61
Q

True or false: IgM has an extra CH domain

A

True (CH4)

62
Q

What joins CH domains of IgM?

63
Q

Which antibody is most efficient at agglutination and complement fixation

64
Q

IgM structure

65
Q

Serum IgA is a:

66
Q

Secretory IgA is a:

67
Q

Secretory IgA CH domains are linked by:

A

J-chain (plasma)

68
Q

Secretory piece of secretory IgA made in:

A

Epithelial

69
Q

Most produced antibody

A

Secretory IgA

70
Q

Lowest DMFT score is found in what blood group

A

O (anti-A and anti-B antibodies)

71
Q

Highest DMFT score is found in what blood group

A

AB (no antibodies)

72
Q

_____ has a low (but not lowest) DMFT score

____ has a higher (but not highest) DMFT score

A

Blood group A; Blood group B

73
Q

Most common immunodeficiency

A

Selective IgA deficiency

74
Q

Selective IgA deficiency: most are asymptomatic due to:

A

IgM compensatory effect

75
Q

Those with Selective IgA deficiency have an _____ in DMFT score

76
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome: SSA autoantibodies affect?

A

Salivary and lachrymal (exocrine) glands

77
Q

Primary manifestation of Sjogren’s syndrome

A

Dry mouth and dry eyes (xerostomia and keratoconjunctivitis sicca)

78
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome treatments

A

Anti-histamines contraindicated, pilocarpine

79
Q

Xerostomia ___ caries risk

80
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome has a greater or lesser DMFT score than IgA deficiency?

A

Greater (4.1x)

81
Q

What bacteria is associated with both early and advanced caries?

82
Q

PRP gene polymorphisms (SNPs) or variants may modulate _____

A

Caries risk

83
Q

Examples of PRP gene polymorphisms

84
Q

PRH1 allelic variants is a ____ gene polymorphism that confers ______ from _____

A

PRP; increased caries risk; low to moderate

85
Q

PRH2 allelic variants is a ____ gene polymorphism that confers ______ from _____

A

PRP; increased caries risk; low to high

86
Q

_____ have increased caries risk regardless of sugar intake or hygiene

A

PRH2 allelic variants

DEN 7108 Micro and Immuno Concepts Part II (27 decks)

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