Week of March 24 Vet Prep Questions

Question 1

A 10-year-old female spayed DSH presents for dropping food and drooling from the left side. She has no history of trauma but recently has had thick ocular discharge which the owner has had to clean regularly. You perform a neurologic exam and find the following (see image). The rest of the exam is within normal limits. What do you inform the owner?

A. The cause is most likely idiopathic and carries a good prognosis
B. Treatment involves corticosteroid administration but prognosis for recovery is still guarded
C. The other side may start to show the same signs within a few weeks to months
D. The recommended treatment is a ventral bulla osteotomy

Answer 1

Answer: C

This patient has the classic finding associated with unilateral facial nerve paresis. Unfortunately, it is most commonly idiopathic; however in cats it can sometimes be caused by things such as nasopharyngeal polyps, neoplasia and trauma.

Prognosis for recovery is guarded and the clinical signs are typically permanent. The unaffected facial nerve can become affected as well.

Treatment for idiopathic disease is supportive including eye lubrication and management of corneal ulcers. Drooling usually resolves over several weeks. Steroids have been used in humans with Bell’s palsy but it has not been shown to be effective in animals.

Otitis media-interna and chronic ear disease can make animals at higher risk for nerve paralysis and a CT of the bulla is recommended rather than radiographs. Bulla osteotomy may be recommended for animals with middle ear disease or those prone to chronic otitis media-interna. In dogs, facial paralysis has been seen with hypothyroidism.

Question 2

What is the most likely complication associated with the post-anesthetic recovery of the dog in the photograph receiving Clotrimazole?

A. Laryngeal inflammation
B. Bacterial rhinitis
C. Aspiration pneumonia
D. Seizure

Answer 2

The correct answer is laryngeal inflammation. As depicted in the picture, there is a sino-nasal fungal infection (likely Aspergillosis) present.

The patient is undergoing a procedure to instill clotrimazole into the frontal sinus and nasal cavity following debridement of the fungal plaques and irrigation with saline. The swabs shown in the picture were placed in the external nares to ensure the clotrimazole stayed in place for 10-15 minutes.

Laryngeal inflammation following intubation is the most common complication seen with this procedure. Seizure is a possible sequela if the cribriform plate is compromised. If this were the case, the complication would likely be fatal. With severe swelling, the administration of corticosteroids and re-intubation is indicated. Sometimes these dogs may need to be intubated for days.

Question 3

Which of the following diseases is primarily transmitted via a soft tick?

A. Staphylococcus hyicus
B. Classical Swine Fever (CSF)
C. African Swine Fever (ASF)
D. Porcine Circovirus type 2 (PCV2)
E. Swine pox

Answer 3

Explanation

The correct answer is African Swine Fever (ASF). AS can be transmitted via direct contact or through one of many species of soft ticks (Ornithodorus spp).

Swine pox can be transmitted by lice.

Question 4

A 5-year-old spayed female Shih Tzu presents on emergency after being left in a car for 30 minutes on a July day in Arizona. Her body temperature is 105.6 F when admitted. After several hours in the ER, she has stabilized, is normothermic, and the owners elect to take her home due to financial constraints. They were directed to follow up with their regular veterinarian the next morning, but elected not to because she seemed to be back to normal. When they return from work, they find the dog has passed away. What is the likely cause of death?

A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Cerebral edema

Answer 4

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the most likely cause of death. The owner would likely have missed the petechiae, ecchymoses and tachypnea/dyspnea that would have developed during the 8-10 hours they were at work. DIC progresses very quickly and can be fatal even if under 24-hour medical care.

A pulmonary embolism is NOT the most likely sequelae of heatstroke.

While cerebral edema can be an INITIAL sign of heat stroke, the owners and ER staff would have seen anisocoria, depressed mentation, facial paralysis, or ataxia.

Although hypoglycemia may be an initial sign of heatstroke, blood glucose would have been regulated before ER discharge.

Question 5

SARDS is a condition seen usually in _________–aged obese female spayed dogs. They develop ______- blindness and initially have no optic or fundoscopic lesions. In 1-2 months, they will develop _____- vascular attenuation and ________- hyperreflectivity.

Answer 5

SARDS is a condition seen usually in middle-aged obese female spayed dogs. They develop acute blindness and initially have no optic or fundoscopic lesions. In 1-2 months, they will develop retinal vascular attenuation and tapetal hyperreflectivity.

Question 6

A stray cat has been dropped off by a good samaritan after having witnessed the cat jump from a 3-story abandoned warehouse. On physical examination the cat has an avulsed lower lip and is very lame on the front left forelimb. Thankfully the cat had a microchip and the owners are eventually located. However, they refuse to spend any money on additional diagnostics. What is the best treatment option for the injuries likely sustained to the left forelimb.

A. Carpal arthrodesis
B. Cage rest for the scapular luxation sustained
C. Reduction of traumatic elbow luxation
D. Dynamic compression plating of the distal radial fracture

Answer 6

It is instinctive for cats to always try to land on their feet and as a result they are predisposed to sustaining hyperextension injuries to the carpal joints when landing from a distance. Disruption of the carpal ligaments carries a guarded prognosis with conservative therapy and stabilization via pancarpal arthrodesis is strongly recommended.

Distal fractures of the radius are a common condition seen in small breed dogs as a result of having decreased blood flow to the distal aspect of the radius. Scapular luxation is rare and surgical repair is recommended. Traumatic luxation is NOT commonly seen secondary to landing from a high distance.

Question 7

The minimum lethal THC dose in dogs is ____ g/kg; however, the ingestion dose is rarely known. If recent ingestion is known, early __________________ (e.g., induction of emesis, administration of activated charcoal) should be performed if the patient is stable. Treatment is mostly based on supportive care for clinical signs (eg., ?, ?). Intravenous __________ emulsion therapy has been reported in severe cases, as THC is a highly _______-soluble compound. Recovery is dose-dependent and may take ____ to ___ hours. Fatalities are rare but have been reported.

Answer 7

The minimum lethal THC dose in dogs is >3 g/kg; however, the ingestion dose is rarely known. If recent ingestion is known, early decontamination (e.g., induction of emesis, administration of activated charcoal) should be performed if the patient is stable. Treatment is mostly based on supportive care for clinical signs (eg., intravenous fluid support, thermoregulation). Intravenous lipid emulsion therapy has been reported in severe cases, as THC is a highly lipid-soluble compound. Recovery is dose-dependent and may take 24 to 72 hours. Fatalities are rare but have been reported.

Question 8

A race horse that has been overworked for the past week presents for a stiff gait, lethargy, anorexia, and oliguria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. NSAID toxicity
B. Ischemic renal failure
C. Pigment nephropaty
D. Pyelonephritis

Answer 8

The correct answer is pigment nephropathy. Pigment nephropathy occurs as a result of myositis (tying up), which this presentation is consistent with.

Nephrosis and subsequent renal failure is caused by large amounts of myoglobin being filtered by the kidney. This usually occurs in horses that have been subjected to extreme conditions such that the animal breaks down a substantial amount of muscle. The same condition can occur with intravascular hemolysis. In this case, the hemoglobin pigment is the culprit. However, this scenario seems to be less common in the horse.

Question 9

A 16-year old, male-neutered cat comes in for further evaluation of intermittent vomiting and anorexia. The cat has a history of renal insufficiency and hyperthyroidism. Both of these are currently being managed well according to the owner. On physical exam the patient is found to be slightly lethargic and perhaps a little dehydrated. After performing blood work there is still no clear indication as to why the patient is not feeling well. The BUN was 42 mg/dl (19-34 mg/dl) and creatinine 2.0 mg/dl (0.9-2.2 mg/dl). The rest of the chemistry panel was unremarkable. The CBC showed a hematocrit of 25% (30-45%) which has been longstanding.
An abdominal ultrasound was performed and a mass associated with the pancreas was identified. The 2cm mass was at the mid-body of the right limb of the pancreas. Chest radiographs were subsequently performed and found to be within normal limits. The owners elected to take the cat for removal of this mass. Which post-operative concern is least likely?

A. Renal values should be monitored closely for signs of acute on chronic renal failure
B. Patient should be monitored closely for increased vomiting and abdominal pain
C. Hypoglycemia post-surgery, which needs close blood glucose monitoring
D. Bilirubin levels should be monitored closely for signs of extrabiliary obstruction

Answer 9

When performing mass resections of the pancreas the ideal situation is a mass associated with the tail of the pancreas. Otherwise they can be very difficult to excise in their entirety and you run the risk of disrupting the flow of pancreatic enzymes into the duodenum. The pancreas is responsible for secreting insulin which is what stimulates glucose to be removed from the blood stream and taken into the cell.
A patient with a mass in the pancreas that is causing hypoglycemia has an insulinoma (seen in dogs). Removal of an insulinoma can occasionally lead to hyperglycemia and diabetes mellitus requiring insulin administration in dogs, but there is no indication of an insulinoma based on the normal blood glucose level on the chemistry panel indicated in the question.
Manipulation of the pancreas can result in pancreatitis and if the inflammation is severe enough an extrahepatic biliary obstruction could occur and result in elevated bilirubin levels. Extrahepatic billiary obstructions secondary to pancreatitis can require surgical intervention.
Clinical signs of pancreatitis will likely manifest themselves in the form of persistent abdominal pain and vomiting.
Since this patient has renal insufficiency it is important to monitor renal values closely. Remember that it takes about 75% of the kidneys to be damaged before the values go up so any elevation in renal values may be cause for alarm. This is particularly important if the patient was hypotensive during surgery and renal perfusion was potentially compromised.

Question 10

Mast cell tumors in horses are _________ and __________ is usually curative. They can occur anywhere on the horse, but are often found in the ________ or ________ of the head or legs. The tumors may also invade underlying musculature, but are often walled off by aggregates of fibrous stroma.

Answer 10

Mast cell tumors in horses are benign and excision is usually curative. They can occur anywhere on the horse, but are often found in the dermis or subcutis of the head or legs. The tumors may also invade underlying musculature, but are often walled off by aggregates of fibrous stroma.

Question 11

A 4-year old female spayed mixed breed dog presents for further evaluation. She has a 24 hour history of increased respiratory rate and decreased appetite. Owners note that she is an indoor/outdoor dog. Based on these radiographs, what is the best treatment?

A. Intravenous furosemide
B. Thoracocentesis
C. Left caudal lung mass removal
D. Pericardiocentesis

Answer 11

Answer: B

Question 12

An air bronchogram is an area of _________ lung ___________ around an ___ filled bronchus. This is usually referred to as an __________ pattern. This can occur with _______________ diseases, severe edema, lung lobe __________, hemorrhage, or some neoplasms.

Answer 12

An air bronchogram is an area of uniform lung consolidation around an air filled bronchus. This is usually referred to as an alveolar pattern. This can occur with inflammatory diseases, severe edema, lung lobe torsions, hemorrhage, or some neoplasms.

Question 13

What is the common lung worm of cattle?

A. Muellerius capillaris
B. Pneumonyssus
C. Dietyoeadlts viviparous
D. Trichophyton verrucosum
E. Dictyocaulus filaria

Answer 13

Answer: C

Question 14

What type of virus is the causative agent of bovine respiratory syncytial virus?

A. Flavivirus
B. Rhabdovirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Herpes virus

Answer 14

Explanation
The correct answer is Paramyxovirus. Rhabdoviruses are responsible for vesicular stomatitis and rabies. Flavivirus causes bovine viral diarrhea. Herpes virus is responsible for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis.

Question 15

A female cockatiel is presented to your clinic for lethargy and poor condition. A thorough history reveals that she has produced an egg every three days for the past 3-4 weeks. Which of the following drugs is used to help stop chronic egg laying in this bird?

A. Methylprednisolone (Depo-Medrol)
B. PGF2-alpha (Lutalyse)
C. Progesterone
D. Leuprolide acetate (Lupron)

Answer 15

Leuprolide acetate is a gonadotropin releasing hormone (GNRH) analog and will shut down the production of reproductive hormones in birds, thus, will often stop ovulation in the laying hen. Female birds are capable of producing eggs (infertile) without the presence of a male, just as chickens do.

Question 16

Raw fish diets contain ___________ which can lead to vitamin ____ (___________) deficiency. Weight _______ with a good appetite and ________- signs are symptoms you should look for. Treatment involves supplementation with ___ or __ complex.

Answer 16

Raw fish diets contain thiaminase which can lead to vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency. Weight loss with a good appetite and neurologic signs are symptoms you should look for. Treatment involves supplementation with B1 or B complex.

Question 17

You are attempting to regulate a 10-year-old female spayed Domestic Shorthair with diabetes mellitus. The cat was started on insulin by another veterinarian approximately one year ago, but glucose curves were performed inconsistently and the cat never showed significant clinical improvement. The cat currently weighs 13 lbs. (down from 13.8 lbs. two weeks ago) and receives 14 units of PZI insulin twice daily. The cat’s most recent CBC and serum biochemistry, performed two weeks ago, revealed no abnormalities except for hyperglycemia. Today’s glucose curve shows a nadir of 190 mg/dL, occurring 6 hours after insulin administration, and a peak of 380 mg/dL. What is your next step?

A. Perform a urine culture and assess serum T4
B. Increase insulin dose to 14 units twice daily
C. Decrease insulin dose to 12 units twice daily
D. Change from PZI insulin to NPH insulin

Answer 17

This cat has persistent hyperglycemia despite receiving an insulin dose of 1 unit per pound of body weight. Therefore, the cat is showing signs of insulin resistance. Causes of insulin resistance in cats include infection, hyperthyroidism, Cushing’s disease, and acromegaly. Initial testing typically includes T4 and urine culture, due to the ease of testing for these conditions and their relatively common nature, but adrenal function testing and growth hormone testing should also be considered if urine culture and T4 levels are normal.

Question 18

Ivermectin is highly toxic in turtles and tortoises, and not necessarily other reptiles, and causes _______, _________, and _______ at low doses due to an ability to cross the ?

Answer 18

Ivermectin is highly toxic in turtles and tortoises, and not necessarily other reptiles, and causes paresis, paralysis, and death at low doses due to an ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.

Question 19

One of your most favorite clients, Mrs. Worthington, is the last appointment of the day. She has brought her 7-year-old female spayed Burmese cat named Matilda in for an eye examination. The cat’s right eye has evidence of blepharospasm, epiphora, serous discharge, and an opaque, brown/black spot mid-cornea overlying layers of ulcerated corneal tissue. Matilda’s nictitating membrane is partially elevated. Direct and indirect PLR’s are normal. On ophthalmic exam, you note an aqueous flare in the anterior chamber. A fluorescein stain test reveals a 4 mm area of stain uptake with a 2 mm dark center. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Grid keratotomy
B. Prescribe triple antibiotic (BNP) ophthalmic ointment
C. Referral to an ophthalmologist
D. Start oral doxycycline

Answer 19

Matilda has a corneal sequestrum - an area of necrotic tissue in the corneal stroma that is located in or near the center of the cornea. While the cause is unknown, predisposing factors are previous corneal ulceration, malformation of the eyelid, keratoconjunctivitis sicca, or FHV-1 infection. The most commonly affected breeds are Burmese, Persians, and Himalayans. This association is thought to be related to their brachycephalic facial conformation and protruding globes. Surgical removal of the sequestrum by an ophthalmologist is considered the treatment of choice. Referral to an ophthalmologist is recommended as corneal sequestrum is best treated by early intervention with a partial lamellar keratectomy, and potentially further treatment with a conjunctival graft or corneal transplant.

Simply disrupting the cornea via grid keratotomy is not sufficient for treatment of this condition.

Starting oral doxycycline is not appropriate as a treatment for a corneal sequestrum.

Prescribing triple antibiotic ophthalmic ointment (BNP; Bacitracin-Neomycin-Polymixin) is not the best choice as cats are known to have allergies to neomycin.

Question 20

Resolution of demodicosis and cessation of treatment requires ______ negative skin scrapes ____ month apart even if all clinical signs have resolved. If the skin scrape is negative you can ____________ Ivermectin use.

Answer 20

Resolution of demodicosis and cessation of treatment requires two negative skin scrapes one month apart even if all clinical signs have resolved. If the skin scrape is negative you can discontinue Ivermectin use.

Question 21

Ehmer slings prevent ______________. Additionally, they aid in maintaining some degree of __________ and __________ rotation of the affected limb. In dogs, they are placed and maintained for 7-10 days.

Velpeau slings are placed on the _____ limb to prevent ________-bearing. They are often placed after _________ shoulder instability surgery.

Spica splints are large padded bandages placed over the affected _____ and ______, often in order to immobilize _________ fractures.

Schroeder-Thomas splints represent another type of splint that has been used in the past for fracture immobilization.

Answer 21

Ehmer slings prevent weightbearing. Additionally, they aid in maintaining some degree of abduction and internal rotation of the affected limb. In dogs, they are placed and maintained for 7-10 days. Velpeau slings are placed on the front limb to prevent weight-bearing. They are often placed after medial shoulder instability surgery. Spica splints are large padded bandages placed over the affected limb and torso, often in order to immobilize proximal fractures. Schroeder-Thomas splints represent another type of splint that has been used in the past for fracture immobilization.

Question 22

Ear mites, such as Otodectes cynotis, can be treated with ?

Answer 22

selamectin, ivermectin, milbemycin, and imidacloprid/moxidectin

Question 23

Which of the following tests has the highest specificity for 200 cats, 100 with the disease and 100 without?
A. 50 true positive, 80 true negative, 50 false negative, 20 false positive
B. 95 true positive, 65 true negative, 5 false negative, 35 false positive
C. 85 true positive, 85 true negative, 15 false negative, 15 false positive
D. 75 true positive, 95 true negative, 25 false negative, 5 false positive

Answer 23

The correct answer is 75 true positive, 95 true negative, 25 false negative, 5 false positive. Specificity is determined by the percentage of true negatives versus false positives in cats that do not have the disease of interest.

Question 24

The most common cause of Bovine Shipping Fever is ______________ _________. Most cattle carry this organism in their _______ respiratory tract as a commensal. When an animal is ____________, low concentrations of pathogenic strains can proliferate and infect the lungs. Shipping fever has a multifactorial etiology, often involving both bacterial and viral infections. (3)? are less common causes of shipping fever, and each is associated with a slightly different pathology.

Answer 24

The most common cause of Bovine Shipping Fever is Mannheimia hemolytica. Most cattle carry this organism in their upper respiratory tract as a commensal. When an animal is stressed, low concentrations of pathogenic strains can proliferate and infect the lungs. Shipping fever has a multifactorial etiology, often involving both bacterial and viral infections. Histophilus somni, Pasteurella multocida, and Mycoplasma are less common causes of shipping fever, and each is associated with a slightly different pathology.

Question 25

You are called to a dairy farm to examine a cow that appeared uncomfortable in the milking parlor earlier in the day. When you arrive at the farm, you learn that no other issues have been noted within the herd and bulk milk tank somatic cell counts have been normal. On your physical exam, you note that the cow has a temperature of 101.6°F, pink/moist mucous membranes, and no abnormalities on thoracic or abdominal auscultation. When you examine the mammary glands, you observe that one quarter is firm and painful upon milking. Milk expressed from the affected quarter is thickened, with fibrinous clots. What treatment do you recommend? A. Intramuscutar administration of Penicitin G to the entire herd B. Strip the affected quarter several times a day C. Intramammary infusion of pirlimycin to the affected cow D. Intramammary infusion of pirlimyein and intramuscular injections of Penicillin G to the entire herd E. Intramuscular administration of Penicillin G to the affected cow

Answer 25

An intramammary infusion of pirlimycin to the affected cow is the best treatment for mild clinical mastitis. The producer must also follow withdrawal period guidelines to keep the treated cow's milk out of the food supply for the required amount of time and/or until there are no detectable antibiotics in the milk. The cow is not showing systemic symptoms, which makes systemic antibiotics unnecessary. Treating all cows in the herd is not necessary unless there is a subclinical mastitis problem in the herd, which would be indicated by high somatic cell counts (SCC) in bulk milk tank samples. Stripping the affected quarter several times a day is recommended in any clinical mastitis case, but is unlikely to eliminate this infection without the addition of antibiotics.

Question 26

You are called to investigate a spring disease outbreak in a feedlot. The owner began feeding these cattle from a new batch of silage approximately 10 days ago. The silage appeared to have an "off" odor, but the cattle ate it readily and have continued to do so. Now a number of cattle are acutely ill. At first, the affected cattle were anorexic and depressed. Additional signs are now being observed, such as circling, leaning against walls and other objects, unilateral facial paralysis, and drooping ears. What diagnostic test would be best to confirm your suspected diagnosis? A. CSF tap B. Culture of nasal secretions C. Serology D. Fecal culture E. Urine culture

Answer 26

These signs and history are consistent with listeric encephalitis, caused by Listeria monocytogenes. Cattle most commonly suffer from encephalitis when infected with Listeria. Septicemic or visceral listeriosis is most common in monogastric animals. The uterus of domestic animals is susceptible to infection with this organism and can result in abortion, but this is not the most common manifestation in cattle. The best test for listeric encephalitis is a CSF tap, looking for increased protein concentration and a mild pleocytosis (consisting primarily of large mononuclear cells). In some cases, the bacteria can be isolated from nasal secretions, urine, or feces, but this is not reliably the case. Serology is not recommended because many animals have high titers in the absence of disease.

Question 27

You are called to examine a pregnant ewe. The ewe is due to give birth in two weeks per the owner's records. Two days ago, the ewe started to show signs of depression and anorexia. The owner separated her from the rest of the herd for supplemental feeding and careful monitoring. This morning, she developed mild muscle tremors and began to act uncoordinated, prompting the owner to contact you. By the time you arrive at the farm, the ewe is ataxic and reluctant to rise. You perform a serum -hydroxybutyrate (BHB) assay. The ewe's BHB is 2 mmol/L (reference range: <1 mmol/L). This is a valuable breeding ewe and the owner wants the best possible outcome for her. What treatment do you recommend? A. Administer prostagtandin F20 B. Administer dexamethasone C. Administer oral calcium supplementation D. Administer intravenous propylene glycol

Answer 27

The ewe's clinical signs and elevated BHB level are consistent with a diagnosis of pregnancy toxemia. This condition typically occurs in ewes and goats during the last 2-4 weeks of gestation, especially those that are pregnant with twins or triplets. The fetus needs more nourishment than the ewe or doe is taking in, resulting in hypoglycemia and ketosis of the ewe and potential death of the fetus. Given the ewe's rapid decline and the owner's desire to save her as a breeding animal, the best option is to induce parturition immediately. In ewes, this is achieved through the administration of dexamethasone. In does, dexamethasone or prostaglandin F2a can be utilized to induce parturition. Propylene glycol can be administered as an energy source, but it is given orally and not intravenously. Oral calcium supplementation may also play a role in treatment, but it will not work quickly enough to benefit this ewe.

Question 28

A dog presents to your clinic for coughing and fever a week after going hunting. You work the dog up, perform bronchoscopy and remove a plant awn from the lungs. What bacterial infection is this dog predisposed to? A. Staphylococcus pseudointermedius B. Pasteurella multocida C. Nocardia D. Actinomyces E. Staphylococcus aureus

Answer 28

The correct answer is Actinomyces. This is a filamentous, branching, gram positive bacteria that is a normal inhabitant of the mouth and oropharynx. It is commonly associated with grass awn migration. These are usually contaminated in the oropharynx and then migrate through the body from the respiratory or Gl tracts. Many times it takes months to years to make a diagnosis. Nocardia is a ubiquitous soil saprophyte found everywhere and is usually introduced via the respiratory tract.

Question 29

Which of the following avian diseases is considered to be zoonotic? A. Avian encephalomyelitis Your Answer B. Lymphoid leukosis C. Infectious bursal disease D. Chlamydophila psittaci

Answer 29

Answer: D The correct answer is Chlamydophila psittaci. This is the causative organism of avian chlamydiosis, a disease of pet birds, poultry, and wild avian species. It is also the cause of parrot fever or psittacosis in humans.

Question 30

Fluffy is a 7-year-old male neutered Domestic Shorthair who presents for a history of hiding under the bed for the past week. He weighs 17 pounds, although you estimate that his ideal body weight would be 12 pounds; therefore, you diagnose him with a body condition score of 8/9. The client states that he is sure Fluffy has not eaten for the past two days and he is unsure whether Fluffy is drinking water. The client also found a small pile of dried vomit. During the physical exam, you do not appreciate any significant dehydration. However, given his inappetence and the uncertainty about whether he is drinking, you advise the owner that you would like to start IV fluids while awaiting the results of the CBC, biochemistry, and urinalysis. What maintenance fluid rate do you select? A. 39 ml/hr B. 25 mthr C. 14 ml/hr D. 17 ml/hr E. 9 ml/hr

Answer 30

In an obese cat such as Fluffy, the fluid rate should be calculated based on the patient's lean weight instead of actual weight. Fat has a lower water content than other tissues. According to the 2013 AAHA/AAFP guidelines for fluid therapy, the formula to calculate maintenance fluids in cats is: 80 x body weight (kg) 0.75 or 60ml/kg/day Therefore, the correct answer to this question is 13.75 or 14ml/hr.

Question 31

Color dilution alopecia is often seen in which of the following breeds of dogs? A. White German Shepherd Dog B. Dalmatians C. Merle Australian Shepherds D. Fawn-colored Doberman Pinschers

Answer 31

The correct answer is fawn-colored Doberman Pinschers. Yorkshire Terriers are also commonly affected. Color dilution alopecia is a hereditary alopecia that only affects the areas that are color diluted. Treatment is difficult. There are anecdotal reports that suggest retinoic acid and melatonin can be beneficial.

Question 32

Which of the following swine pathogens is known to attach to and disrupt the pulmonary mucociliary apparatus? A. Salmonella choleraesuis B. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae C. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae D. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRSv) E. Porcine circovirus type 2 (PCV2)

Answer 32

The correct answer is Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae. The bacteria attach to the pulmonary mucociliary apparatus and thus prevent it from functioning properly. This in turn makes the lungs much more susceptible to other bacterial infections.

Question 33

Cattle are infected by the protozoan Sarcocystis cruzi when they do which of the following? A. Ingest dog feces in contaminated feed or water B. Lick aborted fetus or membranes from another cow C. Are pastured with lambing ewes D. Ingest feed containing contaminated ruminant meat by-products

Answer 33

The dog is the definitive host of sarcocystis and the mode of spread is via ingestion of infected dog feces containing sarcocystis oocysts.

Question 34

In autumn, a 3-year old Texel ram presents with swelling and edema of the face (see image). There is no hemorrhage or apparent gas pockets. The ram is dull and depressed with a rectal temperature of 106 F (41.1 C). The mucous membranes are congested and submandibular lymph nodes cannot be palpated due to edema. This is the only ram clinically affected. What treatment or management recommendation is most appropriate? A. Cull the affected ram and treat the other sheep in the herd with penicillin B. Treat all sheep in herd with oxytetracyeline C. Eliminate scabrous feeds D. Treat affected ram with sodium iodide E. Treat the affected ram with penicillin

Answer 34

The most likely condition to consider based on the image and presentation is bighead (caused by Clostridium novyi, C. sordelli, or rarely C. chauvoei). Bluetongue is less likely based on one sheep being affected. Treatment with penicillin is usually effective. Culling or treating all animals is unnecessary as Clostridium is found in the soil and feces of healthy animals. Bighead is caused when the organism enters through wounds obtained during head butting activities. The disease can be fatal if untreated. The key to reducing the incidence of this disease is management to reduce head wounds and vaccination with multivalent clostridial toxoids. Another q asking about this: The correct answer is debridement and penicillin. Culling is unnecessary as Clostridium novyi is found in the soil and feces of healthy animals. Bighead is caused when it enters through wounds obtained during head butting activities. The disease can be fatal if untreated. The key to reducing the incidence of this disease is management to reduce head wounds and vaccination with multivalent clostridial toxoids.

Question 35

Endotoxemia is a term applied when an animal exhibits multiple adverse clinical signs including one or more of the following: fever or hypothermia, leukopenia, tachycardia, tachypnea, obtundation, and a change in gut motility. These physiologic effects are caused by what? A. Bacterial lipopolysaccharide B. Cell wall components of Gram positive bacteria C. DNA from Gram negative bacteria D. Exotoxins from Clostridial organisms E. An adverse reaction to aspirin, phenylbutazone or other NSAIDs

Answer 35

The cell walls of all Gram negative bacteria contain varying amounts of lipopolysaccharide, which in turn varies in its potency to create adverse reactions in animals. The signals have evolved on monocytes and macrophages to warn the animal when a Gram negative bacterium has gained access. When the reaction to this signal is overzealous, a cascade of adverse physiologic reactions can occur.

Question 36

You are asked to examine a falcon which has been dysphagic and losing weight. You note whitish plaques in the back of the oral cavity. You make a saline smear of the feces and see motile trophozoites and suspect Trichomonas. What is the most appropriate treatment? A. Clindamycin B. Metronidazole C. Ivermectin D. Fenbendazole E. Paraquat

Answer 36

The correct answer is metronidazole. The other drugs listed are not effective against Trichomonas. Carnidazole is another drug that is used frequently.

Question 37

You are called to a local sheep farm that has been experiencing an increase in sudden deaths. The owner has had several young lambs show ataxia, stiffness, trembling, and convulsions, which progressed to death within approximately an hour. You examine a lamb that is showing mild signs of illness. This lamb is dull and depressed, with respiratory difficulties. You obtain a blood sample and note hyperglycemia. You also perform a necropsy on a lamb that died earlier that morning. On necropsy, you note the presence of yellow-colored pericardial, thoracic, and abdominal fluid; pulmonary congestion and edema, with subserosal hemorrhages; and a renal parenchyma that is soft and autolyzed. Based on these findings, you arrive at a presumptive diagnosis. Which of the following predisposing factors likely contributed to the death of these lambs? A. Being born a twin B. Matnourishment C. High carbohydrate diet D. Open wounds in the skin

Answer 37

The history, exam, and necropsy findings are all consistent with enterotoxemia, caused by Clostridium perfringens Type D. Enterotoxemia in young lambs is also called overeating disease. (Enterotoxemia is also called pulpy kidney disease due to post-mortem autolysis of the kidney, but this is not seen in all cases.) Predisposing factors are essential for disease to present. Young lambs that are on high-carbohydrate diets are most predisposed for this disease, usually either in the form of excess milk or excess grain if weaned. The disease occurs less often in lambs that feed on lush green pastures. As carbohydrate intake increases, a suitable medium for bacterial overgrowth occurs. Twin lambs generally do not get enough milk from the ewe to succumb to this disease and open wounds in the skin do not contribute to this clostridial disease as it is endogenous.

Question 38

A 25-month old female rat presents to you for weakness. On exam, you note generalized ataxia, most pronounced in both forelimbs. There is mild left sided exophthalmia and you note the rat pressing its head against the side of its cage. The owner is not interested in diagnostic tests or treatment and feels the rat's quality of life is poor but you are both very interested in finding out the cause of the rat's signs. You perform a gross necropsy and see the abnormality shown in the image below. What is this condition? A. Pituitary adenoma B. Glioblastoma multiforme C. Bacterial meningitis D. Cerebellar abiotrophy E. Cerebellar hypoplasia F. Hydrocephalus

Answer 38

Pituitary tumors are most common in older female rats and can produce clinical signs from mechanical growth (as described in this question) or related to hormonal disturbances (such as lactation, decreased fertility, PU/PD). This is a macroadenoma which is usually defined as > 10 mm in diameter. Treatment options are usually limited to steroids to temporarily decrease swelling associated with the tumor and nursing care.

Question 39

It is summer in the hills of coastal California. During spring and early summer, cattle in the area were eating the plant shown in the photo, before other forage was available. Which of the following disorders might occur in cattle which ate a large amount of the plant shown? A. Liver failure B. Cardiac arrhythmia C. Cyanide toxicosis D. CNS signs E. Bone marrow suppression

Answer 39

The plant is bracken fern and it contains a toxic glycoside (ptaquiloside) plus thiaminase. In cattle, chronic bracken fern ingestion (consumption of the animal's body weight over several months) can result in bone marrow suppression, as well as alkylation of DNA leading to tumors. The problem will manifest as hemorrhages, hematuria, and/or cancers in the bladder or other organs. The bone marrow suppression leads to anemia and neutropenia. The thiaminase seems to affect horses more than cattle. Horses develop thiamine deficiency manifested as weight loss, ataxia, lethargy, tremors, recumbency, and death.

Question 40

What is the proper anatomical location for performing a lumbosacral CS tap in cattle? A. Between the dorsal spinous process of L4 cranially and L5 caudally and the tuber sacrales laterally B. Between the dorsal spinous process of S1 cranially and S2 caudally and the tuber sacrales laterally C. Between the dorsal spinous process of L7 cranially and S1 caudally and the tuber sacrales laterally D. Between the dorsal spinous process of L6 cranially and S1 caudally and the tuber sacrales laterally

Answer 40

The correct answer is between the dorsal spinous process of L6 cranially and S1 caudally and the tuber sacrales laterally.

Question 41

What is the duration of estrus in a goat? A. 6 to 12 hours B. 2 weeks C. 18 to 48 hours D. 5 to 6 days

Answer 41

The correct answer is 18 to 48 hours. The entire estrous cycle lasts about 21 days during the breeding season. The average duration of standing estrus is 36 hr but can range from 24 to 48 hr depending on age, breed, season, and presence of a male. Breed-specific estrus duration has been reported for Mossi (20 hr), Angora (22 hr), Creole (27 hr), French Alpine (31 hr), Boer (37 hr), and Matou (58 hr) breeds. Ovulation normally occurs about 24 hours after the start of estrus.

Question 42

A chicken producer is concerned that geese infected with West Nile virus were found near his farm. He has instituted strict biosecurity measures for his chickens as well as a mosquito control regimen. Which of the following additional recommendations is most appropriate? A. Advise the farmer that adding sutfonamides to the water has been shown to decrease the morbidity of West Nite virus in chickens B. Advise the farmer that adding sutfonamides to the water has been shown to decrease the morbidity of West Nite virus in chickens C. Advise the farmer to monitor for development of any neurologic signs in his chickens and immediately euthanize affected chickens because they are likely infected with West Nile virus D. Advise the farmer that vaccination of the chickens will decrease the risk of them developing encephalitic signs from West Nile virus

Answer 42

Crows, geese, and exotic birds are susceptible to clinical disease from West Nile virus. Many birds and mammals can become transiently infected if bitten by mosquitoes that are infected with West Nile virus. However, there is no evidence that clinical disease develops in chickens or turkeys. Chickens and turkeys quickly develop antibodies and clear the virus. Infected poultry are also not thought to represent a reservoir for the virus or a significant public health risk.

Question 43

Which of the following suture patterns results in an inversion of sutured edges? A. Bunnel pattern B. Ford interlocking pattern C. Horizontal mattress pattern D. Lembert pattern

Answer 43

The correct answer is Lembert pattern. The Lembert pattern is a variation of a vertical mattress pattern. It is often used to close hollow viscera. The Bunnel pattern is a suture that is used to appose severed tendons. The Ford interlocking pattern is used to help appose tissues that have increased tension. The horizontal mattress pattern results in eversion of tissues.

Question 44

Which of the following organisms has been associated with spirochaetal colitis in swine? A. Brachyspira pilosicoli B. Trichuris suis C. Salmonella Typhimurium D. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae E. Lawsonia intracellularis

Answer 44

The correct answer is Brachyspira pilosicoli. B. hyodysenteriae is the causative organism for swine dysentery. Lawsonia intracellularis causes ileitis. Trichuris suis is the porcine whipworm. Salmonella Typhimurium is associated with button ulcers in the colon.

Question 45

A. Diltiazem and furosemide B. Mexiletine C. Pimobendan D. Amlodipine

Answer 45

The correct answer is mexiletine. The Holter ECG shows a couplet of ventricular premature complexes. If frequent ventricular ectopy is seen, particularly with runs or R-on-T episodes, treatment is advised with oral ventricular antiarrhythmics. Mexiletine is an oral class I antiarrhythmic that is well-tolerated in dogs. Pimobendan improves systolic function, but does not treat arrhythmias. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used for patients with systemic hypertension. Diltiazem is used for supraventricular tachycardias to slow conduction down the AV node. Furosemide is a diuretic used in the treatment of heart failure, it does not have antiarrhythmic properties.

Question 46

Sarcoids are one of the most common tumors in horses. They are considered non-_________ tumors in virtually all cases. For this reason, small lesions are sometimes treated with benign neglect, but they are not expected to ________. More advanced lesions or tumors in certain sites do need to be treated more aggressively. Unfortunately, no single treatment is universally effective. Recurrence rates after surgical excision are approximately ____%. Although there is still controversy surrounding this issue, either bovine __________ or an equine variant is thought by many to play a role in development of these tumors.

Answer 46

Sarcoids are one of the most common tumors in horses. They are considered non-metastatic tumors in virtually all cases. For this reason, small lesions are sometimes treated with benign neglect, but they are not expected to regress. More advanced lesions or tumors in certain sites do need to be treated more aggressively. Unfortunately, no single treatment is universally effective. Recurrence rates after surgical excision are approximately 50%. Although there is still controversy surrounding this issue,either bovine papillomavirus or an equine variant is thought by many to play a role in development of

Question 47

What is the underlying cause of postparturient hemoglobinuria? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypophosphatemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypomagnesemia

Answer 47

The correct answer is hypophosphatemia; one observes decreased erythrocyte ATP which is not compatible with maintenance of ATP-dependant membrane pumps, and cells lyse.

Question 48

Although the specific toxic principle in black walnuts responsible for causing laminitis or acute lameness in horses is unknown, evidence suggests ________ (a napthaquinone) plays a role. Do not use black walnuts for horse bedding.

Answer 48

Although the specific toxic principle in black walnuts responsible for causing laminitis or acute lameness in horses is unknown, evidence suggests juglone (a napthaquinone) plays a role. Do not use black walnuts for horse bedding.

Question 49

Testing for serum LH levels can also help confirm the diagnosis of ovarian remnant syndrome. In intact queens, LH is consistently maintained at ________ levels due to negative feedback from ovarian ________ secretion. After OVH, this control is lost and LH concentrations _________. LH ‹___ng/mL is consistent with the presence of an ovary as it is in this case.

Answer 49

Testing for serum LH levels can also help confirm the diagnosis of ovarian remnant syndrome. In intact queens, LH is consistently maintained at basal levels due to negative feedback from ovarian estradiol secretion. After OVH, this control is lost and LH concentrations increase. LH ‹1 ng/mL is consistent with the presence of an ovary as it is in this case.

Question 50

Dr. Mana notices some discrepancies between the charged services and patient medical records for her practice. On average, the clinic is performing twenty-five fecal parasite tests weekly. However, an average of only twenty of those tests is being invoiced. The clinic charges $30 for a fecal parasite test. After doing the math, Dr. Mana realizes that the clinic is losing around $7,800 per year to missed charges for this item alone. Which of the following is the most appropriate option for reducing missed charges? A. Designate a single staff member to input all client charges. B. Code all invoice items individually rather than utilizing group service codes. C. Use a travel sheet to keep track of all procedures performed during the visit. D. Require all charges to be entered as each service is performed.

Answer 50

Use of travel sheets is recommended to prevent missed charges. Designating a single staff member to input all charges is not recommended. Instead, having more than one staff member enter and double check charges is recommended. The use of group service codes is recommended to streamline the invoicing process and avoid missed charges. Requiring all services to be charged out as completed is not recommended due to the efficiency problems this would create.

Question 51

What is the primary reservoir of Yersinia pestis? A. Lice B. Rodents C. Ticks D. Mites

Answer 51

The correct answer is rodents. Rats are considered to be the major reservoir. The primary means of transmission is via the flea.

Question 52

A 13-year old female Dachshund presents for 2 lumps on her abdomen. Your physical exam reveals that both lumps are 2.5 cm mammary masses in the 5th mammary gland. The associated inguinal lymph node is prominent. Aspirates of the lymph node show sheets of epithelial cells on cytology. Both mammary masses are firm and nodular in shape. Which of the following is true? A. The firmness and nodularity of the masses is a negative prognostic indicator B. The size of each mass is a negative prognostic indicator C. Having 2 mammary masses is a negative prognostic indicator Mammary tumors in the 5th gland is a negative prognostic indicator D. The lymph node aspirate results are a negative prognostic indicator

Answer 52

Answer: D You should never find sheets of epithelial cells in a lymph node unless it is infiltrated with metastasis (or unless you aspirated something else on accident, like a salivary gland). Metastasis of mammary gland tumors in dogs is a negative prognostic indicator, whereas none of the other choices above are thought to directly influence prognosis.

Question 53

An abnormal electroretinogram localizes a lesion to where? A. Retina or optic nerve B. Optic nerve C. Preretinal (cornea, anterior chamber, lens) D. Retina E. Retina, optic nerve, or brain

Answer 53

The correct answer is retina. An ERG measures nerve impulses generated by the retina in response to a flash of light. Even if there is an abnormality in the optic nerve or brain, if the retina is functioning normally, the ERG will be normal. Even with preretinal lesions such as a complete cataract or corneal edema, enough light is transmitted through to the retina to yield a response.

Question 54

One 3-week old calf in a group of young calves being fed milk replacer has been depressed, growing poorly and appears unthrift with a rough hair coat. She recently began kicking at her flank, teeth grinding, and vocalizing with an arched back. She has developed white, putty-like feces and is dehydrated. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the problem? A. Excessive carbohydrate in the milk replacer B. Dysfunction of the esophageal groove C. Congenital rumen stasis D. Atresia coli E. Intussusception of the small intestine

Answer 54

This is a typical description of esophageal groove dysfunction in a calf resulting in rumen acidosis. To review normal physiology, the esophageal groove (also known as reticular groove) is a specialized part of the ruminant stomach that closes in response to drinking milk, directing it directly to the abomasum. When dysfunctional, milk goes to the rumen where it is fermented by rumen microbes and converted to volatile fatty acids and lactic acid. The resulting rumen acidosis leads to the clinical signs described in this case. For this reason, this phenomenon is sometimes referred to as rumen drinking.

Question 55

Why are horses more predisposed to gastric ulceration as compared to other species? A. They are predisposed to gastric reflux disease B. They constantly secrete gastric fluid C. They are hind gut fermentors D. They are easily stressed E. They have an underdeveloped gastric wall

Answer 55

The correct answer is they constantly secrete gastric fluid. This is unique to equids, as many other species only secrete gastric fluids in response to consumption of food items.

Question 56

An owner wants to eventually breed his newborn lamb and wants to know when she will reach puberty. What is your answer? A. 8-9 months B. 10-12 months C. 15 months D. 5-7 months

Answer 56

Ewes and does reach puberty at 5-7 months. Cows reach puberty at about 13-15 months but may become pregnant earlier and should be separated from bulls well before a year of age. The age of puberty in sheep is dependent on breed, when the animal was born, genetics, size, and nutrition. Finns and Romanovs are earlier, meat breeds next, and many wool breeds reach puberty latest. Thus the range can be 5 to 12 months. Your answer will thus have to be crafted for the particular situation, but the owner needs to be aware that it may happen as early as 5 months.

Question 57

The horse has thrush, a condition often caused by ______________ _____________ in horses. The condition is usually caused by unsanitary conditions, poor foot care, and lack of exercise. Systemic antibiotics and corticosteroids are usually unnecessary. Treatment involves ________ away necrotic hoof material, applying ________ products, applying a _______, and educating the client on proper hygiene.

Answer 57

The horse has thrush, a condition often caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum in horses. The condition is usually caused by unsanitary conditions, poor foot care, and lack of exercise. Systemic antibiotics and corticosteroids are usually unnecessary. Treatment involves trimming away necrotic hoof material, applying antiseptic products, applying a bandage, and educating the client on proper hygiene.

Question 58

Question 59

Answer 59

Question 60

Question 61

Glasserella parasuis (formerly named Haemophilus parasuis) causes Glasser's disease, which is usually characterized by sudden death but can often also lead to painful joints, pneumonia, and occasionally neurologic signs. Lesions show fibrinopurulent pleuritis, pericarditis, and peritonitis. Meningitis is usually responsible for the cause of neurologic signs and seizures. This disease most commonly affects piglets from 2 weeks to 4 months of age.

Question 62

Answer 62

Both Japanese yew (Taxus cuspidata) and English yew (T. baccata) contain alkaloids called taxines that are highly toxic and depress myocardial conduction by blocking sodium movement through membranes. Collapse and sudden death are commonly seen when this plant is ingested, often when clippings are consumed by livestock. Oleander causes similar clinical scenarios.

Question 63

Which of these is considered a hepatic enzyme induced by cholestasis in the dog? A. Bilirubin B. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) D. Creatinine

Answer 63

The correct answer is gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT). The hepatic leakage enzymes are AST and ALT, meaning that damage to hepatocytes causes leakage of these enzymes and subsequent elevations of serum levels. ALP and GGT are hepatic enzymes produced by the bile duct epithelium that have increased synthesis when there is cholestasis. Bilirubin is a product of the liver and is not an enzyme. Creatinine is a product produced by muscle, usually used to evaluate renal function and GFR.

Question 64

A balance sheet is a report on the financial condition of the practice. It lists practice ______, ______ and owner(s) _______ at a specific point in time. It does not track income or cash flow over a period but is more of a _________ of the company's condition. A profit and loss statement is the document which reports on _________ and _______ over a period of time. A cash flow statement is the document which reports on ______ and _____ of cash over a period of time.

Answer 64

A balance sheet is a report on the financial condition of the practice. It lists practice assets, liabilities and owners) equity at a specific point in time. It does not track income or cash flow over a period but is more of a snapshot of the company's condition. A profit and loss statement is the document which reports on income and expenses over a period of time. A cash flow statement is the document which reports on sources and uses of cash over a period of time.

Question 65

Patients with Addison's disease have hypoadrenocorticism. This means that the patient is not producing an adequate amount of glucocorticoids. During times of stress Addisonian patients require additional amounts of ________ or else they are at risk of going into a _______. The exact amount of additional glucocorticoid to administer is not known but it is generally accepted that patients should receive __-___ times a __________ dose of prednisone. The physiologic dose of prednisone is considered by many to be _____ mg/kg/day but there is some variation depending on the source. Therefore the best answer is to give a dose of dexamethasone that is approximately 5 times the physiologic dose of prednisone followed by twice the regular dose of prednisone the following day. The patient is likely receiving deoxycorticosterone pivalate (Percorten) which is given at approximately ___-____ day intervals and is a means of providing the necessary __________. An alternative treatment for mineralocorticoid replacement is ___________ __________. This medication needs to be administered _____.

Answer 65

Patients with Addison's disease have hypoadrenocorticism. This means that the patient is not producing an adequate amount of glucocorticoids. During times of stress Addisonian patients require additional amounts of glucocorticoids or else they are at risk of going into a crisis. The exact amount of additional glucocorticoid to administer is not known but it is generally accepted that patients should receive 2-10 times a physiologic dose of prednisone. The physiologic dose of prednisone is considered by many to be 0.1 mg/kg/day but there is some variation depending on the source. Therefore the best answer is to give a dose of dexamethasone that is approximately 5 times the physiologic dose of prednisone followed by twice the regular dose of prednisone the following day. The patient is likely receiving deoxycorticosterone pivalate (Percorten) which is given at approximately 25-28 day intervals and is a means of providing the necessary mineralocorticoids. An alternative treatment for mineralocorticoid replacement is fludrocortisone acetate (Florinef). This medication needs to be administered daily.

Question 66

Dogs that are ___-___ ________ of age are most susceptible to distemper virus infection. However, in dog populations where vaccination is poorly practiced, all dogs may be affected. Before __ _______ puppies are most likely protected through maternal antibodies. CDV is very contagious and spread mainly via aerosolized _________ secretions. The virus is shed for several weeks after infection.

Answer 66

Dogs that are 3-6 months of age are most susceptible to distemper virus infection. However, in dog populations where vaccination is poorly practiced, all dogs may be affected. Before 3 months, puppies are most likely protected through maternal antibodies. CDV is very contagious and spread mainly via aerosolized respiratory secretions. The virus is shed for several weeks after infection.

Question 67

A 3-year-old intact female Rottweiler presents for possible tapeworms. The owner describes seeing small segments "like grains of rice" around the patient's anus and in her bedding. The dog is on a high-quality flea/tick prevention that was purchased from you and has been used as prescribed. The owner has not seen any fleas on the dog, and you likewise find no evidence of fleas during your physical exam. The owner has already had the inside and outside environments treated three times over the past eight weeks by a professional exterminator. The client vacuums daily and properly disposes of the vacuum bags. Moreover, the client has treated the dog twice with an over-the-counter fenbendazole product that is labeled for tapeworm eradication in dogs of this weight class. There are no other pets in the household. Which of the following is the most likely reason the owner still sees tapeworms? A. The dog has not been treated with an adequate amount of fenbendazole B. The tapeworms have developed resistance to fenbendazole C. The dog is still encountering fleas in the environment and is being reinfected with tapeworms D. The dog is infected with a tapeworm species that is not susceptible to fenbendazole E. The dog is not infected with tapeworms, but with an entirely different parasite that presents similarly

Answer 67

The best answer to this question is the dog is infected with a tapeworm species that is not susceptible to fenbendazole. While fenbendazole is effective against Taenia species, it has no activity against the more common tapeworm, Dipylidium caninum, which requires praziquantel for treatment. The history and the owner's diligence make the likelihood that the dog is still encountering fleas and being reinfected with tapeworms very low. There is no known emergence of resistance to fenbendazole in formerly susceptible tapeworm species, and there is no other currently known canine parasite that presents with the classic "grain of rice" description.

Question 68

Taurine is an essential amino acid for cats because they ________ synthesize it. Taurine deficiency causes _______ Since this condition is relatively _________ otherwise in cats, taurine deficiency should be suspected in any cat with ____.

Answer 68

Taurine is an essential amino acid for cats because they cannot synthesize it. Taurine deficiency causes dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). Since DCM is relatively uncommon otherwise in cats, taurine deficiency should be suspected in any cat with DCM.

Question 69

Which of the following is not a cause of dysphagia in the horse? A. Yellow star thistle poisoning B.Guttural pouch infection C. Lead poisoning D. Bracken fern

Answer 69

Answer: D Bracken fern will result in thiamine deficiency.

Question 70

Urethral prolapse is a relatively rare condition in dogs; however, it is most often seen in young male _________ ________. Although the etiology is unknown, it is suspected that ______ excitement, masturbation, genitourinary infection, and ______ may play a role. Additionally, a ______ component is likely present, since English bulldogs are over-represented; therefore, concurrent _________ is always recommended and thought to decrease the incidence of recurrence. There are several treatment options for urethral prolapse, including placing a ______ string suture, ___________ of the prolapsed region, and __________. The urethropexy technique (Kirsch JAAHA 2002) is (although not proven) thought to be associated with the _______ likelihood of recurrence. Although an amputation of the penis can be performed, this would be excessive for a urethral prolapse and therefore is not recommended due to to urethrostomy-associated complications. Attempting medical management is likely to result in recurrence, so it is generally not recommended.

Answer 70

Urethral prolapse is a relatively rare condition in dogs; however, it is most often seen in young male English bulldogs. Although the etiology is unknown, it is suspected that sexual excitement, masturbation, genitourinary infection, and calculi may play a role. Additionally, a genetic component is likely present, since English bulldogs are over-represented; therefore, concurrent castration is always recommended and thought to decrease the incidence of recurrence. There are several treatment options for urethral prolapse, including placing a purse string suture, amputation of the prolapsed region, and urethropexy. The urethropexy technique (Kirsch JAAHA 2002) is (although not proven) thought to be associated with the least likelihood of recurrence. Although an amputation of the penis can be performed, this would be excessive for a urethral prolapse and therefore is not recommended due to to urethrostomy-associated complications. Attempting medical management is likely to result in recurrence, so it is generally not recommended.

Question 71

A 3-year old llama presents to you with ataxia and hindlimb paresis that began in the hind limbs and progressed to the front limbs over the course of 2 months. Bloodwork is unremarkable, and vertebral radiography is within normal limits. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows eosinophilia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Parelaphostrongylus tenuis B. Bacterial meningitis C. Taenia saginata D. Tick paralysis E. Cervical spondylopathy F. Listeriosis

Answer 71

The meningeal worm (Parelaphostrongylus tenuis), also known as the deer worm or meningeal deer worm, frequently infects llamas and alpacas. The definitive host is the white-tailed deer, but llamas and alpacas are aberrant hosts and typically display neurologic signs that may include hypermetria, ataxia, stiffness, muscle weakness, posterior paresis, paralysis, arching neck, and circling. Clinical signs generally begin in the hind limbs and progress to the front limbs. The course of disease is variable. The key to answering this question is recognizing the eosinophilia in the CS fluid which suggests a parasitic infection. Taenia saginata is a beef tapeworm which can infect humans. The other choices are less likely in this case due to the CSF findings. There may be a few questions on camelids on your board exam. There are a few diseases that are specific to them that are worth knowing a little bit about for your exam including choanal atresia and meningeal worm infections.

Question 72

Which is the least likely possible outcome of FeLV infection? A. Leukemia B. Anemia C. Neurologic disease D. Myelodysplasia E. Lymphoma

Answer 72

The correct answer is neurologic disease. All of these are possible outcomes; however, neurologic disease is extremely rare and is probably only seen in conjunction with lymphoma as a paraneoplastic syndrome.

Question 73

Lymphangiectasia is a classic example of a protein-_______ enteropathy. It is characterized by dilation and dysfunction of intestinal _________ and leakage of ______-rich lymph into the intestinal lumen. As a result, _______, _______, and _________ are all lost. Calcium is also frequently low due to either low albumin or vitamin D and calcium malabsorption.

Answer 73

Lymphangiectasia is a classic example of a protein-losing enteropathy. It is characterized by dilation and dysfunction of intestinal lymphatics and leakage of protein-rich lymph into the intestinal lumen. As a result, protein, cholesterol, and lymphocytes are all lost. Calcium is also frequently low due to either low albumin or vitamin D and calcium malabsorption.

Question 74

The rabbit has 2 uterine horns and 2 cervices (and no uterine body).

Question 75

The most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in feline patients is ____________ ________. This disease cannot be distinguished from feline Herpesvirus-1 based on clinical appearance alone. Frequently, feline patients with these symptoms are infected with both of these diseases simultaneously. Diagnosis of Chlamydophila felis is made by visualizing typical _________ bodies in the cytoplasm of _________ epithelial cells or obtaining a positive _____ test on a __________ scraping. The treatment of Chlamydophila felis is topical _________ QID for one week post resolution of clinical signs.

Answer 75

The most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in feline patients is Chlamydophila felis. This disease cannot be distinguished from feline Herpesvirus-1 based on clinical appearance alone. Frequently, feline patients with these symptoms are infected with both of these diseases simultaneously. Diagnosis of Chlamydophila felis is made by visualizing typical elementary bodies in the cytoplasm of conjunctival epithelial cells or obtaining a positive fluorescent antibody (FA) test on a conjunctival scraping. The treatment of Chlamydophila felis is topical tetracycline QID for one week post resolution of clinical signs.

Question 76

E. coli 0157:7 is a concern because of its ___________ potential and not because of pathology seen in cattle as infected animals are typically __________. The bacteria are spread through _____-____ transmission, most commonly by contamination of ____ or _____ supplies. Recent outbreaks in North America have involved contamination of foods (vegetables such as _______ and ______). The major sign seen in humans is ?

Answer 76

E. coli 0157:7 is a concern because of its zoonotic potential and not because of pathology seen in cattle as infected animals are typically asymptomatic. The bacteria are spread through fecal-oral transmission, most commonly by contamination of food or water supplies. Recent outbreaks in North America have involved contamination of foods (vegetables such as spinach and lettuce). The major sign seen in humans is hemorrhagic colitis.

Question 77

Prostaglandin analogs decrease IOP by ___________ the outflow of aqueous humor through the _______ pathway by causing an intense ______. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g., dorzolamide) inhibit an _________ present in the ciliary body epithelium that contributes to aqueous humor ___________. ß-blockers (e.g., timolol) decrease IOP by reducing _______ flow to the ciliary body, thereby _________ aqueous humor production.

Answer 77

Prostaglandin analogs decrease IOP by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor through the uveoscleral pathway by causing an intense miosis. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g., dorzolamide) inhibit an enzyme present in the ciliary body epithelium that contributes to aqueous humor production. ß-blockers (e.g., timolol) decrease IOP by reducing blood flow to the ciliary body, thereby decreasing aqueous humor production.

Question 78

What breed of dog is most predisposed to development of histiocytic neoplasia? A. German Shepherd Dogs B. Giant Schnauzers C. Cocker Spaniels D. Bernese Mountain Dogs

Answer 78

The correct answer is Bernese Mountain Dogs. These dogs are by far, the most overrepresented breed for developing histiocytic neoplasia.

Question 79

3.5 month old calf with diarrhea and neuro signs = nervous coccidiosis

Question 80

Fluids for HYPP = 0.9% sodium chloride + 5% dextrose

Question 81

Closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve _ and opening the eyes is mediated by CN III VII V, VII V, III VII, V VII, III

Answer 81

The answer is VII, Ill. Closure of the eyes is performed by the orbicularis oculi muscle innervated by the facial nerve. Opening of the eye is by the levator palpebrae superioris innervated by the oculomotor nerve. The trigeminal nerve supplies sensory innervation to the eye.

Question 82

Which of the following is zoonotic? A. Demodex B. Otodectes C. Dermacentor D. Sarcoptes

Answer 82

The correct answer is Sarcoptes.

Question 83

What is the causative chemical agent of fog fever in cattle? A. 4-Ipomeanol B. Slaframine C. Lactic acid D. Pyrrolizidine alkaloid E. 3-Methylindole

Answer 83

The correct answer is 3-methyl indole. Cattle that are moved to lush forage that is high in tryptophan metabolize the tryptophan to 3-methyl indole in the rumen which is toxic to the lungs, resulting in acute interstitial pneumonia and emphysema. This syndrome is known as fog fever, acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema, or grunts. 4- Ipomeanol is the chemical involved in moldy sweet potato poisoning, which yields similar pathology.

Question 84

What medication is used to treat coccidiosis in pigs?

Answer 84

Ponazuril

Question 85

Which of the following is not believed to be a cause of physitis in young horses? A. Growth plate compression B. Osteochondrosis C. Conformational defects D. Malnutrition E. Abnormal hoof growth

Answer 85

The correct answer is osteochondrosis. Physitis in young horses involves swelling around growth plates in long bones. Physitis is sometimes thought to be a component of osteochondrosis, but the other answer choices have been suggested to be causes of physitis.

Question 86

A premature foal is typically defined as a foal born before 320 days of gestation and demonstrating physical characteristics such as a short silky hair coat, soft pliant ears, laxity of the flexor tendons, a soft muzzle, and incomplete ossification of the carpal and tarsal bones. The hippomane is not part of the fetal anatomy but is the collection of cellular material and secretions found within the allantoic fluid.

Question 87

A 16-year-old Warmblood gelding presents for a two-day history of unilateral facial paralysis. The owner states that the horse had a routine dental procedure the day before she noted these signs. He seemed fine after the dental procedure, but she noted the neurologic abnormalities when she returned to the barn the following day. On physical exam, you note left-sided facial paralysis, an inability to blink the left eye, and a left head tilt. The horse refuses to leave his stall and leans against the wall with a wide-based stance. What do you recommend next for this horse? A. Guttural pouch endoscopy B. Begin oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole C. Dexamethasone injection D. Standing lateral radiographs

Answer 87

In a horse with temporohyoid osteoarthropathy, movements of the head, jaw, and neck can lead to stylohyoid fracture. Guttural pouch endoscopy is the most common method of diagnosing temporohyoid osteoarthropathy and secondary stylohyoid fracture, although CT may also be utilized. Both guttural pouches should be evaluated because the disease is often bilateral. Radiographs are a less sensitive diagnostic test. A dexamethasone injection and/or trimethoprim-sulfa may be used to treat temporohyoid osteoarthropathy, but a diagnosis must first be made.

Question 88

What is the main vector of Heartwater disease? A. Dermacentor B. Amblyomma C. Rhipicephalus D. Boophilus

Answer 88

The correct answer is Amblyomma spp. Heartwater is a disease found in Africa and the West Indies, caused by Ehrlichia ruminantium. The disease is tick borne and results in fatal encephalitis in sheep, goats and cattle.

Question 89

An African Grey parrot fed an all seed diet develops seizures. Deficiency of which of the following is the likely cause of the seizures? A. Vitamin A B. Phosphorus C. Calcium D. Magnesium

Answer 89

The correct answer is calcium. Hypocalcemia syndrome is common in African Greys and is seen when they eat seed diets deficient in calcium. The most common clinical signs are tremors and seizures.

Question 90

In canine patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, a chemistry panel would show: A. Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia B. Hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia C. Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia D. Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia

Answer 90

The correct answer is hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia. Patients with primary hyperparathyroidism would have hypercalcemia and normo to hypophosphatemia due to the law of mass action in which phosphorus decreases as calcium increases and vice versa.

Question 91

Serum IGF-1 measurement is the most commonly used diagnostic test for feline acromegaly. Acromegaly can lead to insulin resistance, which explains why this cat has been difficult to regulate. There are several different treatment options for feline acromegaly, including radiation therapy for the pituitary tumor, surgical removal of the tumor, or medical treatment with somatostatin analogues.

Question 92

Which of the following is least useful in helping to diagnose atopic dermatitis in a dog? A. Skin biopsy B. Clinical signs, anatomie distribution of clinica signs, and seasonality C. Intradermal Skin Testing (IDST) D. Serum ELISA

Answer 92

The correct answer is skin biopsy. A biopsy will reveal the pathology that the skin is undergoing, but will not give a specific diagnosis as to what is causing the reaction. IDST is performed by injecting a small amount of various individual antigens into the dermis of an animal and observing which antigen injections cause a reaction. The most common clinical sign of atopy is pruritus, which often occurs on the face, feet, and ears. Flare-ups also often occur during times of high concentrations of pollen in the environment. Serum ELISA measures the concentration of antigen specific IgE found in the animal.

Question 93

TGE is a viral disease of the small intestines causing vomiting and watery diarrhea. Mortality is 100% in piglets < 10 days old, but they seldom die if they are > 1 month old when infected.

Answer 93

TGE is a viral disease of the small intestines causing vomiting and watery diarrhea. Mortality is 100% in piglets < 10 days old, but they seldom die if they are > 1 month old when infected.

Question 94

Although LN Biopsy and histopathology is definitive for cases of bovine lymphsarcoma, this is not commonly offered at most labs. Therefore, the next best diagnostic is?

Answer 94

ELISA for BLV Antibodies The ELISA for BLV only reveals that the cow has antibodies to BLV virus, but not that she has clinical lymphoma. However, multiple enlarged lymph nodes and a positive BLV antibody test are strongly suggestive of lymphoma.

Question 95

A 7-year old male castrated cat presents for respiratory distress with open-mouth breathing. You initially place him in oxygen and obtain thoracic radiographs when he is stabilized. The films are shown here. What is your diagnosis? A. Left-sided congestive heart failure B. Pneumonia C. Feline asthma syndrome D. Neoplasia E. Tracheal collapse

Answer 95

The correct answer is left-sided congestive heart failure. The cardiac silhouette is tall suggestive of left ventricular enlargement, and there is an alveolar pattern in the lung fields. The pulmonary vasculature is also dilated. Remember that cats in heart failure can have edema distributed in patchy infiltrates throughout the lungs, in contrast to dogs where it is more typically in the perihilar region. Asthma is less likely as no clear bronchial markings are seen and because of the infiltrate. Neoplasia is a consideration, but doesn't explain the cardiac enlargement. Pneumonia could also cause this pattern of infiltrate (although it is more typically cranioventral), but also does not explain the cardiomegaly. There is no evidence of tracheal collapse, which is an exceedingly rare condition in the cat.

Question 96

You have a 20 kg dog with a PCV of 15%. You wish to raise his PCV to 25%. How much fresh whole blood should you administer? A. 200 ml B. 40 ml C. 100 ml D. 400 ml

Answer 96

The correct answer is 400ml. To raise the PCV 1% you need to give 2ml/ke of fresh whole blood. So, 40 ml will raise the dog's PCV by 1%, but since we need to raise it by 10%, you will need 400ml or fresh whole blood.

Question 97

GDV Rotationg If looking at patient cranial to caudal --> GDV rotates counter clockwise If looking at patient caudal to cranial --> GDV rotates clockwise

Question 98

What is the most common intraocular tumor in the cat?

Answer 98

Melanoma Lymphoma is the second most common

Question 99

You are working as a relief veterinarian at an exotic animal practice, and a toucan is brought in for evaluation due to a history of poor feathering and an overgrown beak. Blood work shows elevated liver enzymes and bile acids. What disease common for this species must you rule out? A. Cholangiohepatitis B. Hepatic lipidosis C. Hemochromatosis D. Hypocalcemia syndrome

Answer 99

The correct answer is hemochromatosis. Given the clinical signs, blood work results, and species, it is very important to consider hemochromatosis, as both toucans and mynah birds seem susceptible.

Question 100

What muscle is preferred for injections in birds?

Answer 100

The pectoral muscle is the preferred site due to size, ease of administration and fewer post administration complications.

Question 101

What complication is most likely to occur in equine patients suffering from anterior enteritis?

Answer 101

Laminitis!!!!

Question 102

Which of the following viruses has a latent phase within the trigeminal ganglion of chickens, allowing a clinically healthy chicken to carry this virus into a new poultry flock? A. Infectious bronchitis virus B. Infectious laryngotracheitis virus C. Fowl pox virus D. Lymphoid leukosis virus E. Infectious bursal disease virus

Answer 102

ILT is a herpesvirus with a latent phase in neural tissue.

Question 103

Pacing occurs most commonly with dysfunction of the __________ (_____________).

Answer 103

Pacing occurs most commonly with dysfunction of the forebrain (prosencephalon).

Question 104

What is the correct # and distribution of lung lobes in dogs and cats?

Answer 104

6 lung lobes total Left cranial and left caudal Right cranial, middle, caudal, and accessory